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EXAM 1

Terms in this set (45)

A base is a compound which:

A) releases or donates protons
B) lowers the pH of a solution
C) removes or accepts protons
C) removes OH- from solution
C
Physiology is:

A) The study of developmental changes of the body before birth
B) The study of the structure of body parts and their relationship to one another
C) The study of internal structures as they relate to the skin surface
D) The study of the operation or function of structures or systems
D
Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched:

A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye
B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye
C) Embryology: study of the changes that occur in the body throughout life
D) Histology: the study of tissues
C
Cytology is defines as a study of:

A) cells
B) the gross structure of the body
C) changes that occur from conception to birth
D) tissues
A
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be:

A) a complex cell
B) an organ system
C) a complex tissue
D) an organ
D
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex

1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organs

A) 2-1-3-4-5
B) 1-2-4-3-5
C) 2-1-4-3-5
D) 1-2-3-4-5
C
Survival needs of the body include:

A) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
C) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction
D) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction
B
Which of the following is not a necessary life function?

A) normal body temperature
B)digestion
C) maintenance of boundaries
D) responsiveness to changes or stimuli
A
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains:

A) a relatively stable internal environment
B) the lowest possible energy usage
C) a static state with no deviation from preset points
D) imbalances that are considered the cause of disease
A
An example of a positive feedback mechanism would be:

A) regulation of blood clotting
B) a disease caused by homeostatic imbalance
C) body temperature regulation
D) regulating glucose levels in the blood
A
A control mechanism in which the output of the system shuts off the effect of the original stimulus is a:

A) neutral feedback system
B) homeostatic imbalance
C) positive feedback system
D) negative feedback system
D
Which of the following statements is correct of homeostatic imbalance?

A) It is considered the cause of most diseases
B) The internal environment is becoming more stable
C) Negative feedback mechanisms take over
D) Feedback mechanisms maintain equilibrium
A
The organ system that is composed of glands that secrete hormones that regulate body functions is the _______?

A) urinary system
B) integumentary system
C) lymphatic system
D) endocrine system
D
The atomic number of an element is:

A) equal to the number of protons in the nucleus
B) equal to the number of neutrons in the nucleus
C) equal to the average mass of all isotopes of an element
D) equal to the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
A
If an atom of an element has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 20, how many electrons does it have?

A) 8
B) 12
C) 20
D) 28
A
If an atom of an element has 14 protons, 18 neutrons, and 14 electrons, what is its mass number?

A) 14
B) 32
C) 28
D) 18
B
The atomic weight of an element is equal to:

A) the average weight of the protons in an atom of an element
B) the mass of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of one atom of an element
C) the weight of one atom of one isotope of an element
D) the average of the mass numbers of all isotopes of an element as they occur in nature
D
Select the correct statement about isotopes.

A) all the isotopes of an element are radioactive
B) isotopes have the same number of protons, but a different number of neutrons
C) all the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons
D) isotopes are rare and occur only in the heavier elements
B
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are:

A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
B) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
B
Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions?

A) Molarity is the number of moles per 100 moles total
B) One mole of an element is equal to its atomic weight in grams
C) Solution concentrations are expressed as a proportion of solvent in a solution
D) Percent solutions are parts solute per 1000 parts total.
B
Which of the following is true of the differences between mixtures and compounds?

A) All mixtures are homogeneous- samples taken from any part are identical to ones taken from any other area
B) Chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture
C) Compounds are formed from two atoms, while mixtures are formed from three or more atoms
D) Components forming a mixture can be separated by physical means
D
Select the statement that is correct regarding chemical bonds.

A) Hydrogen bonds always and only occur in water
B) Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons between two atoms
C) Multiple bonds are not possible with covalent bonding
D) Covalent bonding ivnolves the transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to another
B
??? Atoms with 1 or 2 valence shell electrons (e.g. Na and K) are __________.

A) electroneutral
B) electronegative
C) inert (non-reactive)
D) electropositive
B
??? Which of the following is true of hydrogen bonds?

A) H bonds form between two electronegative atoms on different molecules
B) H bonds are strong bonds formed by the haring of electrons between atoms forming a bond
C) H bonds can also form intramolecular bonds
D) H bonds involve the transfer of an electron to an electropositive atom
A
Chemical reactions in which bonds are broken forming smaller molecules are:

A) decomposition reactions
B) anabolic reactions
C) dehydration reactions
D) synthesis reactions
A
In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the reactant that loses electrons is said to have been:

A) anionized
B) electronized
C) oxidized
D) reduced
C
Which of the following is true of energy flow in chemical reactions?

A) Endergonic reactions involve the release of energy from the reaction
B) The products of endergonic reactions contain more potential energy than the reactants
C) The reactants in endergonic reactions contain more potential energy than the product
D) Exergonic reactions involve the input of energy into the reaction
B
The speed or rate of chemical reactions in general in influenced by all of the following except:

A) the temperature
B) the presence of catalysts or enzymes
C) the concentration of the reactants
D) hydrogen bonding between water molecules
D
Which of the following is not an important characteristic of water?

A) Buffering pH
B) Reactivity
C) High heat of vaporization
D) Cushioning
A
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecules?

A) NaOH
B) NaCl
C) H2O
D) CH4
D
Salts are:

A) double covalent bonds
B) inorganic, ionic bonds
C) single covalent compounds
D) hydrogen bonds
B
A solution that has a pH of 10 is described as being:

A) neutral
B) very acidic
C) acidic
D) basic or alkaline
D
Buffer are systems that :

A) always donate protons and lowers the pH
B) release hydroxyl ions into the solution in response to rishing pH
C) form H2O and a salt, neutralizing the solution
D) bind proteins when the pH drops and release protons when the pH rises
D
A long chain or simple sugars is called a:

A) polypeptide
B) monosaccharide
C) nucleic acid
D) polysaccaride
D
Glucose, sucrose, and glycogen are all 3 examples of:

A) monosaccharides
B) carbohydrates
C) disaccharides
D) polysaccharides
B
Which of the following is an example of a lipid?

A) polysaccharide
B) triglyceride
C) polypeptide
D) glycogen
B
Cholesterol is an example of a(n):

A) neutral fat
B) phospholipid
C) steroid
D) eicosanoid
C
A neutral fat is composed of:

A) 2 fatty acids, glycerol and a phosphorus-containing group
B) 3 fatty acids and glycerol
C) 2 fatty acids and glycerol
D) 3 fatty acids, glycerol and a phosphorus-containing group
B
Which of the following is not true of proteins?

A) They may be denatured by heat or acidity
B) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information
C) Globular proteins have tertiary and quaternary structure
D) Some types are called enzymes
B
A chain of 10 amino acids would be called a :

A) nucleic acid
B) polysaccharide
C) triglyceride
D) polypeptide
D
The coiling of a polypeptide chain into a alpha helix is referred to as:

A) quaternary structure
B) tertiary structure
C) secondary structure
D) primary structure
C
Fibrous proteins:

A) are compact spherical proteins with tertiary and quaternary structure
B) include proteins such as keratin and elastin
C) function as enzymes
D) are also called functional proteins
B
Conenzymes are:

A) apoenzymes with cofactors
B) holoenzymes
C) metal ions
D) organic cofactors
D
Which statement about enzymes is false?

A) Enzymes are organic catalysts
B) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction
C) Enzymes and other proteins may be damages by high temperature
D) ENzymes are composed mostly of protein
B
Which of the following would not be part of an RNA molecule?

A) guanine
B) uracil
C) cytosine
D) thymine
D
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