100 terms

PSC 101 Final Exam

Which one of the following is NOT true of cultural or political beliefs in America.
A. America's origins as a wilderness society led to the belief that government is responsible for providing material assistance to its citizens.
B. Americans place a greater emphasis than Europeans on personal advancement through education.
C. Never has an American majority expressed a willingness to entrust health insurance fully to the government.
D. America has a strong individualistic culture/
E. America's individualistic culture has not proven to be an absolute barrier to government assistance.
The United States has certain rules in place to keep politics withing peaceful bounds. These rules include all of the following except.
A. Autocracy.
C. Constitutionalism.
D. Free markets.
E. None of these answers is correct.
In a constitutional system,
A.there are no restrictions on the lawful uses of power, as long as this power is obtained by majority rule.
B. there are lawful restrictions on a government's power.
C. the economy is based on the free enterprise system.
D. officials govern according to the traditions established by their predecessors.
E. all citizens have absolute free speech rights.
A government's authority
A. is evidenced when a government officials use their right to exercise power.
B. Is by definition not coercive.
C. Does not include the power to arrest and imprison.
D.ensures that lawlessness prevails most of the time.
E. is based on pluralism.
The process by which a society settles its conflicts and allocates the resulting benefits and cots is called.
A. Politics.
B. Government.
C. Elitism.
D. Socialism.
E. Communism.
__________ is the ability of persons, groups, or institutions to influence political developments.
A. Apathy.
B. Politics.
C. Power.
D. Liberty.
E. Political culture.
The Greek words demos and kratis together mean
A. majority rule is sacred.
B. the people rule.
C. government is good.
D. politics is immoral
E. the king is good.
John Stuart Mill believed that any form of government should be judged on its ability to.
A. offer the individual a "plethora of policy options" in the democratic process.
B. transfer power peacefully from one set of governing officials to the next.
C. provide social services for its citizenry.
D. maintain peace and order in the territory over which it has control.
E. promote the individual as " a progressive being."
What is major barrier to political thinking?
A. unwillingness of citizens to make the effort.
B. lack of access to governmental institutions.
C. elite control of political power resources.
D. failure of politicians and government institutions to communicate policy details to the public.
E. lack of access to news media sources outside sensationalist television or internet content.
What type of government suppresses individuality, forcing people to think and act in prescribed ways or risk punishment?
a. communistic
b. socialistic
c. authoritarian
d. egalitarian
e. republican
A totalitarian government
a. admits to no limits on its power.
b. may control the media and direct the economy, but maintains public support by allowing such social rights as freedom of religion.
c. controls through one-party rule, though it may allow some semblance of party opposition.
d. controls through multi-party rule, in which it controls the electoral process to ensure its own party always achieves a majority.
e. is often overthrown by opposition political parties or popular movements because it lacks legitimacy.
In an oligarchy,
a. the state is run by corporate interests and companies instead of individuals.
b. control rests with a small group of popularly elected individuals.
c. control rests with a single individual, such as a dictator.
d. control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families.
e. the state controls all aspects of individuals' lives, including family relations and the practice of religion.
Pluralism contends that, on most issues,
a. corporate elites have more control over economic policy than do "the politicians in the visible government."
b. the will of the majority of the voting public determines government policy.
c. it is the preference of the special interest that largely determines what government does.
d. true authority lies with the elected politicians, and not with the public that put them in office.
e. the diverse nature of the citizenry enhances the democratic process in policymaking.
What new policy was established by the U.S. Supreme Court's landmark Gideon v. Wainwright ruling?
a. the right to trial by jury
b. the need to charge an arrested suspect with a specific crime within 24 hours of arrest
c. the requirement that police read a suspect his rights before or during arrest
d. government provision of free legal counsel to the accused if they are too poor to hire a lawyer
e. the practice of allowing a suspect out on bail until the time of the trial
Roughly two-thirds of all lobbyists in the nation's capital represent
a. activist organizations.
b. labor unions.
c. business firms.
d. foreign-based political action groups.
e. nonprofit organizations
Which of the following has democracy come to mean in practice?
a. pluralistic government through the combination of popularly elected representatives and the influence of interest groups
b. oligarchic government through a legislature chosen through popular election
c. elitist control through interest group politics
d. pluralism through the election of representatives and the influence of corporate interests
e. majority rule through the free and open election of representatives
What is a major limit on majoritarianism suggested by the text?
a. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year.
b. The public lacks access to the information required to take informed political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year.
c. The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more influential than the voting power of the public.
d. The rapid turnover of government officials and members of the legislature prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single issue.
e. The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public, preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.
Research suggests which of the following is primarily to blame for the increase in faulty perceptions of news items among the public?
a. changes in the forms of communication
b. a failure of government officials to communicate truthfully
c. a growing disinterest in seeking out news items
d. the growing public gap in access to more advanced forms of media transmission, such as the Internet
e. the increasing political polarization of elected politicians
As described in the text, "political thinking"
a. is the reflection of an individual's ideological position when applied to political issues.
b. results from an individual allowing personal bias to inform all thoughts about political issues, instead of doing objective learning or research to form an opinion.
c. involves the careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about a political issue.
d. is the result of an individual's attempts to seek out news media that reinforce a pre-existing political bias.
e. is a strategy taken by those seeking election to public office in which their publicly stated positions are designed to maximize their attractiveness to the widest voting bloc.
Which of the following characterizes journalist Walter Lippmann's views on democracy?
a. He felt that well-funded private interest groups and lobbyists had taken the true majoritarian power of democracy away from the voting public.
b. He felt that modern democratic government had become an unhealthy, pluralistic enterprise.
c. He believed that among forms of government, only democracy could provide a citizen with the ability to be a "progressive being."
d. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy assigns them.
e. None of these answers is correct.
Which of the following is a difference between communism and socialism, as described by the text?
a. Under socialism, the government owns some firms, but under communism, the government does not own any major assets.
b. Under communism, the government assumes total management of the economy, whereas under socialism, the government does not try to manage the overall economy.
c. Under socialism, the economy operates mainly through private transactions, but under communism, the government owns a number of major industries and tries to provide for people's basic economic needs.
d. Under communism, the government manages the economy completely but does not attempt to provide for people's basic needs; under socialism, the government does not manage the economy completely, but does attempt to provide for people's basic needs.
e. Under socialism, the government owns more industries than a communist government, but provides less direct benefit for individuals' welfare.
The Bill of Rights added to the Constitution, among other things,
a. a guarantee of freedom of speech.
b. a division of governmental authority into three branches.
c. checks and balances among the three branches of government.
d. restrictions against the power of corporations to influence the election process.
e. term limits for elected officials to reduce their power.
The Bill of Rights
a. reduced the restrictiveness of constitutionalism.
b.enhanced the powers of the executive.
c.further checked the power of the majority.
d.enhanced the majoritarian nature of government.
e. restricted the power of corporate influence in the government.
In the first section of Federalist Papers, several dangers are outlined if the United States continued under the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT:
a. state of disunion
b. from the arms and arts of foreign nations
c. enumeration of the dangers
d. war between the states
e. failing to establish a coat of arms
Federalist No. 10 discusses the tendency to controling faction and "Liberty is to faction what air is to fire." Madison gives two methods of removing the causes of faction:
a. destroy liberty; give all citizens the same opionons, passions, interests
b. create a democracy; elect a prime minister
c. establish a public school system; establish a healthcare system
d. create endorse faction; appoint a faction leader
e. none of these
The idea that government should be restricted in its lawful uses of power and hence in its ability to deprive people of their liberty is expressed by the term
a. federalism.
b. self-government.
c. judicial review.
d. limited government.
e. natural rights.
The European philosopher whose concept of natural rights had a great impact on American politics is
a. Montesquieu.
b. Locke.
c. Hobbes.
d. Aristotle.
e. Burke.
President John Adams publicly indicated that
a. the federal government would not use force against common people that were simply seeking their inalienable rights.
b. the Constitution was designed for a governing elite.
c. dissent against the federal government would be welcomed as part of the birthing pangs of a republic.
d. he disagreed with the concept of a republic and preferred more direct democratic rule.
e. he felt he was the president of the "common folk."
The words of the Declaration of Independence reflected
a. Aristotle's conception of democracy.
b. Montesquieu's view of constitutionalism.
c. Hobbes's idea of the state of nature.
d. Locke's philosophy of inalienable rights.
e. Madison's view of factions.
Early Americans' preference for limited government was strengthened by
a. their exposure to life under the British Parliament and some of the "rights of Englishmen."
b. Lockean philosophy.
c. Britain's treatment of the colonies after the French and Indian War.
d. taxation without representation.
e. All these answers are correct.
Through the grants of power in the Constitution, the framers sought to
a. define the powers of state governments.
b. create a government in which sovereignty was invested in the national government only.
c. both empower government and limit it.
d. enumerate the rights of individuals.
e. abolish slavery.
The Constitution prevents the government from suspending the writ of habeas corpus, meaning that the government cannot
a. prosecute persons for acts that were legal at the time they were committed.
b. establish a state religion based on Christian beliefs.
c. enact laws that would legalize the practice of indentured servitude.
d. jail a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment.
e. silence freedom of the press.
Which of the following chronologies is correct?
a. Boston Tea Party (1773); First Continental Congress (1774); and beginning of the American Revolution (1775)
b. Shays' Rebellion (1773); Annapolis Convention (1774); and Declaration of Independence (1776)
c. Stamp Act (1775); Declaration of Independence (1776); and Philadelphia Convention (1788)
d. Common Sense (1769); Declaration of Independence (1776); and The Federalist Papers (1783)
e. Declaration of Independence (1776); Articles of Confederation (1787); Constitution (1791); and Federalist No. 10 (1795)
The principle of checks and balances is based on the notion that
a. leaders are the trustees of the people.
b. a weak government is always preferable to a strong government.
c. all legislative and executive action should be controlled through judicial power.
d. power must be used to offset power.
e. legislators and executives cannot be trusted, but judges are trustworthy.
The framers' most significant modification of the traditional doctrine of the separation of powers was to
a. include federalism.
b. include a two-chamber legislature.
c. define legislative power precisely, while defining executive and judicial power only in general terms.
d. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others.
e. grant the power of judicial review to the judiciary.
In practice, the most significant restraint imposed by Congress on the president is its
a. ability to override presidential vetoes.
b. power of impeachment.
c. power to make the laws and appropriate money, for these determine the programs the executive can implement.
d. power to approve presidential appointees.
e. power to investigate presidential activities.
The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution
a. by the framers during the Philadelphia convention.
b. in stages, from 1789 to 1798.
c. in response to the freeing of the slaves during the Civil War.
d. in response to the ideals of Jacksonian democracy.
e. None of these answers is correct.
The origin of the concept of separation of powers is most associated with
a. Montesquieu.
b. Aristotle.
c. Hobbes.
d. Locke.
e. Jefferson.
Marbury v. Madison is a landmark Supreme Court decision because it
a. established national supremacy; turned a case that involved the issue of states' rights into one that asserted national power.
b. set the precedent for judicial review; asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch.
c. defined the scope of state powers under the Tenth Amendment.
d. affirmed the necessary and proper clause.
e. helped to end Thomas Jefferson's political career; gave more power to the presidency, at the expense of Congress.
To the framers, the great danger of democratic government was the risk of
a. tyranny of the majority.
b. elite rule.
c. special-interest politics.
d. a weak presidency.
e. judicial imperialism.
The writers of the Constitution used the term ________ to describe a form of government that consists of carefully designed institutions that are responsive to the majority but not captive to it.
a. democracy
b. republic
c. federalism
d. majoritarianism
e. separation of power
The framers entrusted the selection of U.S. senators to
a. specially chosen electors.
b. state legislatures.
c. direct vote of the people.
d. state governors.
e. federal magistrates.
The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because
a. direct election was impractical due to the poor systems of communication and transportation that existed in the late 1700s.
b. that method would shield executive power from direct linkage to popular majorities.
c. that method guaranteed a majority winner.
d. that method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people.
e. the framers had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses.
The term of office for a U.S. senator is ________ years, while that of a member of the U.S. House is ________ years.
a. six; two
b. four; two
c. six; four
d. four; four
e. eight; four
The writers of the Constitution justified different methods of selection and varying terms of office for the president, Senate, and House as a means of
a. increasing popular influence.
b. protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority.
c. preventing elite control of government.
d. maintaining experienced leadership.
e. increasing voter turnout.
In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that
a. government is most dangerous when a single group is powerful enough to gain full political control.
b. monarchies are preferable to democracies.
c. America was not diverse enough to prevent powerful interest groups from exercising too much political power.
d. interest groups should be heavily regulated in America.
e. interest groups are less troublesome than political parties.
The first plan of government for the United States was a
a. confederation.
b. federalist system.
c. unitary form of government.
d. monarchy.
e. theocracy.
Progressive reforms included
a. primary elections.
b. direct election of U.S. senators.
c. the initiative and referendum.
d. recall elections.
e. All these answers are correct.
Which of the following was NOT provided for by the Articles of Confederation?
a. a national Congress
b. each state having one vote in Congress
c. unanimous approval by the states to amend the Articles
d. a federal government subordinate to the states
e. an independent federal executive
The Constitution forbids Congress from
a. proposing constitutional amendments.
b. passing ex post facto laws.
c. declaring war.
d. proposing the repeal of constitutional amendments.
e. creating a national university.
The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because
a. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.
b. a federal government alone would never be able to command the identity or loyalty of its citizenry.
c. Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.
d. the British political system was based on the federal principle.
e. the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.
Viewed in historical terms, federalism has been a
a. contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.
b. theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have had virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states.
c. flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits.
d. fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution.
e. poor replacement for the confederal system which existed before the Constitution.
53. Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787?
a. confederal to federal
b. confederal to unitary
c. federal to unitary
d. unitary to confederal
e. federal to confederal
Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power?
a. public education
b. regulation of commerce
c. declaration of war
d. taxation
e. establish a national currency
Which of the following was an argument in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution?
a. Federalism will protect liberty.
b. Federalism will force officials to be more responsive to the people.
c. Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation.
d. Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction.
e. All these answers are correct.
Sovereignty refers to
a. a government headed by a king.
b. a division of authority between the national government and the states.
c. supreme and final governing authority.
d. sub-national (state) governments.
e. None of these answers is correct.
The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to
a. limit the powers of the state governments.
b. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage.
c. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage.
d. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.
e. limit the power of the presidency.
The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about
a. individual freedoms.
b. the meaning of the commerce clause.
c. popular representation in Congress.
d. the powers of state governments.
e. the Electoral College.
Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers?
a. necessary and proper clause
b. supremacy clause
c. Tenth Amendment
d. the commerce clause
e. the power to tax
According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong of a national government meant
a. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.
b. that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years.
c. that a monarchy was preferable to a republic.
d. that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility.
e. that slavery would be abolished immediately.
McCulloch v. Maryland
a. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism.
b. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government.
c. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.
d. established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues.
e. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.
Through its Dred Scott decision, the Supreme Court
a. ruled that "free land" made "free men."
b. upheld free blacks' rights of citizenship.
c. upheld the principles of the Missouri Compromise.
d. soothed sectarian tensions.
e. ruled that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere in the United States.
Dual federalism held that
a. the states were equal to the national government in all respects.
b. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.
c. national and state authority were indivisible.
d. the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority.
e. None of these answers is correct.
In Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court ruled that
a. the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional.
b. state regulation of labor practices violated firms' property rights.
c. the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce.
d. factory practices could only be regulated by the states.
e. factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.
A public policy program on which national, state, and local policymakers collaborate is an example of
a. dual federalism.
b. cooperative federalism.
c. unitary federalism.
d. confederal federalism.
e. cosponsor federalism.
If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid, it must
a. comply with federal restrictions on its use.
b. reimburse the federal government after a specified period.
c. match the funds with twice that amount in state funds.
d. reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income.
e. None of these answers is correct.
The Constitution allows states to
a. raise an army in peacetime.
b. print money.
c. make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress.
d. govern intrastate commerce.
e. govern interstate commerce.
The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts?
a. enumerated powers
b. reserved powers
c. implied powers
d. concurrent powers
e. All these answers are correct.
Which decision is indicative of how the Supreme Court interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment and state discretion in civil rights matters in the decades after the Civil War?
a. Brown v. Board of Education
b. the Dred Scott decision
c. Plessy v. Ferguson
d. McCulloch v. Maryland
e. Gibbons v. Ogden
Devolution is the
a. passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.
b. expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.
c. contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.
d. expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.
e. None of these answers is correct.
The federal government's power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and declare war are all examples of ________ powers.
a. reserved
b. enumerated
c. implied
d. concurrent
e. None of these answers is correct.
A blending of state and national authority is associated with ________ federalism, while a separation of national and state authority is associated with ________ federalism.
a. dual; fiscal
b. dual; cooperative
c. cooperative; dual
d. picket-fence; cooperative
e. cooperative; pyramid
According to ________, a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction.
a. Patrick Henry
b. George Mason
c. James Madison
d. John C. Calhoun
e. John Marshall Harlan
The "separate but equal" standard was created by
a. Congress.
b. the Supreme Court.
c. the state supreme court of Virginia.
d. President Ulysses S. Grant.
e. Justice John Marshall Harlan.
In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of
a. the national government.
b. state and local governments.
c. the National Education Association (NEA).
d. the American Federation of Teachers (AFT).
e. the U.S. Department of Education.
The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by
a. actions of the president.
b. the actions of individuals.
c. actions of the federal government.
d. actions of state and local governments.
e. actions of the U.S. military.
The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that
a. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases.
b. apply in civil cases but not in military ones.
c. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.
d. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals.
e. are not covered by the First Amendment.
The individual right that is widely regarded as the most basic of individual rights is
a. the right to an attorney.
b. freedom of expression.
c. the right to a jury trial.
d. the right to an adequate education.
e. protection against illegal searches and seizures.
Justice Holmes's "clear and present danger" test holds that government can
a. restrict speech that threatens national security.
b. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature.
c. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures.
d. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue.
e. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.
Like all other rights, the right of free expression is
a. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights.
b. not absolute.
c. fully respected by public officials.
d. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials.
e. None of these answers is correct.
Gideon v. Wainwright is to the Sixth Amendment as Mapp v. Ohio is to the
a. First Amendment.
b. Fourth Amendment.
c. Fifth Amendment.
d. Eighth Amendment.
e. Tenth Amendment.
Which Federalist Paper specifically discusses why the new Constitution omits a "Bill of Rights?"
a. 29
b. 15
c. 4
Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place
a. under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views.
b. when the rally would require unduly expensive police protection.
c. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular.
d. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally.
e. None of these answers is correct.
Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person's reputation are an example of
a. libel.
b. slander.
c. blasphemy.
d. obscenity.
e. symbolic speech.
The Supreme Court's position on prior restraint of the press is that
a. national security needs are of highest priority.
b. only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint.
c. prior restraint can never be exercised by government.
d. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print.
e. prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy.
The inclusion of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights in the Fourteenth Amendment, so that these rights are protected from infringements by the state governments, is called
a. the preferred position doctrine.
b. procedural change.
c. selective incorporation.
d. the absorption doctrine.
e. prior restraint.
Which of the following is correct with regard to obscenity and the law?
a. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment.
b. Obscenity is never unlawful.
c. Child pornography is protected by the First Amendment.
d. Obscenity has been easy for courts to define with precision.
e. Obscenity is protected under the Ninth Amendment.
The establishment clause prohibits government from
a. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights.
b. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment.
c. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.
d. interfering with freedom of assembly.
e. interfering with the right to bear arms.
According to the Supreme Court, prayer in public schools violates
a. the free exercise clause.
b. the establishment clause.
c.the exclusionary rule.
d. procedural due process.
e. the clear and present danger test.
The exclusionary rule states that
a. federal law cannot be applied in state courts.
b. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state.
c. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases.
d. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.
e. state law cannot be applied in federal courts.
In Mapp v. Ohio, the selective incorporation process was extended to include
a. criminal proceedings in the states.
b. civil cases.
c. pleas of insanity.
d. children (minors) accused of crime.
e. indigent litigants.
The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by
a. the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
b. the Ninth Amendment, which says that people's rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution.
c. the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government.
d. the implication of said right by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.
e. the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision?
a. Roe v. Wade
b. Mapp v. Ohio
c. Schenck v. United States
d. Miranda v. Arizona
e. New York Times Co. v. United States
The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from
a. any search conducted without a warrant.
b. unreasonable searches.
c. unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers.
d. all searches conducted by state officers.
e. searches conducted only by local officers.
Voluntary school prayer in the public schools was ruled unconstitutional in
a. Escobedo v. Illinois (1964).
b. Engel v. Vitale (1962).
c. Buckley v. Valeo (1976).
d. Gitlow v. New York (1925).
e. Roth v. United States (1957).
The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in
a. the First Amendment.
b. the Fourth Amendment.
c. the Sixth Amendment.
d. the Tenth Amendment.
e. the Fourteenth Amendment.
Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798?
a. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.
b. The Supreme Court ruled the Act unconstitutional.
c. The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it.
d. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it.
e. The state governments refused to enforce it.
In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that
a. the Espionage Act was unconstitutional.
b. speech could be restricted when the nation's security is at stake.
c. speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted.
d. speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups.
e. all forms of political dissent are constitutional.
The Miranda warning was upheld by the Supreme Court in 2000 in
a. Palko v. Connecticut.
b. Stenberg v. Carhart.
c. Reno v. ACLU.
d. Ferguson v. Charleston.
e. Dickerson v. United States.
Gideon v. Wainwright required the states to
a. temporarily abolish the death penalty.
b. expand the exclusionary rule to both felony and misdemeanor cases.
c. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases.
d. grant speedy trials to defendants after 90 days of delay.
e. provide more funding for education.