Set B Pre-Test
Terms in this set (184)
(001) Before using an electric drill, what is the first thing you should do?
Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill.
(001) The purpose of cutting lubricant in most drilling operations is to increase the
drilling speed and the drill bit life.
(001) Which minimum articles of safety gear must be worn when using a bench grinder?
Eye and face protection.
(001) An electric saw blade must be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut?
(002) How many pounds per square inch (psi) of clean, dry air is required at the tool end of the air hose to ensure the tool is operating safely and efficiently?
(003) What condition would prevent an operator from applying power to a hoist or other powered lifting device?
An AF Form 979 is attached to the unit.
(003) What should be worn anytime there is a potential for injury from overhead objects during a lifting operation?
(003) What is the most common type of lifting sling used in the munitions career field?
(003) The following are all good safety practices to follow when using a lifting sling except
inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling.
(004) The annunciators displayed on the Fluke 8025-series multimeter are used to distinguish among
ohms, kilohms, and megohms.
(004) What are the two operational modes of the Fluke 8025-series multimeter?
Range and hold.
(005) The steering system on the MHU-141/M trailer has a turning radius of how many inches?
(005) When the MHU-141 trailer is loaded or towed with the hinged deck panels open, what must be done?
The deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with quick-release pins.
(006) What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer?
(006) The parking brake on the MHU-110/M is applied by
pulling either one of two hand levers located on each side of the front of trailer.
(007) How many openings (hinged door panels) are on the deck of the MHU-226 trailer?
(007) What type of steering aids the MHU-226 in a tighter steering radius?
Four-wheel double Ackerman.
(008) After 463L pallets are positioned on a rollerized trailer, what can you use to secure the pallets to the trailer?
MB-1 chain assemblies and/or tie-down straps.
(008) What kind of movement supports on-base activities to or from the flightline?
(009) What munitions item is not loaded into transport modules by munitions personnel?
(009) What transport module used for decoy munitions has a maximum capacity of 30 magazines?
(009) How often should the positive locking devices on the doors of munitions transport modules be checked?
After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops.
(010) The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ-1-series lift truck is to
provide added support and to relieve hydraulic pressure from the lift arms when carrying loads for long distances.
(010) What is the lifting capacity of the MJ-1 series lift truck?
(010) What is the lifting capacity of the MHU-83-series lift truck?
(010) When using the MHU-83-series lift truck with fork adapters, you immediately
reduce its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds.
(010) What happens when you release the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission?
The unit coasts to a stop very quickly.
(010) What is the primary drawback to using the hydraulic hand pump to build hydraulic pressure on the MHU-83-series lift truck?
Extremely slow way to build hydraulic pressure.
(010) How is the yaw positioning from the cradle or boom controls of an MJ-1 lift truck adjusted?
(011) What category or categories are Air Force air compressors classified?
High or low pressure.
(012) The primary difference between a bobtail and a pickup truck is the
bobtail's back end is shortened by about one-half.
(013) What is the purpose behind good operator maintenance of all assigned vehicles?
Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost.
(014) What is the maximum amount of pounds the MB-4 aircraft towing tractor can tow and push?
(015) Pintle safety locking pins must remain attached to the pintle assembly
to prevent an unsecure pin from coming out and getting lost.
(016) What gear range should be selected in a tractor with an automatic transmission while going downhill?
(016) What is the purpose of the trailer hand valve (Johnson bar)?
Test the trailer brakes.
(016) What are hose couplers (glad hands) used for on tractor/trailer combinations?
To connect the service and emergency brake airlines from the tractor to the trailer.
(016) Which procedure is not a consideration for backing a tractor/trailer combination?
Turn toward the passenger's side.
(017) What is the maximum depth of water you may drive a rough-terrain forklift through?
(017) What is the most beneficial attribute of using the swingmast forklift?
Allows you to maximize the available storage space.
(017) With the forks level, what is the maximum reach of the variable-reach forklift?
(018) What USAF gun system is loaded and unloaded by the Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS)?
The M61A1, 20 mm cannon.
(018) Which weapons replaceable assembly of the Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS) has no moving parts?
(019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) houses a remaining indicator window that provides the means to visually determine the approximate number of rounds in the unit?
(019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system?
(019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the power that cycles the rounds through the system?
(020) How often should universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher assemblies be inspected?
Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage.
(020) Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher assembly prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly?
Rigid ammunition chute assembly.
(020) Which tool can initiate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually?
1/2-inch speed wrench.
(020) What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader when the linked ammunition is being processed?
Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher.
(021) Which 30 millimeter (mm) cannon is internally mounted in the A-10 aircraft?
(021) Which 30 mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU-5/A gun pod?
(022) Which component of the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height?
Interface control board (ICB).
(022) What is the weight capacity of the pneumatic hoists that are attached to the gantry's I-beam of the munitions assembly conveyor (both versions)?
4,000 lbs.(A/E32K-3, MAC); 6,000 lbs. (A/E32K-9, MAC II).
(022) The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting
three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items.
(023) Which technical order (TO) covers the rapid-assembly and inspection procedures of nonnuclear munitions?
(023) What is the minimum number of feet required to assemble the A/E32K-3, munitions assembly conveyor?
50 × 100.
(023) Why is it important to monitor net explosive weight (NEW) during a bomb buildup operation?
If ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another.
(023) When packing up the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) it is important to cap the ends of the air hoses to keep
foreign materials from damaging them.
(024) What does Title 49 of the code of federal regulations (CFR) regulate?
Shipments of hazardous material, including explosives within the United States.
(024) Which approved restraining devices can be used for securing munitions on USAF vehicles/trailers?
Chains/binders, cargo nets, and tie-down straps.
(024) When is it permissible to transport explosives in privately owned vehicles (POV)?
(024) What is the primary focus when designating primary and alternate explosives movement routes?
Use the safest possible routes.
(025) What source is best used to determine the explosive hazard class/division of a specific unitions item?
Joint Hazard Classification System (JHCS).
(026) What should you do if a conflict is discovered while using TO 11-1-38 between the illustrations and the written procedures?
Follow the written procedures.
(026) Even though TO 11-1-38 has its own safety section, what other publication should you reference for safely transporting explosive items on base?
(026) What type of information is given in the general notes on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section in TO 11-1-38 and is required to be reviewed?
WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon.
(026) If you cannot fully close the load-binder handle by hand,
adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain.
(026) What chapter of TO 11-1-38 covers configuration of the MHU-141 munitions trailer?
(026) What piece of equipment must be used with the MHU-110 to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable while using the rail extenders for loading or unloading heavy munitions?
(026) What can be constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rounded munitions?
Wooden rail sets.
(027) What provides an itemized list of all equipment authorized for use with nuclear weapons?
Master nuclear certification list.
(027) Once verified that an item is nuclear certified, how is it identified as such?
Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents.
(027) Which statement about pintle hooks and their use in operations with nuclear weapons is correct?
Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are authorized.
(027) Which items do not require nuclear safety certification for use in operations with nuclear weapons?
General-purpose hand tools.
(028) When should you replace a nuclear certified MB-1 tie-down/chain assembly item?
After finding any cracks, bent/worn parts, or excessive corrosion.
(028) Which action is not an authorized method for securing loose lengths of chain when using the MB-1 tie-down device/chain assembly?
Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device and secure to the quick-release lever.
(028) When using a load binder for securing a load, what is the main reason for not using a cheater baror extension tool to fully close the handle?
It would place too much pressure on the load and/or tie-down points.
(028) When specifically authorized for transporting nuclear weapons and materiel, how many CGU-1/B tie-down straps need to be used as a substitute for every one MB-1 tie-down assembly?
(029) What are the key factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement?
Safety and security.
(029) Which area is designated as a location used temporarily during a delay of an off-base movement involving nuclear weapons?
(029) What code word is used when a Department of Energy (DOE) convoy seeks sanctuary during an emergency?
(029) In regards to ground transportation, when are nuclear weapons moved by convoy?
Every time weapons are moved.
(029) What is the most difficult job for escort guards during a convoy?
Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy.
(201) A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be
(201) Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce
(201) The word hygroscopicity refers to what property of an explosive?
(201) The rate of transformation for high explosives is between 3,200 and
(201) The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called
(202) Explosive train primers are classified
by the way they are initiated.
(202) What does an explosive train booster do?
Detonates the main charge.
(202) How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?
Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.
(202) How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
Increase standoff distance.
(202) What is a shaped charge used for?
To produce an explosive penetration of a solid target.
(203) The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and
(203) The classifications of pyrotechnics include illuminants
signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators.
(203) What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate?
Color of the signal produced.
(204) Approximately how many minutes does the MK6 signal flare burn?
(204) What pyrotechnic effects are produced by the AN-MK13 signal?
Smoke and illumination.
(204) The primary reason the AN-MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld while burning is to allow a downed pilot to
hold the flare while treading water.
(204) How is the A/P25S-5A distress signal kit ignited?
(204) How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
(204) What altitude is attainable by the M131 signal when fired?
(205) The largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms" is
(205) The components of a typical small-arms cartridge are cartridge case,
primer, bullet, and propellant.
(206) What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have
(206) The filler for the M34 smoke grenade is
(206) What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
(206) The AN-M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical filler to produce what kind of smoke?
(207) Which antipersonnel mine is commonly called the claymore?
(207) How much force pressed against the pressure plate is required to set off the M14 anti-personnel mine?
20 to 35 pounds.
(208) Which type of mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?
(208) Which type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?
(209) What device is used to detonate a high explosive (HE)?
(209) What weatherproof device is used to initiate a time fuze?
(210) The M112 demo block is made of
(210) Blasting machines are used to provide the impulse needed in
(210) The firing wire used in detonation systems is issued in what lengths?
(211) The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and
(211) What component in an electronically-timed fuze replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?
Electric charging assembly.
(211) Which safety feature is designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?
(212) How do you change the firing delay times in a mechanically-timed M904 nose fuze?
By changing the delay element.
(212) What action must you take to set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6 seconds on an M904 fuze?
Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.
(212) What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
(212) Where is the M905 fuze installed in a general-purpose bomb body?
The tail fuze well.
(213) Which device is used in place of arming wire with electrical fuzes?
(213) When installed in the nose fuze well, how many FZU-2/B boosters are used with the FMU-81/B fuze?
(213) What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze?
(214) Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)-64/B, SUU-65/B, and SUU-66/B dispensers?
(214) Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting of 15 feet above ground level that is built into the fuze at the time of manufacture?
(215) Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb?
(216) Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?
(216) Which 4,000 pound penetrator bomb is used as the warhead/bomb body for the GBU-28A/B?
(216) Which bomb provides deeper penetration than the BLU-113 and is used with the GBU-28C/B?
(217) The PDU-5/B uses which suspension utility unit (SUU)?
(217) With the exception of the explosive filler, the BLU-126/B and BLU-129/B are identical to the
MK82 MOD 2 bomb.
(218) The BDU-33 series practice bomb weighs
(218) What is the weight of the BDU-48 series practice bomb?
(218) Which series practice bomb only weighs 5 pounds?
(219) The CBU-87 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
(219) The CBU-87/B is loaded with which submunitions?
(220) The CBU-89 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
(220) The CBU-89 is loaded with which submunitions?
BLU-91/B and BLU-92/B bomblets.
(221) The CBU-105 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
(221) Once free falling over the target area what imparts spin and upward thrust for BLU-108 submunitions?
(222) The components of a wind-corrected munitions dispenser are a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and
flight program software.
(222) Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?
Control actuation assembly.
(223) How is 20 millimeter ammunition classified?
According to its purpose.
(223) The incendiary composition of the 20 millimeter armor-piercing incendiary (API) round is initiated by
(223) Which 20 millimeter round carries the M505 point-detonating fuze?
High-explosive incendiary (HEI).
(223) What 20 millimeter round is used for drill or testing the feeder assembly for a M61 gun system?
(223) What 20 millimeter projectile component enables spin and stabilization in flight?
(223) The delayed arming distance of a M505 series fuze from the muzzle of a 20 millimeter cannon is
10 to 35 feet.
(223) The identifying information of a 20 millimeter round of ammunition is marked on the
(223) When bulk-packed, how many rounds of 20 millimeter ammunition do you expect to find in an M548 container?
200 to 250.
(224) What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter round?
(224) The purpose of the ignition booster in the 25 millimeter round is to
ensure consistent propellant ignition.
(224) How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?
The projectile is non-separable and the total cartridge is gold in color.
(224) When 25 millimeter ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds are found in a CNU-405 container?
80 or 100.
(225) How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 millimeter target practice round?
The primer ignites black powder in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant.
(225) What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?
(225) The 30 millimeter dummy ammunition
is for familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.
(225) The 30 millimeter cartridge case is made of
(225) Which fuze is used in 30 millimeter high-explosive incendiary (HEI) ammunition?
(225) How many separate lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter round of ammunition?
(226) How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round?
(226) What fuze is used in the 40 millimeter high-explosive incendiary (HEI) PGU-9 C/B round?
(227) What aircraft is equipped to fire 105 millimeter ammunition?
(227) What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter high-explosive (HE) round?
(227) The high fragmentation (HF) PGU-45/B projectile will produce approximately how many fragments?
(227) In order to optimize lethality the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU-160/B fuze is
(227) The 105 millimeter clearing cartridge is designed to
clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon.
(227) The approximate length of a complete 105 millimeter round is
(228) Countermeasure flares are designed
to divert enemy infrared/heat-seeking missiles away from original target.
(228) How is an ALA-17 series flare ignited?
An electric squib ignition assembly.
(228) Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU-7/B flare?
(228) The SD-206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides
smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.
(228) Which component is part of the ALE-50 series towed decoy system (TDS)?
(228) The RR-170 chaff cartridge uses which impulse cartridge?
(229) The LUU-2 series aircraft flare produces
an off-white light of two-million candlepower.
(229) The LUU-19 series illumination flare produces
light in the near-infrared region.
(230) How much gas pressure can a thruster (cartridge-actuated device) produce?
250 to 6,000 (psi).
(230) Removers (cartridge-actuated device) are designed to
jettison the aircraft canopy.
(230) Electric squibs (propellant-actuated device) are similar to
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