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A client's shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Levator scapulae
Lower trapezius
A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?
Select one:
a. Overworking
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Resistance development
Exhaustion
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Leg-power
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-power
Balance-power
A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?
Select one:
a. Stabilization
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Reactive
Strength
Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
Select one:
a. The top number in the blood pressure reading
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
c. The larger of the two numbers
d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
During the pushing assessment, you notice your client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?
Select one:
a. Chin tuck
b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise
c. Ball wall squats
d. Ball cobra
Ball cobra
For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?
Select one:
a. Treadmills
b. Bicycles
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes
Bicycles
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?
Select one:
a. 0-3 minutes
b. 3-5 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
d. 10-15 minutes
5-10 minutes
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
Select one:
a. 15 seconds minimum
b. 20 seconds minimum
c. 25 seconds minimum
d. 30 seconds minimum
30 seconds minimum
If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
Select one:
a. Soleus
b. Biceps femoris (short head)
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. TFL
Medial gastrocnemius
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Soleus
c. Internal oblique
d. Erector spinae
Internal oblique
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres minor
d. Deep cervical flexors
Scalenes
Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?
Select one:
a. Multiple set
b. Pyramid
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading
Pyramid
The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and internal rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?
Select one:
a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as:
Select one:
a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Dynamic flexibility
d. Active flexibility
Relative flexibility
What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?
Select one:
a. Shark skill
b. Upper extremity strength
c. Davies
d. Overhead squat
Davies
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client's blood pressure?
Select one:
a. No effect
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer
Decrease
What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?
Select one:
a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b. Two- arm push press
c. Barbell clean
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
Squat, curl, to two-arm press
What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?
Select one:
a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only
b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading
d. Not possible to use a full body workout with horizontal loading
The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?
Select one:
a. 1%-2%
b. 5%-10%
c. 10%-15%
d. 15%-20%
5%-10%
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
Select one:
a. Right before bed
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Upon waking in the morning
Upon waking in the morning
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Barbell bench press
c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?
Select one:
a. 75-79%
b. 80-85%
c. 86-90%
d. 91-94%
86-90%
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?
Select one:
a. Plyometric-strength
b. Leg-strength
c. Plyometric-power
d. SAQ
Plyometric-power
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?
Select one:
a. Feet and knees
b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees
c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
d. Feet, knees, and shoulder complex
Feedback
Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
When determining a client's heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?
Select one:
a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
(220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Circuit training
b. Single set
c. Split set
d. Multiple set
Single set
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
Select one:
a. Romanian deadlift
b. Squat Jump
c. Seated row
d. Single-leg cable row
Seated row
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor complex
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
Adductor complex
When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
Select one:
a. Rhomboids
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor
Teres major
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg, alternating arm
b. Single-leg, single-arm
c. Two legs
d. Seated
Two legs
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Balance-power
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-plyometric
Balance-strength
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
Select one:
a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and planar flexed
Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
Select one:
a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load
Increasing proprioception
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
Select one:
a. Semitendinosis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Bicep femoris
Gastrocnemius
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a new client?
Select one:
a. Floor prone cobra
b. Ball crunch
c. Reverse crunch
d. Cable rotation
The correct answer is: Floor prone cobra
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Seated cable row
b. Standing cable row
c. Medicine ball pull over throw
d. Seated lat pull down
Standing cable row
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?
Select one:
a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
c. Barbell squat
d. Squat jumps to stabilization
Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
Select one:
a. Tuck jump
b. One-ins
c. Ice skaters
d. Power step-ups
One-ins
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Select one:
a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower extremity movement syndrome
Pronation distortion syndrome
Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?
Select one:
a. Cable rotation
b. Back extension
c. Rotation chest pass
Rotation chest pass
Which of the following is considered subjective information?
Select one:
a. Taking radial pulse
b. Lifestyle questions
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Circumference measurements
Lifestyle questions
Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio?
Select one:
a. 3 rep bench press max
b. Sprinting
c. Fast walking
d. Group exercise class
Sprinting
Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?
Select one:
a. Internal oblique
b. External oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Hip flexors
External oblique
Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Pyramid
b. Supersets
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading
Circuit training
You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
Select one:
a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching
b. Self-myofascial release only
c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching
d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?
Select one:
a. TFL
b. Glute medius
c. VMO
d. Medial hamstring
TFL
What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
Select one:
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4
Zone 2
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. Emotion
b. Price
c. Time
d. Pressure
Emotion
Clients must learn whether they are moving in the right direction, and if course corrections are needed. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?
Select one:
a. Reflection
b. Self-review
c. Self-analysis
d. Self-monitoring
Self-monitoring
During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus in the transverse plane what movement is occurring at the joint?
Select one:
a. Hip flexion
b. Hip internal rotation
c. Hip extension and external rotation
d. Hip flexion and internal rotation
Hip extension and external rotation
During the overhead squat assessment the knees move inward, which of the following strengthening exercises should be used?
Select one:
a. Single-leg balance reach
b. Tube walking
c. Ball wall squats
d. Squat to row
Tube walking
During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive?
Select one:
a. Soleus
b. Lateral gastrocnemius
c. Gluteus medius
d. Sartorius
Sartorius
Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg, through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Balance Stabilization
b. Balance Strength
c. Leg Stabilization
d. Leg Strength
Balance Strength
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?
Select one:
a. In the morning
b. In the evening
c. Throughout the day
d. With your first meal
Throughout the day
How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?
Select one:
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
4 years
How many calories are in one gram of protein?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 9
4
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the stabilization endurance level of training?
Select one:
a. 0-2
b. 1-3
c. 2-4
d. 3-5
1-3
How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the power phase of training?
Select one:
a. 0-2
b. 1-3
c. 2-4
d. 3-5
3-5
How much communication in non-verbal?
Select one:
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 55%
d. 45%
55%
How much water should someone consume on a daily basis?
Select one:
a. Men 3.5 L and Women 2.7 L per day
b. Men 3.0 L and Women 2.2 L per day
c. Men 2.2 L and Women 3.0 L per day
d. Men 2.7 L and Women 3.5 L per day
Men 3.0 L and Women 2.2 L per day
If a clients knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
Select one:
a. Adductors
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Vastus medialis oblique
Adductors
If you are training a beginning client, who has never worked out before how many exercises per body part should be performed?
Select one:
a. 0-1
b. 1-2
c. 2-3
d. 3-4
1-2
In the preparation for the rotation chest pass, the clients should be:
Select one:
a. Placing the feet hip width apart
b. Bending the knees at a 90 degree angle to initiate the move
c. Extend the arms completely out before moving
d. Standing upright with the body turned at a 90 degree angle to the wall or partner
Standing upright with the body turned at a 90 degree angle to the wall or partner
In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional?
Select one:
a. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis
b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension
c. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy
d. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension
When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension
In which phase of the OPT Model would Ice Skaters be an appropriate exercise?
Select one:
a. Stabilization Endurance
b. Strength Endurance
c. Maximal Strength
d. Power
Power
Most fitness workouts consisting of 8- 12 repetitions use which of the following energy systems?
Select one:
a. ATP-PC
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidative
d. Phosphagen
Glycolysis
Once a trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step?
Select one:
a. Figuring out the closing percentage
b. Figuring out how many potential clients they need
c. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day
d. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Horizontal loading
b. Vertical loading
c. Single-set
d. Split-routine
Horizontal loading
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Exciting the muscle spindle
b. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
c. Stimulating the golgi tendon organ
d. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons
Stimulating the golgi tendon organ
The ability to sustain the bodys center of gravity over its base of support is known as:
Select one:
a. Posture
b. Balance
c. Functional Efficiency
d. Neuromuscular Efficiency
Balance
The active supine biceps femoris stretch is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance
Reciprocal inhibition
The adaptation of endurance is achieved by which of the following?
Select one:
a. 8-10 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
b. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
c. 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
d. 12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
The appropriate rest interval when training in the maximal strength training phase is which of the following?
Select one:
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 3 minutes
d. 6 minutes
3 minutes
The chance of obesity-related health problems increase when a persons BMI exceeds:
Select one:
a. 22
b. 25
c. 27
d. 30
25
The gastrocnemius is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following?
Select one:
a. Dorisflexion
b. Plantarflexion
c. Dorsiflextion and inversion
d. Plantarflexion and inversion
Plantarflexion
What does the A represent in the acronym READ?
Select one:
a. Analyze
b. Ask
c. Assessment
d. Appraisal
Assessment
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?
Select one:
a. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
b. 2.0 CEU within 1 year
c. 3.0 CEU within 2 years
d. 3.0 CEU within 3 years
2.0 CEU within 2 years
What is the most accurate time of day to conduct a resting heart rate measurement?
Select one:
a. Upon waking in the morning
b. Before going to bed at night
c. Immediately before a workout
d. Immediately after a workout
Upon waking in the morning
What is the most effective way to accomplish weight loss long-term?
Select one:
a. Controlled calorie diet
b. Atkins diet
c. High protein diet
d. South Beach diet
Controlled calorie diet
What part of the heart is responsible for pumping reoxygenated blood out to the rest of the body?
Select one:
a. Left Ventricle
b. Right Ventricle
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Atrium
Left Ventricle
What should a trainer share with their client who thinks that carbohydrate intake and weight gain are related?
Select one:
a. Increased intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
b. Increase the intake of high glycemic foods
c. Decrease the intake of low glycemic food
d. Cut out carbohydrates to prevent weight gain
Increased intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
What type of flexibility best describes the body seeking the path of least resistance during a functional movement?
Select one:
a. Corrective
b. Active
c. Relative
d. Dynamic
Relative
What type of insurance must a trainer maintain?
Select one:
a. Medical
b. Dental
c. Workers compensation
d. Liability
Liability
When assessing a clients blood pressure the diastolic pressure represents which of the following?
Select one:
a. Pressure outside the arterial system after the heart contracts
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
c. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
d. Pressure outside the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
When consuming a low carbohydrate diet, which of the following is responsible for the rapid weight loss?
Select one:
a. Loss of water
b. Loss of body fat
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Increase of energy
Loss of water
When participating in a marathon, what is the preferred form of energy?
Select one:
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Protein and carbohydrates
Fats
When performing a single-leg hip rotation exercise, how many repetitions should be performed each leg?
Select one:
a. 6 to 10
b. 11 to 15
c. 1 to 4
d. 16 to 20
6 to 10
When performing CPR, how should the compressions be administered?
Select one:
a. Gentle and shallow
b. Firm and deep
c. Gentle and deep
d. Firm and shallow
Firm and deep
When performing the strengthening exercise, single-leg balance reach for the feet turning out compensation, what is the proper repetition range to use?
Select one:
a. 1 to 8
b. 6 to 10
c. 11 to 18
d. 12 to 24
6 to 10
When starting with a brand new client who has never worked out, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Single-set
b. Circuit training
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Split set
Single-set
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Box Jump
b. Tuck Jump
c. One-Ins
d. Butt Kicks
One-Ins
When training a client in the stabilization level of training what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Move to a bench
b. Increase the weight
c. Single arm
d. Alternating arm
Alternating arm
When training a client with Arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
5
When training a youth client which of the following factors will determine when you can progress to the next phase of training?
Select one:
a. Amount of weight that can be used
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Postural Control
d. Agility and quickness
Postural Control
When using the proprioceptive continuum, which of the following is the correct progression?
Select one:
a. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad
b. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam
c. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, balance disc, half foam roll
d. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
When working with a client with hypertension which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?
Select one:
a. Ball Cobra
b. Standing cobra
c. Floor bridge
d. Isometric Squat
Standing cobra
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Shark skill test
c. Bench press
d. Single-leg squat
Single-leg squat
When working with a senior client who is just starting out in Phase 1, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Seated Chest Press
b. Ball dumbbell chest press
c. Barbell chest press
d. TRX chest press
Seated Chest Press
When working with a senior client, as a trainer you should expect which of the following?
Select one:
a. Maximal exercise heart rate will decrease
b. Maximal oxygen uptake will increase
c. Body fat will increase
d. Exercise will increase the chance of heart disease
Maximal oxygen uptake will increase
Where in the digestion process are protein strands broken down?
Select one:
a. Mouth
b. Esophagus
c. Small Intestine
d. Stomach
Stomach
Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and muscular control?
Select one:
a. Single- leg squat
b. Davies test
c. Single leg star test
d. Shark Skill test
Shark Skill test
Which of the following best describes when a person in ready to move to stage two cardiorespiratory training from stage one?
Select one:
a. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes
b. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes
c. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 45 minutes
d. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 60 minutes
Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes
Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?
Select one:
a. Body Mass Index
b. Circumference measurements
c. Skinfold Measurements
d. Waist to hip ratio
Circumference measurements
Which of the following core exercises is most appropriate for an obese client?
Select one:
a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab
b. Marching
c. Ball Crunch
d. Floor Prone Cobra
Incline Prone Iso- Ab
Which of the following describes the acronym SMART?
Select one:
a. Specific, meaningful, attainable, realistic, timely
b. Specific, measurable, accountable, realistic, timely
c. Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, timely
d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric- power exercise?
Select one:
a. Repeat box jumps
b. Lunge jumps
c. Box run steps
d. Jump rope
Box run steps
Which of the following exercises take place in the sagittal plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Front Lunge
b. Side Lunge
c. Side Shuffle
d. Swinging a bat
Front Lunge
Which of the following exercises take place in the frontal plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Front Lunge
b. Side Lunge
c. Vertical Jumping
d. Throwing
Side Lunge
Which of the following exercises would be categorized as a core power exercise?
Select one:
a. Ball Crunch
b. Back Extension
c. Soccer throw
d. Marching
Soccer throw
Which of the following fatty acids has had hydrogen added to it in order to increase shelf-life?
Select one:
a. Trans-fatty acids
b. Saturated fatty acids
c. Monounsaturated fatty acids
d. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
Trans-fatty acids
Which of the following is an effect of dehydration?
Select one:
a. Increased Blood Volume
b. Increase Sweat Rate
c. Increase Heart Rate
d. Increased Blood Flow to the Skin
Increase Heart Rate
Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?
Select one:
a. 86-90%
b. 91-94%
c. 75-79%
d. 80-85%
86-90%
Which of the following is a common force couple?
Select one:
a. Trapezius and rotator cuff during lateral shoulder raise
b. Gluteus Maximus and psoas during a squat
c. Deltoid and lattissimus dorsi during a shoulder press
d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw
Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw
Which of the following is a core strength-level exercise?
Select one:
a. Soccer throw
b. Floor prone cobra
c. Cable lift
d. Ball Cobra
Cable lift
Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?
Select one:
a. Control center for movement production
b. Structural framework for the body
c. Coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
d. Command to move the skeletal system
Command to move the skeletal system
Which of the following is a goal of strength level training?
Select one:
a. Increase rate of force production
b. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
c. Increase lean body mass
d. Increase flexiblity
Increase lean body mass
Which of the following is a kinetic chain check point for the overhead squat assessment when assessing from the lateral view?
Select one:
a. Feet
b. Knees
c. Shoulder complex
d. Head
Shoulder complex
Which of the following is a normal stroke volume for an adult?
Select one:
a. 70 mL/beat
b. 85 mL/beat
c. 90 mL/beat
d. 60 mL/beat
70 mL/beat
Which of the following is a possible injury of lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Plantar fasciitis
b. Hamstring complex strain
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Posterior knee pain
Hamstring complex strain
Which of the following is a proper superset for Strength Endurance Training?
Select one:
a. Push-up followed by bench press
b. Push-up followed by soccer throw
c. Bench press followed by push-up
d. Soccer throw followed by push-up
Feedback
Bench press followed by push-up
Which of the following is a sign of pronation distortion syndrome?
Select one:
a. Knee adduction
b. Knee abduction
c. Foot internal rotation
d. Foot supination
Knee adduction
Which of the following is a Stabilization Endurance exercise?
Select one:
a. Lunge to two-arm dumbbell press
b. Ball dumbbell chest press
c. Two-arm medicine ball chest press
d. Seated cable row
Ball dumbbell chest press
Which of the following is a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
Select one:
a. Restrictive lung disease
b. Coronary heart disease
c. Chronic obstructive lung disease
d. Insulin resistance
Insulin resistance
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
Select one:
a. Active listening
b. Asking questions
c. Reflecting
d. Summarizing
Reflecting
Which of the following is a total body strength-level exercise?
Select one:
a. Squat thrusters
b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
c. Single-leg Romanian dead lift, curl to overhead press
d. Single-leg squat to row
Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
Which of the following is about having an attitude and genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
Select one:
a. Active listening
b. Asking questions
c. Reflecting
d. Summarizing
Active listening
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
Select one:
a. How long has this been a goal?
b. What are you trying to achieve?
c. What is your height?
d. Is it important for you to reach your goal?
What are you trying to achieve?
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
Select one:
a. Heart Rate
b. Blood Pressure
c. Lifestyle
d. Posture
Lifestyle
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the maximal strength phase of training?
Select one:
a. 12-20
b. 8-12
c. 5-10
d. 1-5
1-5
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the hypertrophy phase of training?
Select one:
a. 12-20
b. 8-15
c. 6-12
d. 1-5
6-12
Which of the following is the correct order for the stage of change model?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation, Preparation, Contemplation, Action, Maintenance
b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
c. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Action, Continuance, Maintenance
d. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, continuation
Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
Select one:
a. 1-3 mg/kg
b. 3-6 mg/kg
c. 1-3 mg/lb
d. 3-6 mg/lb
3-6 mg/kg
Which of the following is the maximum number of sets a client should complete in a given workout?
Select one:
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
36
Which of the following is the middle layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epymysium
Perimysium
Which of the following is the process of asking your clients why to get to what their motivations are?
Select one:
a. Psychoanalysis
b. READ principle
c. Motivation
d. Root cause analysis
Root cause analysis
Which of the following is the proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for Zone 1?
Select one:
a. (200-clients age)x (60% and 70%)
b. (220-clients age)x (65% and 70%)
c. (200-clients age)x (60% and 75%)
d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
(220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
Which of the following is the proper recommendation for the cardio portion of the warm-up?
Select one:
a. 2-5 minutes
b. 4-7 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
d. 7-12 minutes
5-10 minutes
Which of the following is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute?
Select one:
a. Blood pressure
b. Heart rate
c. Stroke volume
d. Cardiac output
Cardiac output
Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Design a nutrition plan for a client
b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
c. Massage a client
d. Diagnose and illness
Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
Which of the following muscles are considered overactive when the head protrudes forward during a pushing assessment?
Select one:
a. Deep cervical flexors
b. Deep cervical extensors
c. Mid/lower Trapezius
d. Upper Trapezius
Upper Trapezius
Which of the following muscles are lengthened when upper crossed syndrome is present?
Select one:
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Deep cervical flexors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Scalenes
Deep cervical flexors
Which of the following muscles are shortened when lower crossed syndrome is present?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Internal oblique
c. Lattisiumus dorsi
d. Posterior tibialis
Lattisiumus dorsi
Which of the following muscles is shortened in pronation distortion syndrome?
Select one:
a. Soleus
b. Anterior Tibialis
c. Vastus Medialis
d. Gluteus Medius
Soleus
Which of the following muscles is shortened with upper crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Deep cervical flexors
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres Minor
d. Scalenes
Scalenes
Which of the following muscles is used during the expiration phase of breathing?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Internal Intercostals
c. External Intercostals
d. Pectoralis Minor
Internal Intercostals
Which of the following muscles would be part of the local stabilization system?
Select one:
a. Internal Oblique
b. External Oblique
c. Latissimus Dorsi
d. Psoas Major
Internal Oblique
Which of the following nutrients aids in maintaining muscle mass?
Select one:
a. Water
b. Carbohydrates
c. Protein
d. Fat
Carbohydrates
Which of the following protein recommendation is correct for a client with the goal of increasing lean body mass?
Select one:
a. 0.4 to 0.6 g/lb
b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
c. 0.4 to 0.6 g/kg
d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg
0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
Which of the following represents the importance of acute variables?
Select one:
a. Necessary for advanced clients
b. Only needed for training athletes
c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
d. Ensure proper kinetic chain alignment
Feedback
Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?
Select one:
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air
d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground
The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground
Which of the following tempos is most appropriate for the adaptation of stabilization?
Select one:
a. 4/2/1
b. 3/2/1
c. 1/1/1
d. x/x/x
4/2/1
Which of the following would be categorized as a core stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Ball crunch
b. Cable roation
c. Reverse crunch
d. Prone Iso-abs
Prone Iso-abs
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?
Select one:
a. Phase 1 only
b. Phase 1 and 2 only
c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
d. Phase 1, 2, 3, and 5
Phase 1 and 2 only
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of improving sports performance?
Select one:
a. Phase 5 only
b. Phase 1 and 2 only
c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
d. Phase 1, 2, and 5
Phase 1, 2, and 5
Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?
Select one:
a. Specific
b. Measurable
c. Attainable
d. Realistic
Attainable
Who must supervise a client when they are following an 800- 1000 calorie per day diet?
Select one:
a. Personal Trainer
b. Nutritionist
c. Fitness Nutrition Specialist
d. Medical Professional
Medical Professional
You have a client with obstructive lung disease, which of the following training system is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Circuit Training
b. Vertical Loading
c. Horizontal Loading
d. Peripheral Heart Action
Peripheral Heart Action
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?
Select one:
a. Multiple set
b. Pyramid system
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Super set
Peripheral heart action
A squat, curl, to two-arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Stabilization
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Reactive
Strength
The dividing of a training program into smaller, progressive stages is termed?
Select one:
a. Annual plan
b. Mesocycle
c. Macrocycle
d. Periodization
Periodization
What is a goal of Phase Five: Power Training?
Select one:
a. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
b. Increase lean body mass
c. Improve muscular endurance
d. Enhance control of posture
Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
What is the best definition of neuromuscular efficiency?
Select one:
a. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
b. The cumulative neural input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement.
c. Ability of the body's stabilizing muscles to provide support for joints as well as maintain posture and balance during movement.
d. A muscle's ability to contract for an extended period of time.
Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Select one:
a. Machine chest press
b. Leg press exercise
c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
d. Seated military press
Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?
Select one:
a. Step-up to curl to press
b. One-arm ball squat, curl to press
c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
d. Squat, curl to press exercise
Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase?
Select one:
a. Volume
b. Load
c. Speed
d. Proprioception
Proprioception
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise?
Select one:
a. Seated cable row exercise
b. Single-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise
c. Two-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise
d. Single-leg, alternating-arm cable row exercise
Seated cable row exercise
Which term refers to the energy demand placed on the body?
Select one:
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Cognitive specificity
Metabolic specificity
During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?
Select one:
a. Mid and lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Levator scapulae
d. Latissimus dorsi
Mid and lower trapezius
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
c. TFL
d. Medial hamstrings
TFL
What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support?
Select one:
a. Posture
b. Structural efficiency
c. Postural equilibrium
d. Neuromuscular efficiency
Structural efficiency
Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client?
Select one:
a. Circumference measurements
b. Body mass index
c. Skin fold measurements
d. Waist to hip ratio
Circumference measurements
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating?
Select one:
a. Dorsiflexion
b. Plantar flexion
c. Foot inversion
d. Foot eversion
Plantar flexion
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus
What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate?
Select one:
a. Before their workout
b. Just after their workout
c. Upon waking in the morning
d. Just before bed at night
Upon waking in the morning
When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on?
Select one:
a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
b. Feet, ankles, and knees
c. Shoulders and cervical complex
d. Low back and arms
Feet, ankles, and knees
Which of the following is considered objective information?
Select one:
a. Body composition testing
b. Asking client if they wear shoe's with elevated heels
c. Inquiring about client's current injuries
d. Asking client about past surgeries
Feedback
Body composition testing
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Shark skill test
d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat
Feedback
Shark skill test
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Override mechanism
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Neural inhibition
Autogenic inhibition
What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout?
Select one:
a. Walking at a medium pace
b. Taking a group exercise class
c. Sprinting
d. Jogging at a slow pace
Taking a group exercise class
What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three?
Select one:
a. 65%-75%
b. 76%-79%
c. 91%-94%
d. 86%-90%
86%-90%
What is the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?
Select one:
a. Extensibility
b. Dynamic range of motion
c. Flexibility
d. Neuromuscular efficiency
Flexibility
What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?
Select one:
a. Postural distortion patterns
b. Relative flexibility
c. Muscle imbalance
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
Relative flexibility
What muscle is part of the local stabilization system?
Select one:
a. External oblique
b. Internal oblique
c. Psoas major
d. Rectus abdominis
Internal oblique
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; this is an example of?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular inefficiency
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Arthokinetic dysfunction
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
Select one:
a. Core-Stabilization
b. Core Strength
c. Core-Power
d. Core-Reactive
Core-Power
Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise?
Select one:
a. Ball crunch
b. Back extensions
c. Two-leg floor bridge
d. Rotation chest pass
Two-leg floor bridge
With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rhomboids
c. Lower trapezius
d. Upper trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
Acute variables determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Proper kinetic chain alignment
b. The amount of stress placed on the body
c. Progression of the exercise
d. What type of workout is being done
The amount of stress placed on the body
During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
Select one:
a. 0-60 seconds
b. 1-2 minutes
c. 3-5 minutes
d. 45-90 seconds
0-60 seconds
During the stabilization phase, which tempo would be most appropriate for resistance training exercises?
Select one:
a. 1/1/1
b. 4/2/1
c. 3/2/1
d. 2/0/2
4/2/1
In Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be completed?
Select one:
a. 0-4
b. 1-3
c. 2-4
d. 3-5
2-4
In Phase 3: Hypertrophy training, what is the appropriate tempo to use for a core exercise?
Select one:
a. Slow
b. Medium
c. Explosive
d. Fast
Medium
In the power phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
b. Barbell squat followed by step-up
c. Step-up followed by tuck jump
d. Step-up followed by barbell squat
Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
In the strength endurance phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Bench press followed by a push-up
b. Push-up followed by bench press
c. Bench press followed by a soccer throw
d. Push-up followed by a seated cable row
Bench press followed by a push-up
The adaptation of muscular endurance is achieved by which of the following?
Select one:
a. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM
b. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM
c. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM
d. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM
1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
Select one:
a. 60 reps
b. 10 reps
c. 30 reps
d. 20 reps
30 reps
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per exercise should be performed?
Select one:
a. 4-8
b. 1-5
c. 6-10
d. 8-12
1-5
Arterioles branch out into vessels know as:
Select one:
a. Venules
b. Capillaries
c. Blood vessels
d. Veins
Capillaries
What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
Select one:
a. Cardiac output
b. Heart rate
c. Stroke volume
d. Blood pressure
Cardiac output
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rates?
Select one:
a. Before bed
b. Before a workout
c. After a workout
d. Upon waking in the morning
Upon waking in the morning
Where does reoxygenated blood leave the heart and go to the entire body?
Select one:
a. Right ventricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium
Left ventricle
Which of the following are the two most important functions of the skeletal system?
Select one:
a. Transference of energy and support
b. Transference of energy and movement assistance
c. Leverage and movement assistance
d. Leverage and support
Leverage and support
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
Select one:
a. ATP-CP
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidative
d. Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship?
Select one:
a. Posterior deltoid and pectoralis major during a bench press
b. Gluteus maximus and psoas during a lunge
c. Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw
d. Deltoid and latissimus dorsi during a shoulder press
Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw
Which of the following is responsible for movement of bones around a joint?
Select one:
a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Leverage
d. Torque
Torque
Which of the following is the outermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasiculius
b. Endomysium
c. Epimysium
d. Perimysium
Epimysium
Which of the following is the primary function of the muscular system?
Select one:
a. Control center for movement
b. Structural framework
c. Is commanded to move the skeletal system
d. Receive sensory input
Is commanded to move the skeletal system
Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis minor
b. Lower trapezius
c. Serratus anterior
d. Rhomboids
Pectoralis minor
All buying decisions are based on which of the following:
Select one:
a. Price
b. Knowledge
c. Pressure
d. Emotion
Emotion
During which of the following exercises is fat the preferred form of energy?
Select one:
a. Marathon
b. Power clean
c. 200-yard dash
d. High jump
Marathon
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Coronary heart disease
b. Peripheral edema condition
c. Restrictive lung disease
d. Metabolic syndrome
Metabolic syndrome
To be absorbed effectively, how should calcium supplements be taken?
Select one:
a. With other minerals
b. Within a multivitamin
c. With meals, spread throughout the day
d. With one meal a day
With meals, spread throughout the day
What is the best method of training for a client with obstructive lung disease?
Select one:
a. Vertical loading
b. Horizontal loading
c. Split-routine
d. Peripheral heart action
Peripheral heart action
What should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit carbohydrates to prevent weight gain
b. Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
c. Increase the intake of high glycemic index foods
d. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates
Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
When is it alright for a client to follow a diet that allows consumption of only 800 - 1000 calories per day?
Select one:
a. Under the supervision of a certified personal trainer
b. Under the supervision of a medical professional
c. Under the supervision of a strength and conditioning professional
d. Under the supervision of a nutritionist
Feedback
Under the supervision of a medical professional
Which of the following defines SMART?
Select one:
a. Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Relevant, Time Bound
b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
c. Specific, Meaningful, Accountable, Realistic, Time Bound
d. Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
Which of the following is a preferred exercise when working with a hypertensive client?
Select one:
a. Prone cobra
b. Floor bridge
c. Standing torso cable iso-rotation
d. Isometric squat
Standing torso cable iso-rotation
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
Select one:
a. Postural control
b. Speed
c. Strength
d. Muscle hypertrophy
Postural control
Which of the following is an example of a non-directive question?
Select one:
a. What would you like to achieve?
b. Have you ever worked with a personal trainer before?
c. Have you consulted your physician?
d. Have you previously been a member of a gym?
What would you like to achieve?
Which of the following is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Precontemplation
c. Action
d. Preparation
Action
You have a client with the goal of increasing his lean body mass; which of the following is the best recommendation for protein intake?
Select one:
a. 0.9 to 1.1 g/lb
b. 0.9 to 1.1 g/kg
c. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg
0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
Transmit nerve impulses from effector sites via receptors to brain and spinal cord
Select one:
a. Interneurons
b. Sinoatrial (SA) node
c. Sensory (afferent) neurons
d. Synovial joints
Sensory (afferent) neurons
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow
Select one:
a. Stride rate
b. Repetition tempo
c. Specific warm up
d. General warm up
Specific warm up
States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Select one:
a. Sagittal plane
b. Hyaline cartilage
c. Diaphysis
d. Davis's law
Davis's Law
junctions of bones, muscles, and connective tissue at which movement occurs
Select one:
a. Time
b. Veins
c. Bones
d. Joints
Joints
a high-energy compound occurring in all cells from which ATP is formed
Select one:
a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Stride rate
c. Transverse plane
d. Adenosine diphosphate
Adenosine diphosphate
Amino acids linked by peptide bonds
Select one:
a. Stage II
b. Protein
c. Stage I
d. Set
Protein
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting - including ankle plantar-flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis
Select one:
a. Backside mechanics
b. Muscle synergies
c. Blood lipids
d. Acute variables
Backside mechanics
A type of cell that is responsible for bone formation
Select one:
a. Diaphysis
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Osteoblasts
Osteoblasts
Cumulative sensory input to the CNS from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position/limb mobement
Select one:
a. Arterioles
b. Proprioception
c. Expiration
d. Motor function
Proprioception
A simple sugar manufactured by the body from carbohydrates, fat, and to a lesser extent, protein. Serves as the body's main source of fuel
Select one:
a. Glucose
b. Balance
c. Periosteum
d. Force
Glucose
Extension of a joint beyond the normal limit or range of motion
Select one:
a. Hyperextension
b. Protein
c. Nutrition
d. Perimysium
Hyperextension
Combination of flexibility and the nervous system's ability to control this range of motion efficiently
Select one:
a. Exercise selection
b. Anatomic position
c. Dynamic range of motion
d. Rotary motion
Dynamic range of motion
The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption
Select one:
a. Exercise selection
b. Joint receptors
c. Anterior (ventral)
d. Oxygen uptake reserve (VO2R)
Oxygen uptake reserve (VO2R)
Fluid that circulates in the heart, arteries ,capillaries and veins, carries nutrients and oxygen, and also rids the body of waste products.
Select one:
a. Rep
b. Blood
c. Neuron
d. Flexion
Blood
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover
Select one:
a. Synovial joints
b. Dynamic balance
c. Sagittal plane
d. Synergistic dominance
Synergistic dominance
Deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers
Select one:
a. Epiphysis
b. Tendons
c. Endomysium
d. Epimysium
Endomysium
An influence applied by one object to another, which results in an acceleration or deceleration of the second object
Select one:
a. Force
b. Veins
c. Core
d. Blood
Force
When a muscle is exerting force equal to the force being placed on it, leading to no visible change in the muscle length
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Eccentric muscle action
c. Exercise selection
d. Isometric muscle action
Isometric muscle action
Bisector dividing the body into left and right halves
Select one:
a. Type
b. Heart rate
c. Sagittal plane
d. Epiphyseal plate
Sagittal plane
Ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment
Select one:
a. Hyperextension
b. Proprioception
c. Motor unit
d. Sensory function
Sensory function
One of three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body; helps the body use some vitamins and keep skin healthy. Also serve as energy stores in the body
Select one:
a. Veins
b. Speed
c. Rep
d. Fat
Fat
Movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position
Select one:
a. Horizontal adduction
b. External rotation
c. Program design
d. Training duration
Horizontal adduction
Smallest blood vessels, and site of exchange of chemicals & water between blood and tissues
Select one:
a. Capillaries
b. Agility
c. Inferior
d. Inspiration
Capillaries
Specialized area of cardiac tissue located in right atrium of the heart, which initiates electrical impulses that determine HR
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Axial skeleton
c. Stride rate
d. Sinoatrial (SA) node
Sinoatrial (SA) node
Energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body
Select one:
a. Transverse plane
b. Adenosine triphosphate
c. Ventricles
d. Deconditioned
Adenosine triphosphate
Refers to the energy demand placed on the body
Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Metabolic specificity
c. Exercise selection
d. Muscular hypertrophy
Metabolic specificity
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body
Select one:
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Scapular depression
c. Annual plan
d. Reciprocal inhibition
Mechanical specificity
central cavity of bone shafts where marrow is stored
Select one:
a. Medullary cavity
b. Monthly plan
c. Abduction
d. Rotary motion
Medullary cavity
Spends entire workout in zone 1
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Stage I
c. Bracing
d. Speed
Stage I
The cumulative sensory input to the CNS from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement
Select one:
a. Inspiration
b. Proprioception
c. Monthly plan
d. Adduction
Proprioception
Muscles that attach to the spine and/or pelvis to the extremities
Select one:
a. Ligament
b. Mediastinum
c. Perimysium
d. Movement system
Movement system
When a muscle shortens at a constant speed over the full range of motion
Select one:
a. Periodization
b. Dynamic stretching
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Isokinetic musle action
Isokinetic muscle action
The rate at which the heart pumps
Select one:
a. Heart rate
b. Atrium
c. Sarcomere
d. Heart
Heart rate
Transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites
Select one:
a. Transverse plane
b. Motor behavior
c. Motor (efferent) neurons
d. Golgi tendon organs
Motor (efferent) neurons
The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, including lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Core
c. Type
d. Glycogen
Core
Division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages
Select one:
a. Inspiration
b. Adduction
c. Periodization
d. Perimysium
Periodization
All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself; nutrients are acquired, transported, used, and disposed of
Select one:
a. Tendons
b. Metabolism
c. Perimysium
d. Arterioles
Metabolism
Information provided by external source to supplement internal environment
Select one:
a. Extension
b. External feedback
c. Internal rotation
d. Stride rate
External feedback
Series of muscles that move the skeleton
Select one:
a. Muscular system
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Nervous system
d. Muscle spindles
Muscular system
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load
Select one:
a. Power
b. Core
c. Strength
d. Intensity
Strength
How the CNS integrates internal and external sensory info with previous experiences to produce a motor response
Select one:
a. Motor behavior
b. Motor control
c. Bracing
d. Contralateral
Motor control