Biology final exam
Terms in this set (250)
What is inheritance and the black box?
Inheritance is the traits passed from one generation to the next (from parent to offspring). Inheritance was a black box because of the unknown. They once thought a child would have blending of traits from its parents OR that the child would have traits of the "stronger" parent.
Who was Mendel?
Mendel used classic biology and the scientific method to work out inheritance.
What did Mendel propose about inheritance?
That traits were determined by a discrete unit or particle.
(Why did Mendel use pea plants? (3 reasons)
1. Many readily apparent traits to study 2. Normally self-fertilizing 3. Ease of making crosses with large flowers
What seven traits did Mendel study?
1. flower color 2. flower position 3. seed color 4. seed shape 5. pod shape 6. pod color 7. height
Define genotype & how is it expressed.
Genetic composition of individual. It is expressed with letters such as TT or tt.
What does each letter in a genotype represent and what does the pair represent?
Each letter represents 1 gene on 1 chromosome & each pair is the 2 copies of a gene on both homologous chromosomes.
Define phenotype & how is it expressed
Characteristics that are a result of gene expression. As an example, TT means tall and tt is dwarf.
Dominant vs. recessive
Dominant traits are the displayed traits and recessive traits are masked by the dominant trait
Every individual has ____ genes for a trait.
Each gene has variant forms of _____.
alleles (i.e. tall or short/ yellow or green)
What is a single factor cross?
cross in which the experimenter follows the variants of only one character
True breeding parents are termed the __________.
What is true breeding?
when a variety continues to exhibit the same trait after several generations
The p generations offspring are the ______.
When the true breeding parents differ in a single character, their F1 offspring is called ______.
The offspring of the F1 generation is called the ______.
What is self fertilization?
when a female gamete is fertilized by a male gamete from the same plant
What is cross fertilization?
Placing pollen from one plant onto the stigma of a flower of a different plant
Mendel observed a _____ ratio between the dominant and recessive trait.
Mendel's _____ method to cross the individual of interest to homozygous recessive individual & observes the phenotypes of the offspring.
______ are offspring that are hybrids with respect to both traits.
The F2 generation showed 4 different phenotypes in a _____ ratio.
What are Mendel's two laws?
Law of independent assortment and Law of segregation
What is the Law of independent assortment?
alleles of different genes assort independently of each other during gamete formation
What is the Law of segregation?
allele pairs separate or segregate during gamete formation & randomly unite at fertilization
What are the 5 points of chromosomal inheritance?
1. Chromosomes contain genetic material 2. Chromosomes are replicated & passed from parent to offspring 3. Each cell in a diploid organism contains 2 sets of chromosomes, which are found in homologous pairs 4. During meiosis, 1 of each chromosome pair segregates randomly into the gamete nucleus 5. Gametes are haploid cells that combine to form diploid cells during fertilization
The physical location of a gene on a chromosome is called the _____.
Small or large sample have the least error?
What is a pedigree analysis?
an inherited trait is analyzed over the course of a few generations in one family; this helps us determine whether the mutant allele is dominant or recessive & predict the likelihood of an individual being affected
Why does the cystic fibrosis pedigree indicate it is a recessive pattern?
unaffected individuals can produce affected offspring
Why does the Huntington's disease pedigree indicate it is a dominant disease?
most people with HD have at least 1 affected parent (however, they can produce unaffected offspring)
What is x-linked inheritance?
genes found on the X-chromosomes but not the y
_______ x-linked alleles cause diseases in more males than females.
What is Mendelian inheritance?
the inheritance patterns of genes that segregate & assort independently
What is simple Mendelian inheritance?
one trait is completely dominant over the other
What is incomplete dominance & what is the example used in the book?
when genes do not show a dominant/recessive relationship; a heterozygote that carries 2 different alleles exhibits a phenotype that is intermediate between the corresponding homozygous individuals. The example used is when the red and white flowers produced pink offspring.
What is norm of reaction?
effects of environmental variation on a phenotype
What is epistasis?
when the alleles of one gene mask the expression of the alleles of another gene
What are the two types of traits?
discrete-characters with clearly defined phototypic variants
quantitative- traits that show continuous variation over a range of phenotypes i.e. height
What is gene linkage?
when 2 genes are close together on the same chromosomes & they are transmitted as a unit
How does gene linkage occur?
due to crossing over during meiosis, homologous chromosomes can exchange pieces of chromosomes & create new combinations of alleles
What is epigenic inheritance?
modification of a gene or chromosome occurs during egg formation, sperm formation, or early stages of embryo growth
What is x-inactivation?
one of the 2 copies of the x chromosome in somatic cells of females is inactivated, meaning its genes are not expressed (inactivated chromosome is compacted into a Barr body)
What is genomic imprinting?
an inheritance pattern in which a segment of DNA is imprinted or marked so that gene expression occurs only from the genetic material inherited from one parent
The proteome, rather than the genome, is most directly responsible for the structure, function, and appearance of organisms. True of false?
Proteins are largely responsible for the traits of living organisms, while ______ provides the blueprint for the organization, development and function of living things.
A bacterial infection such as pneumonia is most likely caused by organisms derived from the kingdom fungi. True or false?
When considering nomenclature for scientific names, what is the difference between the two primates. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus?
They are different animals of the same species
Which is the simplest of all levels of organization?
A flower on a plant represents which level of organization?
When cells in an organism associate with each other, they form ______.
scientist isolates a single celled organism from the bottom of a sulfur hot spring. When examined under the microscope, it is clear that the cell is very small and contains no nucleus. Based on this evidence alone, in what domain of life is this organism?
Either bacteria or archaea
"All living organisms are composed of cells" is an example of what type of scientific statement?
A wristwatch suddenly stops working. After replacing the battery, the watch starts working again. Which of the following statements correctly describes the situation from the perspective of the scientific method.
This is consistent with the hypothesis that a dead battery caused the wrist watch to stop working
Little scientific evidence is necessary when formulating a theory. True or false?
What is the appropriate order of the stages of investigating whether maple trees drop their leaves in the autumn because of colder days?
1. Maple trees are grown in 2 greenhouses where the only variable is temperature.
2. The hypothesis is rejected.
3. There is no statistical difference in the number of leaves dropped at 10 degrees C as compared to 15 degrees C.
4. The observation is that maple trees drop their leaves in autumn.
5. The hypothesis is that maple trees drop their leaves because of colder temperatures.
4, 5, 1, 3, 2
The phenomenon through which populations of organisms change over several generations is termed _______.
Whether the external temperature is hot or cold, birds maintain an internal body temperature of approximately 40 degrees C. This is an example of ______.
A plant will begin flowering in response to changes in length of daylight, temperature, and light quality. This is an example of which unifying principle of life?
Living organisms interact with their environment
If a scientist were studying the role of different proteins in the regulation of insulin secretion from a pancreatic cell, they would be studying _____.
Both proteomics and cell biology
A researcher tests the hypothesis that large, daily doses of vitamin C help protect against catching the common cold. What would be the best experimental and control group to test this hypothesis?
Experimental group: takes large dose of vitamin C
Control group: takes a daily dose of a sugar pill disguised as vitamin C
Using the periodic table as your took, identify the atomic characteristic that would most quickly and efficiently identify any single element.
number of protons and electrons
You notice that the majority of the elements in NaCl spend their time around the chlorine. You also notice that the electrons in H2 are evenly distributed among the two atoms. Which two types of bonds are represented in these molecules?
Ionic bonds in NaCl and Covalent bonds in H2.
Based on the colligative properties of water, what would happen if one were to add a solute to water?
Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase
The single atom you would choose to remove from living organisms in order to remove the highest percentage of atoms would be _______.
Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of _____ bonds with other elements.
The solution of the pH of 6 has 100 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 8.
Water has fewer hydrogen atoms than lemon juice and a pH around 7. Predict what will happen to the pH level of water when lemon juice is added.
The pH will become lower.
The first, innermost energy shell of an atom can have a max of ___ electrons.
For water to vaporize what has to happen?
Both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken.
Isotopes are different forms of the same element that have _____.
different number of neutrons
Helium is an inert gas that rarely reacts with other elements because it has the maximum number of valence electrons in its outer shell. True or false?
Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in its outermost electron shell. A carbon atom can form covalent bonds with how many hydrogen atoms?
In water, MgCl2 dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl-. Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl2.
The most significant role played by pH buffers it to ______.
Limit major shifts in the amount of H+ and OH- in solution
You have been asked to synthesize a new isotope for cadmium. Which part of the original atom would you need to manipulate in order to create an isotope?
If orange juice has a pH of 4, then it can be described as an ______ solution.
The smallest functional units of matter that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means are ________.
The nucleus of an atom is composed of _____ and ______.
Protons and neutrons
The addition of a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution would result in
Both the release of H+ and the decrease in pH
Starch is used to store energy and cellulose is a structural polysaccharide. The key differences that explain these function are?
Alpha 1-4 and alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkage in starch creates branching. Beta 1-4 in cellulose creates unbranched structures.
The functional group that forms covalent bonds between R groups within a polypeptide and that stabilizes tertiary structure is _____.
What structure best represents a polymer?
The formation of complex molecules that form life is made possible by what understanding regarding carbon?
Carbon forms up to 4 covalent bonds
What makes phospholipids good at forming cellular membranes?
The polar and non polar regions create an amphipathic bilayer of phospholipids
The portion of an amino acid that makes the amino acid unique among the 20 different amino acids is _______.
The side chain or R group
Fat and fatty acids are _______.
Insoluble on water
The substance most rich in unsaturated fat is _____.
Two molecules with identical molecular formulas but different structures are called _______.
When placed in an aqueous solution, amphipathic molecules will orient themselves with ______________.
Hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains in the middle and hydrophilic head groups facing the water
A dehydration reaction _______.
Is used to form polymers
If a specimen contains 30% adenine in its DNA, how much cytosine will it contain?
Glycogen is to animal cells as ______ is to plant cells.
The macromolecule composed of amino acids is a ______.
The primary structure of a protein ultimately determines its three dimensional structure. True or false?
The four nucleotide bases found in DNA are identical to those in RNA. True or false?
What structural component makes fat an efficient macromolecule able to store high amounts of energy?
Fats have long chains of C-H bonds which store high amounts of energy
The structural difference between saturated and unsaturated fats causes what type of change at room temperature?
Linear structure of a fatty acid causes solid formation at room temperature
Sickle cell anemia is a condition in which red blood cells exhibit a characteristic "sickle" shape. This arises from a mutation or change in one of the amino acids found in hemoglobin. A single amino acid mutation would directly affect a proteins _____ structure.
Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle. True or false?
Cell theory or cell doctrine is based on some basic principles. Choose the description that best addresses these principles.
All living organisms are composed of one or more cells. Cells are the smallest units of life and the new cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.
After a night of drinking too much alcohol, a person will rely on which organelle to help detoxify and recover?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the _____ is to prokaryotes
The route that most accurately describes secretory protein movement through the endomembrane system would be?
Rough ER ->vesicles->golgi apparatus->vesicles->plasma
Lysosomes digest unneeded intercellular debris through the process of ______.
The organelle that best enables an athletes tissues to be metabolically active are ______.
Many different structures make up a cell and have unique functions. Each cell structure is associate with a critical function in the cell. These pairings include:
A. Microfilaments; cytoskeleton
B. Nucleus; DNA; replication
C. Cell membrane; barrier between the cell and its external environment
Plasma membranes are a feature of:
To observe the 3-dimensional structure of a cell the best type of microscopy would be:
Scanning electron microscopy
The general structure and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual are a result of:
The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins that differ between muscle and nerve cells
Imagine that a cell had no motor proteins. Which processes would not be able to occur?
A. Cell divisions
C. Swimming of a helicopter a flagellated bacterium
Cyanide bonds and impairs one of the molecules involved in the synthesis of ATP. The target organelle for cyanide must be:
Which of the following organelles are most likely to be able to divide and reproduce much like a cell does?
Both mitochondria and chloroplasts
The structure that easily distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell is ______.
The organelle responsible for the biosynthesis of proteins that are destined for secretion by the cell is the _____.
You are injecting a dye into a eukaryotic cell to detect a specific functional enzyme in the cytosol. Where would you need to inject the dye?
The dye would go between the plasma membrane and membrane of the organelles
Eukaryotes such as animal and plants cells differ from prokaryotes in that prokaryotes _____.
Lack internal compartmentalization
You have designed a drug able to transform skin cells into cells that secrete insulin. What accumulative aspect of the cell will the drug affect?
The process that most involves the selective uptake of a specific cargo molecule into the cell through receptor binding and aggregation is _______.
Receptor mediated endocytosis
For each substance determine if it would cross a membrane by simple or facilitated diffusion:
Gasses, ethanol, water
Sugars, salts, proteins
1. Simple diffusion-gasses ethanol, water
2. Facilitated diffusion- sugars, salts, proteins
Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. The inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M idea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 Mol urea. The solution inside with respect to outside the cell is ______.
Na+ ion concentration are higher outside the cell than inside the cell. What type of transport system is required to move Na+ ions in and out of the cell?
Na+ moves into the cell by facilitated diffusion and out of the cell by active transport.
Glycosylated proteins and lipids within the plasma membrane are important for:
Cell recognition and protection
What would be an expected feature of a plasma membrane that had no integral membrane proteins?
The membrane would be unable to transport sodium ions
How does a macrophage consume a bacteria?
Cellular membranes are mosaic and _____.
Sodium concentrations are higher outside and glucose concentrations are high inside the cell. Using the same membrane protein for Na+ and glucose transport, what is it called when a Na+ electrochemical gradient is used to drive glucose transport into the cell against its concentration gradient?
Secondary active transport
Plasma membrane phospholipids are labeled with a fluorescent tag and then the phospholipids in one area are bleached with a laser beam to eliminate the fluorescent signal. What would one observe after the cell is incubated for a few minutes?
The bleached molecules would diffuse laterally through the membrane and intermix with the unbleached molecules
A scientist produces an artificial membrane from phospholipids and notices that oxygen, but not glucose, readily moves through the membrane. What might account for the inability of glucose to move through the artificial membrane?
The artificial membrane lacked a protein needed for glucose transport
What feature of the plasma membrane is primarily responsible for the selective uptake and export of ions and molecules from the cell?
The hydrophobic interior of the phospholipid bilayer
Which molecule passes through a lipid bilayer most readily?
Which molecule would you predict moves through a lipid bilayer most rapidly without the help of a transport protein?
What is the major lipid found in membranes?
Which membrane component is most important for allowing large, charged molecules to pass through the membrane?
The movement of sucrose and H+ into the cell by the same membrane protein reflects the actions of what type of transporter?
Which of the following is true of the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure?
Proteins can easily move laterally through membranes
In order to study a cell at lower temperatures, a researcher must artificially increase its membrane fluidity. What would be a reasonable strategy for increasing plasma membrane fluidity at low temperature?
Decrease the length of the phospholipid fatty acyl tail
A logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics could be stated, ______.
Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.
You measure the amount of enzyme activity in the presence of compound X and note that as you add more substrate the amount of enzyme activity increases. This indicates that the compound X is an ____.
Patients with McArdle's disease lack an enzyme in their livers that catabolizes glycogen. These individuals tire easily during exercise. Which of the following would best explain this symptom?
Glycogen must be broken down to glucose to be used in metabolism.
The process of breaking glycogen down to glucose is an example of:
The primary complexes for protein synthesis and degradation in eukaryotes are ____ and _____ respectively.
Ribosomes and proteasomes
In the reaction A- + B ----> A + B-,_______
A is oxidized and B is reduced
Your body needs amino acids to build new proteins encoded by your genes. Many of these amino acids come from your diet through the _____ of proteins you eat.
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by an accumulation of proteins such as beta-amyloid protein in the cells. Beta-amyloid mRNA levels do not increase in patients with Alzheimer's disease. Explain how beta-amyloid protein levels increase in these patients cells.
The beta amyloid proteins are not broken down and recycled
How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction?
It lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
After ATP donates a phosphate group in a couple reaction, it becomes ADP. The ADP can be converted back to ATP in a ______ reaction.
Your liver produces 90% of the cholesterol found in your body. When cholesterol levels get too high, the first enzyme in the pathway of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited. This is an example of:
The amount of available energy that can be used to do work is called:
What would you predict about a reaction that has a 🔼G < 0?
The reaction would make energy and is spontaneous
A chemical reaction that has a positive 🔼G is correctly described as:
If an enzyme catalyze the reaction A+B ---->C, then ______.
The enzyme undergoes a conformational change when bound to A and B.
Is ALL exergonic reactions, _______.
The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy
A certain biochemical reaction must be coupled to the hydrolysis of at least 2 ATP molecules (🔼G= -14.6 kCal) in order to occur. What is a possible 🔼G for this biochemical reaction?
🔼G= +8 kCal
All of the following are a form of potential energy that can be used by a cell EXCEPT:
A bowl of sugar water is very stable. However, cells can rapidly break down sugar into carbon dioxide and water. What is the best explanation for this observation?
Enzymes in the cell catalyze the breakdown of glucose
What is produced during the citric acid cycle?
ATP, NADH, and FADH2.
Some bacteria can use sulfur instead of oxygen as a final electron acceptor. What would they produce during anaerobic respiration?
Cellular respiration produces the most energy in the form of ATP from which of the following?
In cellular respiration, carbon dioxide is formed from the oxidation of:
The reaction of ethanol fermentation is: pyruvate->NADH->ethanol+CO2+NAD+. Why would a yeast need to perform this reaction in the absence of oxygen?
To produce NAD+ allowing glycolysis to continue
Respiration is measured in a human. How do the concentrations of O2 and CO2 inhaled air compare with exhaled air?
Inhaled air has more O2 and less CO2 than exhaled air.
What occurs only in anaerobic metabolism of glucose?
What process will occur in the presence or absence of oxygen?
Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located?
Mitochondrial inner membrane
What order to these molecules occur in glycolysis?
A. Glucose B. 2 molecules of pyruvate C. 2 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate
A, C, B
The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by ______.
Substrate level phosphorylation
What are the final by products of glucose oxidation during aerobic cell respiration?
ATP, heat, carbon dioxide
In a PET scan a patient is injected with a radioactively labeled glucose. Why would cancer cells take up more of the radioactive glucose than surrounding non-cancerous tissues?
Because they produce more enzyme found in glycolysis
In the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group is removed form acetyl CoA and attached to oxaloacetate to form:
The equation C6H12O6 +6O2--> 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP+ Heat), describes what process?
During the cleavage stage of glycolysis, fructose-1, 6 biphosphate is broken dow into:
Two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
In the reaction: pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ ---> acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH...pyruvate is ____ and NAD+ is _____
How is a gradient of H+ ions formed across the inner mitochondrial membrane?
The electron transport chain uses energy from transfer of an electron donated by NADH to pump H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient
The organisms that most specifically utilize light energy to make organic molecules from inorganic molecules are:
The process that forms the electrochemical gradient during photosynthesis is the:
Pumping of H+ into the thylakoid lumen
A green plant is first grown in blue light and then in green light. The likely outcome for photosynthesis in both phases is:
Increased plant growth in blue light and no plant growth in green light
The enzyme that directly converts NADP+ to NADPH is:
When NADP+ ______ electrons in the light reactions, it is ____, forming NADPH
Photons from light can boost an electron to a higher energy state. True or false?
In which organelle of the plant does photosynthesis takes place?
A new flower species has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be blue green. What wavelengths of visible light does this pigment reflect?
Green and blue
A plant performing photosynthesis will produce ____ and consume _____.
Oxygen; carbon dioxide
In the reaction, 6CO2 + 6H2O---> C6H12O6 + 6O2, carbon dioxide is being _____
When Calvin infected 14C labeled CO2 into cultures of green algae, what result was obtained because the molecule accepting the CO2 was unstable?
Radioactivity first appeared in 3 phosphoglycerate
Where does the Calvin cycle occur?
In the reaction, 6CO2 + 6H2O---> C6H12O6 + 6O2, which side should energy be placed on?
The left side, this is an endergonic reaction
NADPH is produced by:
Light reactions alone
How might a plant cope with the fact that the Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH, yet produces roughly the same amount of both energy intermediates in photo systems 1&2?
Photosynthesis can revert from a noncyclic to cyclic electron flow, producing more ATP than NADPH
When the light harvesting complex absorbs light energy, it is eventually passed to P680 which emits an electron. Which of the following statements correctly describes the energy and electrons during this process?
Resonance energy was transferred to P680 causing it to become positively charged after losing an electron.
When NADPH _____ electrons in the Calvin cycle, it is ____, forming NADP+.
The pigment responsible for the red-yellow coloration seen in leaves during the color change in autumn is ______.
What will happen to the pH inside a thylakoid that is exposed to light?
It will decrease
Blue light has _____ energy than res light and is ____ by a green leaf.
When epinephrine binds to its g-protein binded linked receptor _____ is activated producing _______.
Adenylyl Cyclase; cAMP
Hormones are released from one cell and act on other cells in distant organs and thus are an example of ____.
During exposure to elevated glucose, a yeast cell will increase its uptake of glucose. Describe he mechanism by which the yeast sense the extracellular glucose.
By glucose binding to glucose receptors.
The production of second messengers in signal transduction offers at least two advantages, speed, and:
Patients who have type 2 diabetes no longer express genes when exposed to insulin. How might this phenomenon be explained?
Transcription factors normally activated by insulin remain off
What do g-protein couples, enzyme linked, and Ligand gates ion channel receptors all have in common?
They change their confirmation when bound to a hormone
In some cases, just a few hormone molecules binding to the surface of a cell can trigger a very large response because:
The signal is amplified by activation of enzymes that each catalyze multiple reactions
Some anti-cancer drugs block signal transduction pathways activated by growth factors. Which of the following would be a good target for such a drug?
An inhibitor of a protein kinase cascade
Place the stages of cell signaling in the correct order:
A. Receptor activation
B. Signal transduction
C. Intracellular targets
D. Cellular response
What happens next after insulin binds to a G-protein coupled receptor?
The g-protein loses GDP and gains GTP becoming activated
When sodium ions move from one cardiac muscle cell to an adjacent cell, causing them to contract unison, this is an example of:
Direct intercellular signaling
A phosphatase is capable of dephosphorylating molecules. What would this enzyme do in a signal transduction pathway that used a kinase cascade?
Turn off the cascade
When a cell responds to a signal it sent, this is an example of:
A hormone binds to a receptor and activates the cAMP signal transduction pathway ultimately leading to the cell response. If you wanted to develop a drug to block this pathway, the drug would need to inhibit:
Smooth muscle cells in the airways relax while those in the blood vessels contract in response to the hormone epinephrine. What would you expect to be different in these two types of cells exposed to epinephrine?
Types of proteins expressed
When epidermal growth factor binds to its _____, the receptor phosphorylates itself, triggering a signal transduction pathway.
After estrogen binds to receptors, these estrogen receptors gain ____ activity.
When a neurotransmitter released from one neuron binds to a ____ on a second neuron, that neuron depolarizers and fires.
Ligand-gated ion channel
The process through which cells can detect and respond to signals in their extracellular environment is ______.
A g-protein coupled receptor associates with a G protein that contains how many subunits?
____ produces short sequences of RNA, which allows polymerase to synthesize a new strand of DNA.
Eukaryotic cells store their DNA in the form of linear chromosomes. This creates problems for replication of DNA at the ends of the chromosomes because:
DNA polymerase can only synthesize in the 5' to 3' direction
Type S streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium is lethal and will kill its host. If heat inactivated the s strain dies and becomes non lethal. Type R streptococcus pneumoniae is a nonvirulent strain of bacteria. What would occur if one were to inject both the R strain and heat killed S strain into a host organism such as a mouse?
The R strain would. E transformed into the virulent S strain and kill the host
Which of the following statements best describes DNA polymerase?
It is an enzyme that catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
Griffith first proposed the "transformation principal" through his studies of streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium. Which of the following molecules was later found to be responsible for this phenomenon?
Which of the following is NOT a protein involved in DNA replication?
Which of the following relationships about nucleotide composition in DNA is true?
The building blocks of DNA are:
Many genes are found is euchromatin, new sue proteins involved in transcription _____.
Can easily access these regions of DNA
Why were griffith's S strains able to produce a polysaccharide coat while the R strains could not?
The S and R strains carry differences in their genetic material
Which of the following characteristics of genetic material accounts for the need to get a flu vaccine every year, but a polio vaccine only one in a life time?
The amount of thymine close approximates that of guanine within a particular organism. True or false?
During the DNA replication process, which of the following organism would have the fewest origins of replication per cell?
Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of DNA?
The two parental strand of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5' to 3' direction only
What was one of the pieces of evidence most critical to the discovery of DNA structure?
An X-ray diffraction pattern suggesting a double helix shape
How many replication forms are there at an origin of replication?
Which of the following is false when comparing RNA to DNA.
Both are composed to identical nucleotides
Reverse transcription is an enzyme that can synthesize DNA from an RNA template. What DNA sequence is produced form an RNA molecules with the sequence 5'AUUGACGGU'3?
Which of the following statements about telomeres is incorrect?
Telomeres would be longer in cells of older than younger individuals
The transcription process in a eukaryotic gene directly produces ____
Which of the following statements about tRNA is false?
Functional tRNAs have been spliced by splicesomes
There is only one start codon, AUG. This means that
All newly made polypeptides have a methionine at their amino end
What process enables a signal gene to encode two or more polypeptides that are different in their amino acid sequence?
How many nucleotides are in a single codon?
What is NOT a component of the translation machinery?
During the studies of Neurospora, Beadle and Tatum used x-rays to generate mutants. The purpose of these x-rays was:
To cause damage to DNA, resulting in mutations
The processes of transcription and translation are collectively known as:
Intervening sequences that are transcribed, but not translated into proteins are called:
____ is to transcription as ____ is to translation
RNA polymerase; ribosomes
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that:
A particular amino acid can be specified by more than one codon
What is the function of the poly A tail?
The poly a tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes
If a cells splicesomes were mutated so they no longer functioned normally, what consequences would result?
Introns would remain in the mature mRNA
Which of the following statements about RNA polymerase in bacteria is incorrect?
It catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 5' end of a growing RNA strand
The amino acids of a growing polypeptide chain are held together by what kind of bond during the elongation stage of translation?
What kind of RNA is involved in protein synthesis?
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