includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics that a culture has deemed appropriate for us based on whether we are male or female.
Individuals who had an anxious/ambivalent relationship with a parent may find that, as adults, they
worry about being abandoned by others.
Anxious/avoidant relationships with parents may produce children who, when they reach adulthood,
are inclined to run from relationships.
Intimate partnerships differ from friendships, in that intimate partnerships
include the presence of sexual desire.
The element that is LEAST characteristic of enduring love relationships is
absorption in each other.
The transformation of love progresses in the following way:
high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, enduring love
high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, break up of relationship
To develop a healthy intimate relationship, it is important to self-disclose
at a slow but steady rate.
All of the following are important guidelines for ending a relationship, EXCEPT
"Move on as quickly as possible."
It appears that our partner may NOT be interested in what we are saying if he or she responds by
looking around the room.
The three keys of good communication in a relationship include all of the following, EXECPT
"Revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal because of the risk involved" describes
If your partner expresses unhappiness in your relationship, it is best to
validate your partner's feelings and respond with self-disclosure.
Which of the following goals is MOST likely to be associated with male conversation?
All of the following are steps in effective conflict resolution, EXCEPT
not compromising your position.
Of the following, which is the MOST constructive conflict resolution strategy?
identifying alternatives to get what each person wants
Which of the following is NOT a constructive strategy for conflict resolution?
providing selective information
If you and your partner find that you argue again and again over the same issue, you should
accept the differences between yourselves.
A characteristic of one's partner that becomes important in determining the quality and depth of a relationship after the euphoria of first attraction and initial romance winds down is
All of the following are drawbacks to online relationships, EXCEPT
people can communicate in a relaxed way.
In traditional male-female dating relationships, the development of the relationship follows the order of
casual dating, exclusive dating, engagement, marriage.
Getting together in groups, a more casual form of contemporary dating, is probably a product of
equality of the sexes.
By age 30, what percentage of men and women have lived together without being married (cohabitated)?
Which of the following factors is NOT associated with the increasing popularity of cohabitation?
younger average age at marriage
All of the following are liabilities associated with cohabitation, EXCEPT
loss of protection against domestic violence.
Sexual orientation is best described as
a consistent pattern of emotional and sexual attraction based on biological sex.
One difference between heterosexual and homosexual couples is that same-sex partnerships tend to
be more equal.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of many gay and lesbian relationships?
Each partner assumes a traditional gender role.
All of the following contribute to the increasing popularity of singlehood, EXCEPT
low divorce rates.
Which of the following statements is LEAST TRUE regarding singlehood?
Economic hardships are greater, especially for men.
Having strong social relationships may
reduce the risk of illness.
speed recovery from illness.
improve measures of mental health.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding gender roles in marriage?
Married men have assumed an equal share in child care responsibilities.
Based on current rates, what percentage of people marrying today will eventually divorce?
After a divorce occurs, the recovery period usually does not start for about
1 year after the divorce.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that helps couples avoid marital dissatisfaction after the birth of a baby?
a high annual income
Although evidence has suggested that children from single-parent families are less successful in school, this could actually be attributed to _______________ and not the absence of the second parent.
low educational attainment of the single parent
Which of the following statements is FALSE for most strong families?
Family members rarely seek counseling.
Successful intimate relationships are more likely to exist for people who have a positive self concept
Gender role includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics our culture deems appropriate for us based on whether we're male or female.
Our adult styles of loving may be based on the style of attachment we established in infancy with our mothers, fathers, or other parenting figure.
Even if your earliest relationships were less than ideal, you can still create satisfying adult relationships.
Friendships are usually considered both more stable and long lasting than intimate partnerships.
Love encompasses opposites such as affection and anger, excitement and boredom, and bonds and freedom.
Pleasure from a relationship may increase when the intensity and excitement of initial passionate love subsides.
One major part of relationships is to cultivate the intimacy and freedom missing from our youth.
If you are the rejected person in a failed relationship, you should go out and begin a new relationship immediately.
The ability to interpret nonverbal messages correctly is important to the success of relationships.
A recommendation for improving communication in relationships is to frequently offer advice to your partner.
Some of the difficulties people encounter in relationships can be traced to common gender differences in communication.
Even though gender differences exist in communication, when a man and a woman are talking about the same subject, their goals are usually the same.
The best way to handle anger in a relationship is to face it head on, immediately, with little thought.
A positive conflict resolution skill involves identifying alternatives for getting each person what he or she wants.
It is important to finish serious discussions about relationship conflicts on a positive note, even if no agreement is reached.
In those cultures where marriages are arranged by parents, it is likely that the marriage will be very stable, even though the partners may have barely known each other before the marriage ceremony.
Laws related to Social Security benefits motivate some senior citizens to cohabit rather than marry.
Eating well, exercising, and getting adequate sleep are all strategies used by strong families in dealing with life's difficulties.
The _____ contains spongy tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual excitement.
Which of the following best describes male circumcision in the United States?
It is more common in the Midwest than in the West.
Which of the following is an argument in support of male circumcision?
It reduces the risk of contracting an STD later in life.
Which of the following is the route sperm take from the testes to the urethra?
Through the epididymis to the vas deferens to the prostate gland to the seminal vesicles to the ejaculatory ducts
The hormones secreted by the _____ gland(s) regulate the hormones secreted by other glands.
Which of the following chemicals have several water-bottle manufacturers stopped using because of the link to reproductive problems?
Which of the following describes Turner's syndrome?
It occurs when a woman only has one complete X chromosome.
What is the order of menstrual cycle phases?
(1) menses, (2) estrogenic phase, (3) ovulation, (4) progestational phase
What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?
It is maintained by human chronic gonadotropin.
Which of the following is the most severe form of menstrual problems?
premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Which of the following best describes premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?
It interferes with normal daily activities.
Hormone replacement therapy has been found to be associated with
increased incidence of heart attacks.
Which of the following best describes aging male syndrome?
It may involve loss of muscle mass and increase in fat mass.
The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is flowing out is called
Which of the following commonly occurs during the first stage of sexual response?
The testes pull upward within the scrotum.
The plateau phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by
intensification of reactions initiated in the excitement phase.
Rhythmic contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the _____ phase.
Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which of the following ways?
Men enter a refractory period.
A male attempting to engage in intercourse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely to experience
Which of the following is a reason for the increase in Viagra use among young men?
Viagra may help reduce the sexual side effects of other drugs.
Everything you do in your daily life that expresses your maleness or femaleness to others determines your
Which of the following best describes people who feel their biological sex does not match their gender identity?
Which of the following best describes the sexual attitudes of young adults in the United States?
It is important to become sexually experienced before marrying.
The best current explanation for the development of sexual orientation is
a complex, interrelated set of biological, psychological, and social factors.
Which of the following is a finding of current research on sexual orientation?
Sex hormones in the womb help to determine sexual attraction later in life.
Kissing, touching, and any form of oral or genital contact that stimulates people toward intercourse is called
Which of the following is a good way to start a conversation about sex with your partner?
"How would you feel about taking a different approach to sex?"
According to the World Health Organization, how many women worldwide have unintended or unwanted pregnancies every year?
A contraceptive that permanently prevents transport of the sperm or egg to the site of conception is a
The "typical use" contraceptive failure rate is based on studies that measure the percentage of women experiencing unintended pregnancy in the first
year of use.
A women that is consistently careful in following instructions is labeled as having the "perfect use" failure rate. What is that failure rate?
The continuation rate of a contraceptive is determined by the percentage of
people who continue to use a particular contraceptive after a specified period of time.
Oral contraceptives primarily prevent conception by
preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.
In addition to preventing ovulation, the birth control pill prevents conception in all of the following ways, EXCEPT
constricting the cervical opening.
A woman taking the oral contraceptive Seasonale and Seasonique will have how many menstrual periods per year?
All of the following are TRUE about the minipill, EXCEPT
it has more side effects and associated health risks than other hormonal contraceptives.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of oral contraceptives?
The most common type of oral contraceptive contains both estrogen and progesterone.
The main advantage of oral contraceptives is the
high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
The medical advantages of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT decreased risk of
sexually transmitted diseases.
Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives for most women?
They provide no protection against STDs.
Which of the following actions will reduce the risk associated with the use of oral contraceptives?
When a women is using an OC, she can use the mnemonic ACHES to be alert for preliminary danger signals. What does the "A" stand for?
How does risk of death from using oral contraceptives compare with the risk of death from pregnancy?
Risk of death from pregnancy is higher.
The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch can be worn on any of the following places, EXCEPT the
Compliance seems higher for the contraceptive skin patch than for OCs because
the patch requires weekly instead of daily action.
Which of the following hormonal methods is thought to be less effective in women weighing more than 198 pounds?
Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch
At what time during a women's cycle should she insert the vaginal contraceptive ring?
anytime during the first 5 days of her menstrual cycle
After insertion, the NuvaRing (vaginal contraceptive ring) is left in the vagina for ______ before removal.
Which of the following methods should NOT be combined with diaphragm use?
vaginal contraceptive ring
A disadvantage of Depo-Provera is
after use is discontinued, infertility may result for up to 12 months.
Which of the following is a progestin-only contraceptive, providing no estrogen?
The nylon threads that are attached to the IUD and protrude through the cervix serve to
allow for placement check.
All of the following are advantages of the IUD, EXCEPT
its use does not require consulting a health care provider.
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists states that the use of an IUD can reduce the risk of developing which type of cancer?
Which of the following statements about IUDs is FALSE?
Menstrual flow in IUD users is initially lighter.
Which of the following statements regarding IUDs and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is TRUE?
Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics.
Which of the following statements regarding the IUD is FALSE?
The IUD is the best contraceptive choice for young women who have never been pregnant.
Which of the following is TRUE about condoms pre-lubricated with nonoxynol-9?
There is no evidence that they are any more effective than ones without nonoxynol-9.
Which of the following is TRUE about polyurethane condoms?
They are more likely to break than are latex condoms.
The perfect use failure rate for male condoms during the first year of usage is about ____ percent.
The breakage rate for latex male condoms is about ____ time(s) for every 100 instances of use.
1 to 2
To further enhance the general effectiveness of a condom in preventing pregnancy, one should
use a vaginal spermicide after intercourse.
If a condom breaks, an appropriate strategy for reducing the risk of pregnancy is to
use emergency contraception.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom?
The female condom is less expensive than the male condom.
Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate?
incorrect insertion and positioning
An advantage of the FemCap over the diaphragm is that it
it may be left in place for up to 48 hours.
Disadvantages of the sponge include all of the following, EXCEPT
additional spermicide must be applied every 6-8 hours
Vaginal spermicides start drastically losing effectiveness _____ hour(s) after insertion into the vagina.
Because body heat is needed to dissolve and activate contraceptive suppositories,
it is important to wait at least 15 minutes after insertion before engaging in intercourse.
Using the calendar method of birth control requires knowledge about when ovulation occurs. If a woman has a 30-day cycle, what are her "unsafe" days?
Based on knowledge of when ovulation occurs and the longevity of sperm, determine the first fertile (unsafe) day and the last unsafe day for a woman with a 33-day cycle.
days 15, 22
The temperature method of birth control is based on the knowledge that a woman's body temperature goes
down slightly just before ovulation.
Using the temperature method of birth control, calculate the unsafe period for intercourse based on a 29-day cycle.
from day 5 to 3 days after the rise in temperature
Which of the following is a characteristic of the cervical secretions observed at the time of ovulation?
clear, slippery mucus with elastic threads
Withdrawal has a relatively low effectiveness as a contraceptive method because of the presence of the
An emergency hormonal contraceptive reduces the risk of pregnancy by almost ____ percent if taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse.
After a women has taken her first Plan B pill, when should she administer the second pill?
in 12 hours
In order for emergency contraception to be effective, the first dose must be taken within ____ hours of unprotected intercourse.
Regarding the availability of emergency contraception, which of the following statements is accurate?
Emergency contraceptives are available over-the-counter for women and men 17 and older.
Which of the following statements regarding male sterilization is TRUE?
It requires another form of birth control to be used until a sperm-free sample of ejaculate is obtained.
Which of the following is TRUE about tubal sterilization?
Serious complications from the procedure are rare.
The Essure female sterilization system works by
causing scar tissue to form over implants and block the fallopian tubes.
What is the BEST explanation of why men have taken less responsibility for contraception than women have?
The consequences of not using contraception are more serious for women than for men.
__________ is a spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus occurring naturally with no causal intervention.
The anti-abortion drive in the United States did not gain a lot of attention until the _______________ century.
The Supreme Court's division of pregnancy into three parts or trimesters
gave a woman less choice about abortion as she advanced toward full term.
During the second trimester, abortion rights remain up to the point when the fetus is deemed viable, which means that the fetus
has the capability of surviving outside of the uterus.
Since 1973, the average number of weeks at which viability is achieved has been reduced to _____ weeks.
What did Roe v. Wade establish as the key criterion in establishing the point beyond which a woman's right to choose abortion becomes markedly restricted?
viability of the fetus
Recent states laws regulating abortion have focused on
federal funding for abortions.
the banning of certain types of late-term abortions.
regulations concerning parental notification
Current state laws concerning abortion include all of the following, EXCEPT
mandatory prayer sessions for abortion candidates.
A judicial bypass procedure means that
a minor can obtain permission from a judge instead of a parent to have an abortion.
Currently, how many states provide nonfederal public money to assist some poor women seeking medically necessary abortions?
Women below the federal poverty threshold have an abortion rate more than ______ that of higher income women.
The belief that women must have the freedom to decide whether and when to have children is representative of what view?
Which of the following is a pro-choice view?
Women would continue to have abortions even if abortion was made illegal.
The pro-choice view holds that discrimination in health care will result from banning legal abortions because
wealthy women could more easily travel to access safe, legal abortion.
The personal considerations for a woman considering abortion should include
whether the decision is compatible with her moral and religious beliefs.
what her partner's feelings about abortion are.
whether she has a supportive network to assist her through a difficult time.
Which one of the following statements about abortion rates is generally TRUE?
Abortion rates are lower in countries where contraceptives are widely available.
The decision to go through with an unwanted pregnancy and give the baby up for adoption takes all of the following, EXCEPT
The birth parents and the adoptive parents never know each other in a(n) ________ adoption.
The birth parents and the adoptive parents know something about one another and may meet in a(n) ________ adoption.
Based on national research, all of the following are characteristics of the "typical" American woman having an abortion, EXCEPT
Suction curettage is used in about what percentage of all abortions performed in the U.S.?
What percentage of the world's people live in countries where abortion is permitted either without restriction or, more commonly, for a wide range of reasons but with certain restrictions?
A newer abortion option available in some locations to women in the earliest stages of pregnancy is
manual vacuum aspiration.
The most common method of abortion during the 13th to 24th weeks of pregnancy is
dilation and evacuation.
Which of the following statements about dilation and evacuation is TRUE?
It requires cervical dilation overnight before the procedure is completed.
A method of late-term abortion that makes use of prostaglandins to cause uterine contractions is called
All of the following are TRUE about mifepristone, EXCEPT that it
is the same as emergency contraception.
Which of the following is TRUE about abortion with mifepristone?
Its success rate is highest in early pregnancy.
All of the following are likely side effects of the mifepristone two-drug regimen, EXCEPT
Methotrexate, when used with prostaglandin, induces an abortion by
stopping the embryonic cells from dividing.
Which of the following is the MOST accurate characterization of women's psychological reactions to facing abortion?
Psychological reactions depend on a woman's psychological makeup.
Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ______ and ______ that break down and destroy many microorganisms.
White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are ______ cells
A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is called a(n)
Vessels and organs that pick up excess fluids, filter out disease-causing organisms and other waste products, and return cleansed fluid to general circulation belong to the ______ system.
Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in allergic reactions are called
During which type of immune system response does the body's defense system literally eat invading pathogens?
Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the ______ response to invading pathogens.
Chemical messengers released by immune system cells that help regulate and coordinate the immune response are
A disease in which an individual's immune system attacks his or her own body's cells is called a(n)
Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells of the body that have been invaded by foreign organisms are called
killer T cells.
In the immune response, the phase in which killer T cells strike at foreign cells and at cells of the body that have been invaded and infected is called
cell-mediated immune response.
Which of the following statements regarding the antibody-mediated immune response is correct?
Antibodies work against bacteria and viruses outside of body cells.
The phase of the immune response in which suppressor T cells halt it and restore the body's natural balance is called
Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and quickly destroy that infection if it ever appears again are called ______ cells.
Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune response is she experiencing?
A preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the body to produce antibodies is called
Pathogens that have been bred in the laboratory in a weakened form are known as ______ organisms.
For which of the following diseases would one receive a vaccine made from a pathogen that was killed in the laboratory?
A person who is exposed to a disease and is subsequently injected with antibodies produced by others has been given
A serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary immunity is called
When the body responds to a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous pathogen and mounts an immune response, this response is called
an allergic reaction.
The substance that increases the inflammatory response and the secretion of mucus following exposure to an allergen is
Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria caused Johnny's symptoms?
A common bacterium found on the skin in healthy people but capable of causing infection if it enters the body is
Which of the following statements is not true regarding tuberculosis?
It usually affects the digestive tract.
Which of the following statements regarding the common cold is true?
It may be caused by more than 200 different viruses.
All of the following are childhood viral illnesses that have waned in the United States except
Mild fungal diseases that rarely give rise to major problems include all of the following except
An infection that may have been initiated by the consumption of certain species of wildlife is
severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding STDs?
STDs cannot be transmitted unless an infected person has symptoms.
Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the global spread of HIV/AIDS?
Asia and Africa are on par with each other in terms of the number of people living with HIV.
The average time span between the initial HIV infection and the onset of disease symptoms in untreated people is _______________ years.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the asymptomatic phase of HIV infection?
-This period can last from 2 to 20 years.
-During this time the virus is progressively infecting and destroying cells of the immune system.
-During this period, people can transmit the disease to others even if they are symptom free.
-During this time, the virus is progressively infecting and destroying cells of the immune system, and people can transmit the disease to others even if they are symptom free.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main routes of HIV transmission?
from an HIV-infected person's eating utensils
The riskiest sexual activity for contracting HIV is
being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding oral sex and the transmission of HIV?
It has less of a risk of transmission of HIV than anal or vaginal intercourse.
Studies have found that women who frequently used _______________ for contraception were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
spermicides with nonoxynol-9
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding HIV transmission and infection?
The risk of HIV transmission during oral sex increases if a person has brushed his or teeth or flossed just before or after oral sex.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the transmission of HIV?
During vaginal intercourse, female-to-male transmission is more likely than male-to-female transmission.
Needle-sharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission because
needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
In people with HIV infection, the amount of virus in the body can be measured with a(n)
HIV RNA assay.
The status of the immune system in someone with HIV infection can be monitored by checking
CD4 T-cell counts.
A test that shows how fast HIV from a patient's blood sample can reproduce itself is known as
HIV Replication Capacity.
Anonymous tests for HIV continue to be available because of concerns that people with HIV infection will be
subject to discrimination.
afraid of being identified.
stigmatized and afraid of being identified.
All of the following guidelines are important when considering HIV testing, EXCEPT that you should
wait for symptoms to appear.
The first three classes of antiviral drugs developed for HIV infection include all of the following, EXCEPT
A widely used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
A class of antiviral drugs that block HIV from entering and infecting cells is known as
Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding pregnancy and HIV?
Treatment with antivirals during pregnancy reduces the risk of vertical transmission.
Which of the following will NOT offer a high protection against HIV transmission during oral sex?
Infants with chlamydia infection
acquire the infection through contact with the bacterium in the birth canal during delivery.