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551 terms

Health Promotion

TB -test 2
The roots of our identity and sense of self are in our
includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics that a culture has deemed appropriate for us based on whether we are male or female.
Gender role
Our gender role is first defined for us by our
Individuals who had an anxious/ambivalent relationship with a parent may find that, as adults, they
worry about being abandoned by others.
Anxious/avoidant relationships with parents may produce children who, when they reach adulthood,
are inclined to run from relationships.
Our first relationships outside our family are
Real friends
can be tense with each other.
Friendships usually include all of the following characteristics, EXCEPT
Characteristics of friendships include all of the following, EXCEPT
A characteristic of friendship includes reciprocity, which means
give-and-take between friends.
Intimate partnerships differ from friendships, in that intimate partnerships
include the presence of sexual desire.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of commitment?
_____________ is an idealization of a loved one.
The element that is LEAST characteristic of enduring love relationships is
absorption in each other.
Emotions that can accompany physiological arousal include
The most long lasting element of love is
The transformation of love progresses in the following way:
high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, enduring love
high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, break up of relationship
All of the following are common relationship challenges, EXCEPT
To develop a healthy intimate relationship, it is important to self-disclose
at a slow but steady rate.
A successful relationship has proven to improve an individual's
Emotional intelligence includes
recognizing feelings as they occur.
Mindfulness can be cultivated by
maximizing awareness of ourselves.
Which is a common expectation that can hurt a relationship?
expecting your partner to change
Jealousy is
a measure of insecurity.
Examples of unhealthy relationships include all of the following, EXCEPT
a level of tension.
All of the following are important guidelines for ending a relationship, EXCEPT
"Move on as quickly as possible."
It appears that our partner may NOT be interested in what we are saying if he or she responds by
looking around the room.
The three keys of good communication in a relationship include all of the following, EXECPT
critical analysis.
"Revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal because of the risk involved" describes
Which of the following is NOT a component of good listening?
____________ is a constructive response to another's self-disclosure.
If your partner expresses unhappiness in your relationship, it is best to
validate your partner's feelings and respond with self-disclosure.
When you want to have a serious discussion with your partner,
avoid blaming.
Male communication patterns can often be described as
Which of the following goals is MOST likely to be associated with male conversation?
establishing dominance
Female communication patterns can often be described as
All of the following are steps in effective conflict resolution, EXCEPT
not compromising your position.
Of the following, which is the MOST constructive conflict resolution strategy?
identifying alternatives to get what each person wants
Which of the following is NOT a constructive strategy for conflict resolution?
providing selective information
If you and your partner find that you argue again and again over the same issue, you should
accept the differences between yourselves.
Which of the following is usually the basis of first attraction to another person?
A characteristic of one's partner that becomes important in determining the quality and depth of a relationship after the euphoria of first attraction and initial romance winds down is
future aspirations.
The most important question for potential mates is,
"How much do we have in common?"
In cultures where parent-arranged marriages are common, marriages are
All of the following are drawbacks to online relationships, EXCEPT
people can communicate in a relaxed way.
If you want to pursue an online relationship,
find out the other person's situation and intention.
In traditional male-female dating relationships, the development of the relationship follows the order of
casual dating, exclusive dating, engagement, marriage.
Getting together in groups, a more casual form of contemporary dating, is probably a product of
equality of the sexes.
Living together in a sexual relationship without being married describes
Cohabitation is
increasing in popularity.
By age 30, what percentage of men and women have lived together without being married (cohabitated)?
50 percent
Which of the following factors is NOT associated with the increasing popularity of cohabitation?
younger average age at marriage
One advantage cohabitation has over marriage is
partners have a greater sense of autonomy.
All of the following are liabilities associated with cohabitation, EXCEPT
loss of protection against domestic violence.
Sexual orientation is best described as
a consistent pattern of emotional and sexual attraction based on biological sex.
One difference between heterosexual and homosexual couples is that same-sex partnerships tend to
be more equal.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of many gay and lesbian relationships?
Each partner assumes a traditional gender role.
Marital status affects
Social Security.
federal tax status.
medical decision making
All of the following contribute to the increasing popularity of singlehood, EXCEPT
low divorce rates.
Which of the following statements is LEAST TRUE regarding singlehood?
Economic hardships are greater, especially for men.
Today, people marry more
for personal, emotional reasons.
Having strong social relationships may
reduce the risk of illness.
speed recovery from illness.
improve measures of mental health.
All of the following are health benefits of marriage, EXCEPT
more effective fitness programs.
Which of the following is NOT a predictor of happy marriage?
previous positive sexual experience
Approximately what percentage of married women are in the labor force?
more than 50 percent
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding gender roles in marriage?
Married men have assumed an equal share in child care responsibilities.
Commitment is based on
conscious choice.
Based on current rates, what percentage of people marrying today will eventually divorce?
50-55 percent
The high American divorce rate probably represents
high emotional expectations of marriage.
The divorce process usually begins with
emotional separation.
The greatest stress-producing event in life is usually
death of spouse or family member.
After a divorce occurs, the recovery period usually does not start for about
1 year after the divorce.
Approximately what percentage of divorced people marry again?
75 percent
About 75 percent of divorced people remarry, often within ____ year(s).
The arrival of the first child is most likely to
reinforce traditional marital roles.
The birth of the first child is most likely to
lessen marital satisfaction.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that helps couples avoid marital dissatisfaction after the birth of a baby?
a high annual income
The four general parenting styles include all the following, EXCEPT
Once children grow up and leave home, marital satisfaction
About ______ percent of all children under age 18 live with only one parent.
The primary problems for single-parent families headed by women are
Children in single-parent families are more likely to
have academic difficulty.
Although evidence has suggested that children from single-parent families are less successful in school, this could actually be attributed to _______________ and not the absence of the second parent.
low educational attainment of the single parent
Family rituals can best be described as
traditions that build family ties.
Which of the following statements is FALSE for most strong families?
Family members rarely seek counseling.
The foundation of most relationships is sexual compatibility.
Successful intimate relationships are more likely to exist for people who have a positive self concept
Gender role includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics our culture deems appropriate for us based on whether we're male or female.
Our adult styles of loving may be based on the style of attachment we established in infancy with our mothers, fathers, or other parenting figure.
Even if your earliest relationships were less than ideal, you can still create satisfying adult relationships.
It is possible to work on unresolved, past issues within an adult relationship.
Friendships have all the same characteristics as intimate partnerships
Friendships are usually considered both more stable and long lasting than intimate partnerships.
Lovers are usually more accepting and less critical than friendships.
Love encompasses opposites such as affection and anger, excitement and boredom, and bonds and freedom.
Intimacy and sex are the same.
Current research reveals that men and women find it equally easy to separate love and sex
Pleasure from a relationship may increase when the intensity and excitement of initial passionate love subsides.
Most love relationships change over time.
Intense passion is required for love to endure.
Out of necessity, commitment and passion do diminish over time.
One major part of relationships is to cultivate the intimacy and freedom missing from our youth.
When starting a new relationship, it is best to "put on airs" before showing your true self.
At times, it is important to mentally detach emotionally from a situation and act later.
Having the conviction that you are always right is harmless competitiveness.
In order to develop an identity as a couple, some autonomy will be lost.
Jealousy is an indicator of love.
Violence in dating relationships can be precipitated by jealousy.
If you are the rejected person in a failed relationship, you should go out and begin a new relationship immediately.
The majority of the communication between two people is nonverbal.
The ability to interpret nonverbal messages correctly is important to the success of relationships.
Effective communication includes making sure that your words match your body language.
Conflict is an inevitable part of any intimate relationship.
Skill at providing positive feedback includes providing constructive criticism.
A recommendation for improving communication in relationships is to frequently offer advice to your partner.
Some of the difficulties people encounter in relationships can be traced to common gender differences in communication.
Men tend to talk more and disclose less than women do.
Even though gender differences exist in communication, when a man and a woman are talking about the same subject, their goals are usually the same.
Conflict can be a sign that the relationship is growing.
Conflict is usually accompanied by anger.
The best way to handle anger in a relationship is to face it head on, immediately, with little thought.
A positive conflict resolution skill involves identifying alternatives for getting each person what he or she wants.
Providing ultimatums will often bring a conflict to a sudden and successful resolution.
It is important to finish serious discussions about relationship conflicts on a positive note, even if no agreement is reached.
Initial attraction is most likely to be based on looks, dress, and social status.
Life partners will usually have more similarities than differences.
In those cultures where marriages are arranged by parents, it is likely that the marriage will be very stable, even though the partners may have barely known each other before the marriage ceremony.
Cohabitation is defined as living together in a sexual relationship without being married.
Laws related to Social Security benefits motivate some senior citizens to cohabit rather than marry.
Gay and lesbian couples have many similarities with heterosexual couples
A civil union grants same-sex couples a legal status parallel to civil marriage.
A civil union is valid only within the issuing state.
Proponents of civil unions believe that "marriage" is a basic civil right for everyone
Marriage has been found to be beneficial for both sexes.
Married people live longer than unmarried people.
Commitment is more of a feeling than a conscious choice.
The process of divorce usually starts with physical separation.
Divorce is regarded as the greatest stress-producing event a person can experience.
Research has clearly identified the best way to rear a child.
Marital satisfaction for most couples tends to decline somewhat while children are in school.
Women are more likely to head single-parent households than are men.
More than half of African American children live in single-parent families.
Economic hardships strike single women and single men equally.
Blended family is another term for stepfamily.
Sexual fidelity is a key part of commitment between intimate partners.
Strong families discuss disagreements and make attempts to solve problems.
Eating well, exercising, and getting adequate sleep are all strategies used by strong families in dealing with life's difficulties.
Gonads are
ovaries and testes.
What are the basic units of reproduction in both males and females?
germ cells
The external female sex organs are called the
The _____ contains spongy tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual excitement.
The prepuce is also called the
clitoral hood.
The passage that leads to the internal female reproductive organs is the
Womb is another term for
The fallopian tubes link the
ovaries and uterus.
The fertilized egg is implanted in the _____ where it grows into a fetus.
A direct analogy can be made between the clitoris and the
glans penis.
The purpose of the scrotum is to
maintain the temperature of the testes.
The testes are _____ than the rest of the body.
5 degrees cooler
Sperm are manufactured in the
testes' tubules.
Testis is another word for
The sperm-storing structure on the surface of the testicles is the
About what percentage of newborn males in the United States are circumcised?
Which of the following best describes male circumcision in the United States?
It is more common in the Midwest than in the West.
Which of the following is an argument in support of male circumcision?
It reduces the risk of contracting an STD later in life.
Sperm travels from the epididymis through the
vas deferens.
The prostate gland
produces part of the seminal fluid.
Which of the following is the route sperm take from the testes to the urethra?
Through the epididymis to the vas deferens to the prostate gland to the seminal vesicles to the ejaculatory ducts
The purpose of the seminal vesicles is to
lubricate the urethra.
The purpose of preejaculatory fluid is to
lubricate the urethra.
The glans is
the rounded head of the clitoris or penis.
Male circumcision involves removal of
the prepuce.
Male sex hormones include high levels of
The female sex hormones that sustain reproductive functions are
Female sex hormones include high levels of
estrogens and progestagens.
Chemicals such as DDT and DES interfere with reproduction by
disrupting endocrine activity.
Which of the following does not produce testosterone?
pituitary gland
The hormones secreted by the _____ gland(s) regulate the hormones secreted by other glands.
What is the part of the brain that controls hunger, thirst, and sexual functions?
How many chromosomes do human cells normally contain?
Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female?
Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male?
Which of the following chemicals have several water-bottle manufacturers stopped using because of the link to reproductive problems?
Which of the following describes Turner's syndrome?
It occurs when a woman only has one complete X chromosome.
Which male organ produces testosterone?
Sexual differentiation is the
process of developing sex organs as a male or female.
The period during which the male and female reproductive systems mature is called
The first sign of female puberty is
breast development.
The average age of menarche in the United States is
about 12
Early onset of menarche has been linked to
Which of the following is the first phase of the menstrual cycle?
What is the order of menstrual cycle phases?
(1) menses, (2) estrogenic phase, (3) ovulation, (4) progestational phase
Which of the four phases of the menstrual cycle is characterized by menstrual flow?
The release of the ovum is characteristic of
Ovulation usually occurs
about 14 days before the onset of menses.
What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?
It is maintained by human chronic gonadotropin.
Women who experience dysmenorrhea have _____ menstruation.
Which of the following is the most severe form of menstrual problems?
premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Which of the following best describes premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?
It interferes with normal daily activities.
Which of the following is a recommended strategy for relieving PMS?
using relaxation techniques
Reproductive maturation of boys occurs about _____ than maturation of girls.
2 years later
The first visible sign of sexual maturity in boys is usually
growth of testicles.
The cessation of menstruation is called
Hormone replacement therapy has been found to be associated with
increased incidence of heart attacks.
Which of the following best describes aging male syndrome?
It may involve loss of muscle mass and increase in fat mass.
The most effective physical stimulation involves
Areas of the body that are sensitive to touch are called
erogenous zones.
The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is flowing out is called
The first stage of the sexual response cycle is the _____ phase
Which of the following commonly occurs during the first stage of sexual response?
The testes pull upward within the scrotum.
The second stage of the sexual response cycle is the _____ phase.
The plateau phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by
intensification of reactions initiated in the excitement phase.
The third stage of the sexual response cycle is the _____ phase.
Rhythmic contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the _____ phase.
The fourth stage of the sexual response cycle is the _____ phase.
Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which of the following ways?
Men enter a refractory period.
Which of the following occurs during orgasm?
The male urethra contracts.
The refractory period is the
period during which the male cannot be restimulated to orgasm.
Which of the following is the most common sexual health problem in women?
Endometriosis is a
growth of uterine tissue outside the uterus.
Which of the following is a common symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease?
abdominal pain
Between what ages does testicular cancer most frequently occur?
The term impotence is another name for
erectile dysfunction.
A male attempting to engage in intercourse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely to experience
erectile dysfunction.
The first step in treating a sexual dysfunction is
identifying underlying medical conditions.
Dyspareunia is the
experience of painful intercourse in women.
Mixing nitrates with Viagra can cause
blood pressure to plummet.
Which of the following is a reason for the increase in Viagra use among young men?
Viagra may help reduce the sexual side effects of other drugs.
Which of the following is the most common treatment for orgasmic dysfunction in women?
Everything you do in your daily life that expresses your maleness or femaleness to others determines your
gender role.
Individuals' personal, inner sense of being male or female determines their
gender identity.
Individuals who have the same biological sex and gender identity are called
Which of the following best describes people who feel their biological sex does not match their gender identity?
Androgyny is best characterized as
having a mix of male and female characteristics.
Once they reach puberty, teenage boys experience
nocturnal emissions.
The average age at which Americans first have sexual intercourse is
About what percentage of 15- to 19-year-olds in the United States have had sexual intercourse?
Adolescent sexual interaction
usually takes place within the context of dating.
Which of the following best describes the sexual attitudes of young adults in the United States?
It is important to become sexually experienced before marrying.
Which of the following is true of sexual orientation?
It is defined by a continuum of attraction.
In the United States, _____% of men and women self-identify as bisexual.
less than 5
The best current explanation for the development of sexual orientation is
a complex, interrelated set of biological, psychological, and social factors.
Which of the following is a finding of current research on sexual orientation?
Sex hormones in the womb help to determine sexual attraction later in life.
An umbrella term for behavior aimed at sexual self-stimulation is
Kissing, touching, and any form of oral or genital contact that stimulates people toward intercourse is called
Oral stimulation of the female genitalia is called
Oral stimulation of the penis is called
Which of the following is a reason to have oral sex instead of vaginal sex?
to prevent pregnancy
The most extreme form of sexual coercion is
Which of the following forms of sex requires physical contact?
Which of the following is true of sex addiction?
It often stems from childhood trauma or abuse.
Which of the following is a good way to start a conversation about sex with your partner?
"How would you feel about taking a different approach to sex?"
Drinking alcohol prior to sexual activity
makes orgasm more difficult to achieve for both genders.
According to the World Health Organization, how many women worldwide have unintended or unwanted pregnancies every year?
80 million
has one of the highest teen pregnancy rates of all developed nations.
The United States
A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is
a barrier method.
A contraceptive that permanently prevents transport of the sperm or egg to the site of conception is a
surgical method.
The "typical use" contraceptive failure rate is based on studies that measure the percentage of women experiencing unintended pregnancy in the first
year of use.
A women that is consistently careful in following instructions is labeled as having the "perfect use" failure rate. What is that failure rate?
0.3 percent
How many eggs are released through ovulation during a woman's fertile life?
The continuation rate of a contraceptive is determined by the percentage of
people who continue to use a particular contraceptive after a specified period of time.
Oral contraceptives primarily prevent conception by
preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.
In addition to preventing ovulation, the birth control pill prevents conception in all of the following ways, EXCEPT
constricting the cervical opening.
The most common type of oral contraceptive is the
combination pill.
In addition to hormone pills, most contraceptive packets also include
one week of inactive pills.
A woman taking the oral contraceptive Seasonale and Seasonique will have how many menstrual periods per year?
A women that is taking Lybrel will take the active pills for how long?
All of the following are TRUE about the minipill, EXCEPT
it has more side effects and associated health risks than other hormonal contraceptives.
The benefit of smaller doses of estrogen in oral contraceptives is
fewer health risks.
Full effectiveness of oral contraceptives is established
after one week of use.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of oral contraceptives?
The most common type of oral contraceptive contains both estrogen and progesterone.
The main advantage of oral contraceptives is the
high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
The medical advantages of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT decreased risk of
sexually transmitted diseases.
Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives for most women?
They provide no protection against STDs.
Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with
a history of blood clots.
Which of the following actions will reduce the risk associated with the use of oral contraceptives?
stopping smoking
When a women is using an OC, she can use the mnemonic ACHES to be alert for preliminary danger signals. What does the "A" stand for?
abdominal pain
How does risk of death from using oral contraceptives compare with the risk of death from pregnancy?
Risk of death from pregnancy is higher.
The typical first-year failure rate for oral contraceptives is _________ percent.
Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch is worn for ________ before being replaced.
1 week
The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch can be worn on any of the following places, EXCEPT the
Compliance seems higher for the contraceptive skin patch than for OCs because
the patch requires weekly instead of daily action.
Which of the following hormonal methods is thought to be less effective in women weighing more than 198 pounds?
Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch
At what time during a women's cycle should she insert the vaginal contraceptive ring?
anytime during the first 5 days of her menstrual cycle
After insertion, the NuvaRing (vaginal contraceptive ring) is left in the vagina for ______ before removal.
3 weeks
Which of the following methods should NOT be combined with diaphragm use?
vaginal contraceptive ring
The NuvaRing offers pregnancy protection for how long?
1 month
The perfect-use failure rate of the NuvaRing is _____ percent.
he typical-use failure rate for the NuvaRing is about ______ percent.
The Implanon implant is a(n) _______________ contraceptive.
The Implanon is effective for how long?
3 years
Which of the following methods is considered a "contraceptive implant"?
Depo-Provera is
administered by injection.
A disadvantage of Depo-Provera is
after use is discontinued, infertility may result for up to 12 months.
Which of the following is a progestin-only contraceptive, providing no estrogen?
Depo-Provera injections
Which currently available IUD is effective for up to 10 years?
Copper T-380A
How exactly does the IUD prevent pregnancy?
It is not known for certain how IUDs prevent pregnancy.
The nylon threads that are attached to the IUD and protrude through the cervix serve to
allow for placement check.
All of the following are advantages of the IUD, EXCEPT
its use does not require consulting a health care provider.
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists states that the use of an IUD can reduce the risk of developing which type of cancer?
Which of the following statements about IUDs is FALSE?
Menstrual flow in IUD users is initially lighter.
Which of the following statements regarding IUDs and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is TRUE?
Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics.
Which of the following statements regarding the IUD is FALSE?
The IUD is the best contraceptive choice for young women who have never been pregnant.
IUDs are contraindicated for all of the following, EXCEPT women with
past pregnancies.
Early IUD danger signals include all of the following, EXCEPT
heavy menstrual bleeding.
The most popular barrier method of contraception is the
male condom.
What percentage of male condoms are purchased by women?
33 percent
Which of the following is TRUE about condoms pre-lubricated with nonoxynol-9?
There is no evidence that they are any more effective than ones without nonoxynol-9.
All of the following are advantages of condoms, EXCEPT
being as effective as oral contraceptives.
Which of the following is TRUE about polyurethane condoms?
They are more likely to break than are latex condoms.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of condom use?
diminished sensation
The perfect use failure rate for male condoms during the first year of usage is about ____ percent.
The breakage rate for latex male condoms is about ____ time(s) for every 100 instances of use.
1 to 2
To further enhance the general effectiveness of a condom in preventing pregnancy, one should
use a vaginal spermicide after intercourse.
If a condom breaks, an appropriate strategy for reducing the risk of pregnancy is to
use emergency contraception.
The female condom
can be inserted up to 8 hours before intercourse.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom?
The female condom is less expensive than the male condom.
The typical first-year failure rate of the female condom is _______ percent.
The function of the diaphragm is to
cover the cervix.
After intercourse, the diaphragm should be left in for at least
6 hours
While in storage, diaphragms should be coated with
The diaphragm can be inserted up to how long before intercourse?
6 hours
A disadvantage of the diaphragm is that
it requires the use of a spermicide.
With perfect use of a diaphragm, the failure rate is about ______ percent
Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate?
incorrect insertion and positioning
A thimble-shaped cup that fits over the cervix and serves as a barrier to sperm is the
An advantage of the FemCap over the diaphragm is that it
it may be left in place for up to 48 hours.
The FemCap may be left in place after intercourse for as long as
48 hours.
Advantages of the sponge include all of the following, EXCEPT it
can be used multiple times.
Disadvantages of the sponge include all of the following, EXCEPT
additional spermicide must be applied every 6-8 hours
Vaginal spermicides come in all of the forms below, EXCEPT
aerosol spray.
Contraceptive foams, creams, and jellies must be inserted
deep in the vagina near the cervix.
Vaginal spermicides most be inserted no more than how long before intercourse?
60 minutes
Vaginal spermicides start drastically losing effectiveness _____ hour(s) after insertion into the vagina.
Douching is not recommended for women because it
can irritate vaginal tissue
Because body heat is needed to dissolve and activate contraceptive suppositories,
it is important to wait at least 15 minutes after insertion before engaging in intercourse.
Vaginal Contraceptive Film® is a type of
spermicidal suppository.
The most effective vaginal spermicide when used alone is probably
The life span of an unfertilized egg is about _____ hours.
All of the following are considered "natural" forms of contraception, EXCEPT
tubal sterilization.
Using the calendar method of birth control requires knowledge about when ovulation occurs. If a woman has a 30-day cycle, what are her "unsafe" days?
days 12-19
Based on knowledge of when ovulation occurs and the longevity of sperm, determine the first fertile (unsafe) day and the last unsafe day for a woman with a 33-day cycle.
days 15, 22
The temperature method of birth control is based on the knowledge that a woman's body temperature goes
down slightly just before ovulation.
Using the temperature method of birth control, calculate the unsafe period for intercourse based on a 29-day cycle.
from day 5 to 3 days after the rise in temperature
Which of the following is a characteristic of the cervical secretions observed at the time of ovulation?
clear, slippery mucus with elastic threads
Withdrawal has a relatively low effectiveness as a contraceptive method because of the presence of the
preejaculatory fluid.
Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception?
Plan B
An emergency hormonal contraceptive reduces the risk of pregnancy by almost ____ percent if taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse.
After a women has taken her first Plan B pill, when should she administer the second pill?
in 12 hours
In order for emergency contraception to be effective, the first dose must be taken within ____ hours of unprotected intercourse.
Regarding the availability of emergency contraception, which of the following statements is accurate?
Emergency contraceptives are available over-the-counter for women and men 17 and older.
Surgical severing of the ducts that carry the sperm to the seminal vesicles is called
Which of the following statements regarding male sterilization is TRUE?
It requires another form of birth control to be used until a sperm-free sample of ejaculate is obtained.
Tubal sterilization or tubal ligation entails the severing or blocking of the
Which of the following is TRUE about tubal sterilization?
Serious complications from the procedure are rare.
The Essure female sterilization system works by
causing scar tissue to form over implants and block the fallopian tubes.
Surgical removal of the uterus is called
What is the BEST explanation of why men have taken less responsibility for contraception than women have?
The consequences of not using contraception are more serious for women than for men.
As it is commonly used, the word abortion means
artificially induced expulsion of the fetus.
__________ is a spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus occurring naturally with no causal intervention.
Originally, abortion policy in the United States was dictated by
English common law.
"Quickening" is
fetal movement beginning at about 20 weeks of pregnancy.
The anti-abortion drive in the United States did not gain a lot of attention until the _______________ century.
By what year were there laws against abortion in practically every state in the U.S.?
Abortion was made legal by the U.S. Supreme Court in
The Supreme Court case that legalized abortion was
Roe v. Wade.
The Supreme Court's division of pregnancy into three parts or trimesters
gave a woman less choice about abortion as she advanced toward full term.
During the second trimester, abortion rights remain up to the point when the fetus is deemed viable, which means that the fetus
has the capability of surviving outside of the uterus.
Most clinicians define a fetus as viable at ______ weeks of gestation.
Since 1973, the average number of weeks at which viability is achieved has been reduced to _____ weeks.
What did Roe v. Wade establish as the key criterion in establishing the point beyond which a woman's right to choose abortion becomes markedly restricted?
viability of the fetus
According to the Supreme Court, a state may NOT bar abortion
if the woman's health is in jeopardy.
A reversal of Roe v. Wade would
permit states to prohibit abortion.
Recent states laws regulating abortion have focused on
federal funding for abortions.
the banning of certain types of late-term abortions.
regulations concerning parental notification
Current state laws concerning abortion include all of the following, EXCEPT
mandatory prayer sessions for abortion candidates.
A judicial bypass procedure means that
a minor can obtain permission from a judge instead of a parent to have an abortion.
Currently, how many states provide nonfederal public money to assist some poor women seeking medically necessary abortions?
Women below the federal poverty threshold have an abortion rate more than ______ that of higher income women.
4 times
The belief that any abortion is murder is representative of what group?
Which of the following is a pro-life view?
Abortion has an overall destructive effect on society.
The belief that women must have the freedom to decide whether and when to have children is representative of what view?
Which of the following is a pro-choice view?
Women would continue to have abortions even if abortion was made illegal.
The pro-choice view holds that discrimination in health care will result from banning legal abortions because
wealthy women could more easily travel to access safe, legal abortion.
What percentage of Americans identify themselves as pro-life?
47 percent
What percentage of Americans identify themselves as pro-choice?
45 percent
The attitude of most adult Americans toward abortion is
that it should continue to be legal.
The personal considerations for a woman considering abortion should include
whether the decision is compatible with her moral and religious beliefs.
what her partner's feelings about abortion are.
whether she has a supportive network to assist her through a difficult time.
Most induced abortions occur _______________ weeks of gestation.
in the first 8
Which one of the following statements about abortion rates is generally TRUE?
Abortion rates are lower in countries where contraceptives are widely available.
The decision to go through with an unwanted pregnancy and give the baby up for adoption takes all of the following, EXCEPT
low self-esteem.
The birth parents and the adoptive parents never know each other in a(n) ________ adoption.
The birth parents and the adoptive parents know something about one another and may meet in a(n) ________ adoption.
At current rates, about ______ percent of American women will have had an abortion by age 45.
Based on national research, all of the following are characteristics of the "typical" American woman having an abortion, EXCEPT
being non-Christian.
The top reason a woman chooses an abortion is
it would change her life (job, school).
Which of the following is the MOST common abortion method?
Surgical abortions make up what percentage of all abortions?
87 percent
An agent or substance that produces abortions is a(n)
Another name for suction curettage is
dilation and curettage.
Suction curettage is the most common method of abortion in
the first trimester.
Suction curettage is used in about what percentage of all abortions performed in the U.S.?
90 percent
What percentage of the world's people live in countries where abortion is permitted either without restriction or, more commonly, for a wide range of reasons but with certain restrictions?
60 percent
A newer abortion option available in some locations to women in the earliest stages of pregnancy is
manual vacuum aspiration.
The most common method of abortion during the 13th to 24th weeks of pregnancy is
dilation and evacuation.
Which of the following statements about dilation and evacuation is TRUE?
It requires cervical dilation overnight before the procedure is completed.
A method of late-term abortion that makes use of prostaglandins to cause uterine contractions is called
labor induction.
Medical abortion is approved for use
within 49 days of the last menstrual period.
All of the following are TRUE about mifepristone, EXCEPT that it
is the same as emergency contraception.
How does mifepristone cause an abortion?
It blocks the effect of progesterone
Mifepristone is approved for use for up to _____ days after the last menstrual period.
Which of the following is TRUE about abortion with mifepristone?
Its success rate is highest in early pregnancy.
All of the following are likely side effects of the mifepristone two-drug regimen, EXCEPT
cardiovascular problems.
Methotrexate, when used with prostaglandin, induces an abortion by
stopping the embryonic cells from dividing.
Which of the following does NOT reduce the complications of abortion?
general anesthesia
The most common physical complication of abortion is
Which of the following is a post-abortion danger sign?
abdominal tenderness
Which of the following is NOT a post-abortion danger sign?
vaginal bleeding
Surgical abortion techniques can fail to end a pregnancy if
there is an ectopic pregnancy.
Overall, mortality from abortion
is low.
Which of the following is the MOST accurate characterization of women's psychological reactions to facing abortion?
Psychological reactions depend on a woman's psychological makeup.
An organism that causes disease is a(n)
The natural environment in which a pathogen lives is called a
Which of the following is not a vector of disease?
contaminated soil
An infection that travels throughout the body is called
One of the best ways to break the chain of infection is to
wash your hands frequently.
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of organisms is
the skin.
Obstacles to microorganisms entering the body include ______ membranes.
Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ______ and ______ that break down and destroy many microorganisms.
antibodies; enzymes
Microscopic, hairlike structures that sweep foreign substances out of the lungs are called
White blood cells are produced in the
bone marrow
A type of white blood cell that engulfs foreign organisms is a(n)
Macrophages act as ______ of worn-out cells.
White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are ______ cells
natural killer
T cells and B cells are the main types of
Glands, or ______, are where macrophages congregate and filter out pathogens.
lymph nodes
Swollen lymph nodes are an indication of
All of the following are types of white blood cells except
A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is called a(n)
Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with ______ like a lock and key.
Vessels and organs that pick up excess fluids, filter out disease-causing organisms and other waste products, and return cleansed fluid to general circulation belong to the ______ system.
Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in allergic reactions are called
The release of histamines does not cause ______ in the affected area.
During which type of immune system response does the body's defense system literally eat invading pathogens?
natural immunity
T and B cells change after contact with the pathogen in a(n) ______ immune response.
Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the ______ response to invading pathogens.
Chemical messengers released by immune system cells that help regulate and coordinate the immune response are
Which of the following are examples of cytokines?
interleukins and interferons
A disease in which an individual's immune system attacks his or her own body's cells is called a(n)
autoimmune disease.
Lymphocytes that stimulate other lymphocytes to increase are called ______ cells.
helper T
Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells of the body that have been invaded by foreign organisms are called
killer T cells.
In the immune response, the phase in which killer T cells strike at foreign cells and at cells of the body that have been invaded and infected is called
cell-mediated immune response.
Cell-mediated immune response
is a function of killer T cells.
Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called ______ cells.
Which of the following statements regarding the antibody-mediated immune response is correct?
Antibodies work against bacteria and viruses outside of body cells.
The phase of the immune response in which suppressor T cells halt it and restore the body's natural balance is called
Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and quickly destroy that infection if it ever appears again are called ______ cells.
memory T
The ability of memory lymphocytes to remember previous infections is known as
acquired immunity.
Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune response is she experiencing?
Immunization is based on the
body's ability to remember an encounter with a specific antigen.
A preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the body to produce antibodies is called
a vaccine
Pathogens that have been bred in the laboratory in a weakened form are known as ______ organisms.
For which of the following diseases would one receive a vaccine made from a pathogen that was killed in the laboratory?
Vaccines confer ______ immunity.
A person who is exposed to a disease and is subsequently injected with antibodies produced by others has been given
passive immunity.
A serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary immunity is called
gamma globulin.
When the body responds to a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous pathogen and mounts an immune response, this response is called
an allergic reaction.
Substances that provoke allergies are known as
Which of the following is not considered a common allergen?
The antibody most involved in triggering an allergic reaction is
immunoglobulin E.
The substance that increases the inflammatory response and the secretion of mucus following exposure to an allergen is
Key components of a typical asthma attack include all of the following except
Which of the following is not considered a pathogen?
Meningitis is an infection of the
membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of
Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria caused Johnny's symptoms?
A common bacterium found on the skin in healthy people but capable of causing infection if it enters the body is
Which of the following statements is not true regarding tuberculosis?
It usually affects the digestive tract.
Lyme disease can cause all of the following except
Lyme disease is transmitted by a
deer tick.
Most ulcers are caused by
Helicobacter pylori infection.
Tetanus is also known as
Whooping cough is a respiratory illness cause by the bacterium
Bordetella pertussis.
Generally, antibiotics are useful against
Viral diseases are the most common form of ______ disease.
Colds are almost always transmitted by
hand-to-hand contact
Which of the following statements regarding the common cold is true?
It may be caused by more than 200 different viruses.
Influenza usually causes all of the following symptoms except
gastrointestinal distress.
Influenza is highly contagious and spread via
respiratory droplets.
A vaccine is available to prevent infection by
All of the following are childhood viral illnesses that have waned in the United States except
The herpesvirus associated with infectious mononucleosis is
Epstein-Barr virus.
Viral encephalitis causes inflammation of the tissue in the
The mildest form of hepatitis is hepatitis
Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by
sexual contact.
Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes associated with hepatitis is called
Which virus can cause irreversible paralysis and death in some infected individuals?
Rabies is most often transmitted by
animal bites.
Warts on the hands are caused by infection with a type of
Molds, mushrooms, and yeasts belong to which group?
The fungus that causes yeast infections is called
Candida albicans.
Mild fungal diseases that rarely give rise to major problems include all of the following except
Single-celled organisms that often cause recurrent diseases are called
Protozoa are associated with all of the following illnesses except
The largest organisms that can enter the body to cause infection are
parasitic worms.
An infectious agent that consists only of protein is a
Prions cause which of the following diseases?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Which of the following infections is transmitted by a mosquito bite?
West Nile virus
An infection that may have been initiated by the consumption of certain species of wildlife is
severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Examples of autoimmune disease include
systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis.
Autoimmune diseases occur when
the body erroneously recognizes its own cells as foreign.
Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding STDs?
STDs cannot be transmitted unless an infected person has symptoms.
Which country has the highest STD rate of any developed nation?
United States
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
disables the immune function of the CD4 T cells.
Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the global spread of HIV/AIDS?
Asia and Africa are on par with each other in terms of the number of people living with HIV.
Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is
heterosexual contact.
Shortly after HIV infection, most, but not all of those infected will develop
flu like symptoms.
The average time span between the initial HIV infection and the onset of disease symptoms in untreated people is _______________ years.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the asymptomatic phase of HIV infection?
-This period can last from 2 to 20 years.
-During this time the virus is progressively infecting and destroying cells of the immune system.
-During this period, people can transmit the disease to others even if they are symptom free.
-During this time, the virus is progressively infecting and destroying cells of the immune system, and people can transmit the disease to others even if they are symptom free.
Transmission of HIV occurs through
unprotected sexual intercourse with someone with HIV.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main routes of HIV transmission?
from an HIV-infected person's eating utensils
The riskiest sexual activity for contracting HIV is
being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding oral sex and the transmission of HIV?
It has less of a risk of transmission of HIV than anal or vaginal intercourse.
Studies have found that women who frequently used _______________ for contraception were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
spermicides with nonoxynol-9
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding HIV transmission and infection?
The risk of HIV transmission during oral sex increases if a person has brushed his or teeth or flossed just before or after oral sex.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the transmission of HIV?
During vaginal intercourse, female-to-male transmission is more likely than male-to-female transmission.
Needle-sharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission because
needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
The transmission of HIV from mother to child is called
perinatal transmission.
Vertical transmission of HIV is
mother-to-child transmission.
Signs and symptoms of HIV infection include all of the following, EXCEPT
weight gain.
In people with HIV infection, the amount of virus in the body can be measured with a(n)
HIV RNA assay.
The infection most often seen in people with HIV infection is
Pneumocystis pneumonia.
A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with HIV infection is
Kaposi's sarcoma.
The initial screening test for HIV antibodies is the
ELISA test.
The test that is used as a confirming test for HIV is the
Western blot.
The status of the immune system in someone with HIV infection can be monitored by checking
CD4 T-cell counts.
A test that shows how fast HIV from a patient's blood sample can reproduce itself is known as
HIV Replication Capacity.
Anonymous tests for HIV continue to be available because of concerns that people with HIV infection will be
subject to discrimination.
afraid of being identified.
stigmatized and afraid of being identified.
All of the following guidelines are important when considering HIV testing, EXCEPT that you should
wait for symptoms to appear.
The first three classes of antiviral drugs developed for HIV infection include all of the following, EXCEPT
transcriptase inhibitors.
A widely used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
zidovudine (AZT).
Protease inhibitors
target the development of a protein coat around new copies of HIV
A class of antiviral drugs that block HIV from entering and infecting cells is known as
entry inhibitors.
Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding pregnancy and HIV?
Treatment with antivirals during pregnancy reduces the risk of vertical transmission.
Long-term antiviral therapy for HIV infection
is very expensive.
Which of the following will NOT offer a high protection against HIV transmission during oral sex?
oral contraceptives
All of the following are risk factors for contracting HIV, EXCEPT
mutual masturbation.
Chlamydia is the most prevalent _______________ STD.
Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of _______________ in men under age 35.
Infants with chlamydia infection
acquire the infection through contact with the bacterium in the birth canal during delivery.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of chlamydia?
generalized rash