Pharm final- Exams 3~14 altered no blanks
Terms in this set (209)
Exam 8. Which of the following are the most likely adverse effects of NSAIDs?
Gastric unceration and nephrotoxicity
Exam 8. Which one of these drugs is NOT a coxib, or COX 1 sparing NSAID and is IV injected in the the jugular vein?
Exam 8. This OTC NSAID labelled for use in people is highly ulcerogenic in dogs
Exam 8. This coxib or COX 1 sparing NSAID is available as tablets or as injectable for SC administration for use in dogs.
Exam 8. Corticosteroids are contraindicated for
treatment of corneal ulcer
Exam 8. This short acting corticosteroid in found in many OTC topical preparations.
Exam 8. This long acting corticosteroid is found in combination with antibacterial and antifungal agents in many topical preparations labelled for veterinary use.
Exam 8. Which oral tablet that is combined with Prednisolone is also labelled for use in vet patients
Exam 8. This lipophilic topical agent is used in some otic meds because it helps transport other agents in the medication deeper into the tissue
Exam 8. This drug, which can be administered as an intrarticular injection in horses aids in cartilage repair
Exam 8. Humans accidentally exposed to ________ should seek emergency medical attention immediately because of the potential for serious adverse effects.
Exam 8. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
is B-lactamase resistant
Exam 5. This ionophore binds to Na ions and increases transport of Na into the cell
Exam 5. Which of these drugs is toxic to horses, even in small amounts and can cause death, damage to the heart and skeletal muscle tissue>
Exam 5. Which is true of Decoquinate?
Admin orally as medicated feed or added to drinking water
Exam 5. T/F Decoquinate can be used to prevent coccidial infections in young animals
Exam 5. Several kittens at a shelter begin exhibiting cervical ventroflexion and ataxia. Which of these agents is associated with these clinical signs?
Exam 5. Which is true of Sulfadimethoxine
Used to treat coccidiosis, also antibacterial agent
Exam 5. T/F Sulfadimethoxine interferes with folic acid synthesis which is required for DNA synthesis
Exam 5. T/F Sulfadimethoxine can be used with other sulfonamide antibiotics?
Exam 5. Treatment with Ponazuril often begins with a loading dose because?
The drugs half life is 4-5 days, so it may require a loading dose to initiate treatment
Exam 5. Which is true of Metronidazole (Flagyl)
ELDU in food animals is PROHIBITED
Exam 5. Which of the following is true of Metronidazole (Flagyl)
It is effective against anaerobic bacteria
Exam 5. This insecticide is a rapid acting agent effective against fleas. It is safe for use in pups and kittens
This oral insecticide should NOT be administered to pups or kittens less than 14wks
T/F Spinosad may cause vomiting at labelled dose
Which of these insecticides is toxic to cats
Which of these are IGR
Methoprene (Precor) and Pyriproxyfen (archer)
Which of these adverse effects is most common in dogs dipped with Amitraz
Lethargy, hypothermic after dipping, ataxia
This antibiotic acts by interfering with folic acid synthesis in bacteria
This broad spectrum, bacteriostatic antibiotic is widely used in cattle for treatment of mastitis, metritis and other infections, and is also as a coccidiostat in pultry
T/F Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid has a broader spectrum of activity than amoxicillin
T/F Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic
Benzathine penicillin G is widely used in vet med. In which species can it cause fatal GI suprainfection
Guinea pigs, ferrets, hamsters, rabbits,
Advantage Multi contain moxidectin and imidaclopris. Moxidectin is effective against?
worms/ internal parasites
Which of these should NOT be admin to a HW + dog?
This OTC aminoglycoside is intended for use in swine for treatment of scours
A horse has a history of hypersensitivity reaction to procaine pinicillin. Which of theses drugs would be likely to elicit the same reaction
Benzathine penicillin G
T/F Cefovecin is highly protein bound. As a result, this drug is labelled for use in dogs and cats
This group of antibiotics interferes with the function of DNA gyrase in bacteria.
This antibiotic may be used in dogs, cats and pigs but it is fatal to horses
Which of these drugs is typically given as part of heartworm treatment to eliminate Wolbachia bacteria harbored by the heartworms
Doxycycline and Minocycline
This antifungal agent is effective against dermatophytes, but not systemic fungal infections
Which of these is true of Clindamycin
Oral liquid has a very bitter taste
Particles absorbed more rapidly, so it's dosed lower them microsize particles
This antibiotic may be used to treat both anaeirobic and protozoal infections in companion animals
This antibiotic which has the potential to cause aplastic anemia in people is strictly prohibited for use in food animals
This antibiotic has a similar spectrum to the pinicillins and is approved for use in medictated feed for pultry
This drug used to treat seizures is significantly protein bound. Other protein bound drugs may alter the serum concentration of this anticonvulsant
Which of thses is used as an anticonvulsant
In patients taking Phenobarbital to manage seizures, the half life of Phenobarbital may be decreased over time due to
Induction of Cyt P450 enzymes
The DVM has prescribed Phenobarbital. What information should you share with the client as you instruct them in the use of this medication
Do not abruptly discontinue the medication
T/F Potassium bromide is not approved by the FDA because it is not safe
T/F Potassium bromide is not approved by the FDA because it is a naturally occuring salt, not a drug
Use caution when handling patients reciving this drug which my release behavior that is normally inhibited
Which is true regarding behavior modifying drugs
These drugs are usually administered orally
These drugs block reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin
Clonazepam is classified as a
This drug may be used as needed as a mild tranquilizer to calm pets during travel, thunderstorms, or trips to the groomer or vet
Ormethoprin sulfadimethoxine is
Later generation (2nd, 3rd, ect) cephalosporins
effective against G(+), also effective against more G(-)
Which group of antibiotics is usually effective against atypical bacteria including Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Rickettsia
This sulfonamide antibiotic also has anti-seizure activity
Which of these is used as an anti-convulsant
Acepromazine is classified as a
This COX 1 sparing NSAID is available as a past and is often used to treat horses for osteosrthritits
This NSAID is often used in treatment of colic because it offers some protection against endotoxins
Which of these is a common side effect of antihistamines
This substrate is found in oral nutraceutical products for dogs, cats and horses, it enhances cartilage repair
This short acting corticosteroid is found in many OTC topical preparations
Which of these groups of drugs act as endoectocides
Which of these products may be used in dairy cattle?
Mioxidectin and some Fenbendazole
This benzimidazole used in livestock is teratogenic and can cause hepatotoxicity.
This agent is used as a daily dewormer for control of GI nematodes in horses.
EXAM 4. Epsiprantel would be effective against which of these parasites?
Which of these is a warning associated with emodepside?
May interfere with fetal development; pregnant women should NOT have direct contact with drug
What is the route of administration for melarsomine dihydrochloride?
exam 4. Which of these drugs is used to eliminate microfilaria (L1) in dogs with heartworms
Which drug is used to control Echinococcus granulosus
Which drug is used to control Dirofilaria immitis
exam 4. Which of these drugs is a topical agent used as a heartworm preventative and to control external parasites such as fleas and ear mites.
Exam 4. Which of these drugs should NOT be given in combination with pyrantel pamoate?
Exam 4. These drugs bind to ACh receptors, causing spastic paralysis in parasites
exam 4. What is the function of P-glycoprotein coded for by the MDR gene?
P-glycoprotein pumps macrolides OUT of brain by active transport
exam 4. Which of these drugs is a topical agent used as a heartworm preventative and to control external parasites such as fleas and ear mites.
Exam 4. This agent is a prodrug that is metabolized in the liver to the active form.
Exam 4. L3 HW larva
This ionophore binds to Ca ions and increases transport of Ca into the cell.
A horse that gets into feed containing amprolium may exhibit signs associated with
This drug is labelled for use in treatment of Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM).
Exam 10. which of these drugs act as a reversible sedative
atipamezole and yohimbine
Exam 10. which of these drugs is a benzodiazepine?
Diazepam, Midazolam and Zolazepam
Exam 10. which of these drugs is a reversal agent for xylazine
Exam 10. Which of these drugs is a controlled substance
Barbiturates, ketamine & Telazol
Exam 10. Which of these patients is likely to be sensitive to the effects of acepromazine
Herding breeds, boxers, giant breeds
Exam 10. which of these is an adverse effect of acepromazine administered to horses as premedication
Exam 10. Which of these drugs may be used as a pre-medication for anesthesia or as an anticonvulsant
Benzodiazepines: Diazepam, Midazolam, Zolazepam
Exam 10. Which is an appropriate route of administeration of diazepam used as part of an anesthetic protocol
IM or IV
Exam 10. Which of these is an adverse effect of dexmeditomidine in dogs
Vomiting, Muscle relaxation, Analgesia Bradycardia, Hypotension
Exam 10. Which of these is an appropriate route of administeration for detomidine
IM or IV
Exam 10. the onset of ketamine is typically
1-2 minutes if given IV
10 minutes if given IM, or po
Exam 10. Which of these is a muscle relaxant commonly used as a preanesthetic agent in horses
Exam 10. Which of these drugs is used to treat maligant hyperthermia
Exam 10. This NSAID is often used in treatment of cloic because it offers some protection against endotoxins
Exam 10. Which of these statments is true of potassium bromide
No FDA approved product available and give small doses several times a day
Exam 10. This TCA stimulates the CNS and is used to treat separation anxiety
Which of these is a function of the lower respiratory tract
a cough is produced by forced __ against a __ glottis
essential oils are used as
This OTC antihistamine may be administered orally to manage allergic rhinitis as well as being administered as an injectable for treatment or prevention of allergic reactions to vaccinations or insect bites.
This inorganic salt used as an expectorant may be obtained through compounding pharmacies.
This Schedule C-II drug is very effective as an antitussive, but not often prescribed due to close regulation of Schedule C-II drugs.
Which of these drugs is used to promote bronchdilation?
This bronchodilator may be adminstered as a SC injection for immediate relief of respiratory distress in cats with feline asthma.
This OTC drug is sometime used extra-label to manage rhinitis in dogs and cats.
Which of these drugs is used in small animals practice to stimulate respiration in neonates following C-section?
This drugs is used as an expectorant and as a muscle relaxant.
Penile prolapse is a potentially adverse effect of ________ in ________.
acepromazine: male horses
Test 13. The ________ cells in the gastric glands secrete hydrogen and chloride ions.
Test 13. Which of these OTC drugs may be used extra-label in dogs to treat gastric ulceration?
Test 13. Omeprazole is usually administered
Test 13. Misoprostal acts as
a synthetic prostoglandin (PgE)
Test 13. Which of these drugs binds to surface of gastric ulcer and protects underlying mucosa?
Test 13. Which of these drugs is typically used to induce emesis in dogs in the veterinary hospital?
Test 13. Which of these is an OTC products for motion sickness in people that may also be used in dogs?
Test 13. Metoclopramide is contraindicated
To patient with GI obstruction or GI perforation, or patient predisposed to seizures
Test 13. Which of these is the drug of choice for motion sickness in dogs and cats?
Test 13. Which of these opioid drugs is used extra label as an antidiarrheal in dogs and foals
Test 13. Which of these antidiarrheal agents also has anti-inflammatory activity?
Test 13. N-butylscopalammonium bromide is
Test 13. Which of these agents used for relief of constipation is contraindicated in cats?
Test 13. Which of these is a lubricating laxative?
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Selamectin
Topical HW prevention, fleas, mites and internal parasites
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Phenylbutazone
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Clenbuterol
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Amikacin
Aminoglycosides/aggressive G(-) infections
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Lidocaine
Antiarrhythmics/Used in emergencies to control PVCs
Test 13. Match each drug with its common use: Prednisone
Glucocorticoids/used in treatment of allergic dermatitis, also for autoimmune disease IMHA & IMT
Test 11. Which of these is a potential adverse effect of enalapril?
Test 11. ACE inhibitors are primarily used
to produce arterial vasodilation
Test 11. Calcium channel blockers inhibit contraction
in cardiac and smooth musscle
Test 11. Which of these drugs is a positive inotrope?
Test 11. Which of these is a sign of digoxin toxicity that clients should be advised to watch for?
Test 11. Dobutamine is used
in emergency to improve cardiac contraction
Test 11. Atenolol is often used in treatment of
DCM aka hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Test 11. This beta blocker is often used to manange tachyarrhythmias.
Test 11. Diltiazem is typically used as an antiarrhythmic, but it may also be used
Test 11. Class III antiarrhythmics act by
blocking potassium channels
Test 11. blocks vagal stimulation
Test 11. opioid antagonist
Test 11. causes vasoconstriction
Test 11. Class I antiarrhythmic
Test 11. general adrenergic agonist
Test 11. used in treatment of Old Dog Dementia
Test 11. a muscle relaxant
Test 11. an antibiotic
Test 11. systemic insecticide
Test 11. a corticosteroid
exam 3. Which of these is NOT one of the stages of pharmacokinetics?
Exam 3. In which of these situations is drug absorption a significant factor in its therapeutic effect?
administering oral pain medication to a patient with arthritis
Exam 3. Which of these is a true statment?
Bioavailability is 100% with IV administration
Exam 3. The first pass effect is most significant for drugs that are administered
EXam 3. Which of these is NOT a means of eliminating drugs from the body?
Exam 3. Which of the following statements is true?
Ionized drugs are hydrophilic
Exam 3. Which of these drugs is predominantly ionized in a solution with a pH of 7.4?
acid drug with pK of 6.4
Exam 3. A drug has a volume of distribution of 3 L/kg. Based on this information you expect
the drugs is concentrated in the tissues
Exam 3. An antagonist
binds to a receptor but does not elicit a response
Exam 3. A drug given twice a day reaches steady state plasma drug concentrations in 40 hrs. What is the half life of the drug?
Exam 3. A drug has a half life of 12 hrs. If the drug is given twice a day, how long will it take to reach steady state plasma drug concentration?
2 1/2 days
Exam 3. Which of these are requirements to obtain FDA approval to sell a drug in the United States?
The drug is effective for the indicated use in the indicated species.
Exam 3. This organization regulates all drugs sold in the United States for humans or animals.
EXam 2. Which agency licenses veterinary technicians in Texas?
Exam 2. This organization regulates all drugs sold in the United States for humans or animals.
Exam 2. Veterinary clinics should report Adverse Drug Events to
Exam 2. Which of these types of drugs may be dispensed without orders from a licensed veterinarian?
Exam 2. Biologics are regulated by
Exam 2. Which agency set policies for handling hazardous drugs?
Exam 14. Which of these is an adverse effect of furosemide?
Chronic use may lead to hypokalemia and dry, irritate respiratory mucosa
Exam 14. Although furosemide acts on the renal system, it is often used as part of the therapy for
Patients with CHF and pulmonary edema
Exam 14. Spironolactone acts by
Reducing K excretion, Na reabsorption and thus water reabsorption
EXam 14. Spironolactone is typically used in patients with
Pulmonary edema and ascites
Exam 14. Which of these is a potential adverse effect of DES?
Aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia, pyometra
Exam 14. Which of these agents acts as an osmotic diuretic?
Exam 14.Which of these clinical signs is associated with chronic renal failure?
Exam 14.Ammonium chloride is used
as a urinary acidifier
exam 14. Phenylpropanolamine was pulled from market for use in humans due to adverse effects of tachycardia and hypertension. These effects are associated with its activity as
a alpha adrenergic agonist
Exam 14. Bethanecol is
a cholinergic agonist for urine retention
Exam 14. bethanecol- stimulates urinary bladder contraction
Exam 14. albuterol- used as bronchodilator in asthmatic cats
Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
Exam 14. N-butylscopalammonium bromide used to relieve spasmodic colic in horses
Exam 14. dexmedetomidine used as sedative in small animals
Alpha 2 Agonists sympathetic nervous system
Exam 14. propranolol
Class II- beta adrenergic blocker
Exam 14. petrolatum
Exam 14. omeprazole
Gastric ulceration/proton pump inhibitor
Exam 14. potassium iodide is used for?
Expectorants in oral drops
Exam 14. praziquantel
Used to eliminate adult cestodes in GI tract
Exam 14. phenylbutazone
Milbemycin Oxime can kill microfilaria at what dose
Advantage Multi is a
topical HW prev, internal parasite and flea control
Moxidectin is a
What is the primary use of levamisole?
Used to eliminate GI and lung nematodes
What is the mechanism of action for levamisole?
an ACh agonist, causes spastic paralysis in parasite