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Terms in this set (145)
What are the four methods to control bleeding?
Direct pressure, elevation, presure poimts, and tourinquet as a ast resort
What are the three fundamentals of first aid?
Prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life
How many findementals of first aid are there?
What are the 11 principle pressure points?
Temporal, facial, carotid, subclavian, brachial x2, radial, femoral, iliac, popliteal, tibial.
What is a first degree burn?
Redness, warmth, and mild pain
What is a second degree burn?
Red, blistered skin, and sever pain
What is a third degree burn?
Destroyed tissue, skin, and bone, may be lack of pain due to destroyed nerve endings.
What injuries result from electric shock?
Little to no evidence of injury, to sever trauma associated with cardiac arrest.
What are signs of an obstructed airway?
Inability to talk, grasping/pointing at the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and skin turning bluish
What is heat exhaustion?
A serious disturbance of blood foe to the brain, heart, and lungs.
What are signs of heat exhaustion?
Cool, moist, and clammy skin, pupils are displayed. Usually profuse sweating.
What is a heat stroke?
Very serious condition caused by breakdown of the sweating mechanism. Victim cannot eliminate excessive body heat.
What are signs of a heat stroke?
Hot or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, weak, rapid pulse.
What is hypothermia?
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low, or rapidly decreasing temperatures, cold moisture, or snow.
What are signs of hypothermia?
Pale and unconscious, may appear dead, shallow breathing, faint pulse, body tissue seems rigid.
What is superficial frostbite?
When ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after temps of 32 degrees or lower.
What is deep frost bite?
When ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposures to 32 degrees or lower.
What is septic shock caused by?
Bacteria multiplying in the blood stream and releasing toxins. Mostly caused by pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections, and meningitis.
What is anaphylactic shock caused by?
Severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction. Insect bites, medicines, or food.
What is cardiogenic shock?
Heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body, heart attacks or congestive heart failure.
What is hypovolemic shock?
Caused by severe blood and fluid loss, usually from traumatic body injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body.
What is neurogenic shock?
Caused by spinal cord injury.
What is cpr used to do?
What is the cab method for?
Circulation airway breathing
What are the steps to the survival chain?
Activation of cpr, chest compression, defibrillator, rapid defibrillation, effective advanced life support, post cardiac arrest care
What are the steps or orm?
Identify hazard, assess hazard, make a risk decision, implement controls, supervise
What is a class A mishap?
2,000,000 or more reportable material damage, injury or occupational illness resulting in death or total disabiity
What is a class B mishap?
500,000 or more but less than 2,000,000 in reportable material damage, or injury or occupational illness resulting in partial disability, or 3 or more workers are impatient hospitalized.
What is a class C mishap?
50,000 or more, but less than 500,000 in reportable Katie rial damage, non-fatal injury that cause loss of work beyond that shift, non fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work, or disablility at any time. Usually 5 or more days lost beyond the shift it happened on.
Why was PPE established?
As a last line of defense in the event of equipment failure, misuse, or breakdown.
What types of PPE are used?
Cranial, eye protection, hearing protection, impact protection, gloves, and foot protection.
What types of nerve agents are there?
Sarin, tabun, soman, and VX
What does a nerve against do?
Disrupts nerve pulses to the body while damaging body functions.
What does a blister agent do?
Causes inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissue which can cause temporary blindness or death.
What are the types of blister agents?
Lewisite, phosgene oxime, levinstein mustard.
What does a blood agent do?
Attacks the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood.
What are the blood agents?
Hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, and arsine
What is a chocking agent symptom?
Tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache
What does a chocking agent do?
Fills lungs with fluid making it feel like the victim is drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow.
What are the chocking agents?
Phosgene and diphosgene
What is an atropine injection used for?
For self aid or first aid if exposed to a nerve agent.
What is biological wsrfare used for?
To cause disease, sickness, or death, to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combat forces. With pathogens or toxins
What pathogens are used as a biological agent?
Bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, Protozoa, and toxins
What are toxins based on?
The organisms that produce them, and the physiological effects the toxins cause in humans.
What are the major groupings by source of toxins?
Myctotoxins, bacterial toxins, algal toxins, animal venoms, and plant toxins.
What are the primary toxin groups based on physiological affects?
Neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins, and dermatoxins.
What are the IPE's for chemical/biological agents?
MCU-2P with 2 components (C-2 canister filter), advanced chemical protective garments, chemical protective gloves and liners, chemical protective over boots and laces, skin decontamination kit.
What is radiological warfsre?
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
What is high altitude air burst?
Ionosphere disruptions and EMP in excess of 100,000 feet
What is an airburst?
Where the fireball does not reach the surface, the vacuum created collects debris caused by severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout.
Worst fallout due to firebal touching the ground which results in massive radioactive fallout
Shallow water burst?
Small fireball and shallow underwater burst, causes large waves and contaminates water.
Deep underwater burst?
Similar to shallow water burst with less visual effect, causes worse water contamination.
Where is the ready shelter station?
Just inside the weather envelope with access to the deep shelter.
What does the ready shelter do?
Provides minimum sheilding from nuclear radiation and keeps crew close to battle stations
Where are the deep shelters?
deep in the ship near the center line.
What does a deep shelter do?
Provides maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requireing cree to be far removed from battle stations.
What is mopp level 0?
Issue ipe, accessible within 5 minutes
Mopp level 1?
Afloat: JLIST, mask, gloves readily accessible.
Ashore: don protective equipment, M-9 tape
Mopp level 2?
Afloat: mask carried, Decon supplies.
Ashore: don protective overboots
Mopp level 3?
Afloat: GQ, install filters, don over boots.
Ashore: fill canteens, active Devon stations
Mopp level 4?
Afloat: don mask/hood, gloves, circle William, countermeasure wash down.
Ashore: gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure with web belt.
Heat, fuel, oxygen, chemical chain reaction
Class a fire.
Occur in combustible materials that produce ash like wood, cloth, textiles, fiberous materials, and paper products.
What effectively puts out a class A fire?
Water, or afff
Class b fire?
Occurs with flammable liquids such as gas, jet fuel, oil, and other petroleum based products.
What puts out a class b fire?
Afff, halon 1211, pkp, and CO2.
Class C fire?
What puts out class C fires?
Energized: co2 halon, pkp, h20 in fog patterns at 4 feet away minimum.
De-energized: treat as class a,b, or c fires.
Class D fire?
Combustible metals such as magnesium or titanium.
What puts out a class D fire?
H20 in large amounts, in high velocity fog. Apply water from a safe distance, behind a shelter, because an explosion can occur.
What is AFFF
Aqueous film forming foam: consist primarily of fluorocarbon surfactant materials, non- corrosive, unlimited shelf life, three percent and six percent concentrate approved for navy. Ships require 6 percent.
What is halon 1211?
Intended primarily for B and C fires, effective on A fires, colorless, sweet smelling, non conductive gas with no residue left behind. Inhibits the chemical chain reaction.
What weight does portable co2 units come in?
15 and 50 lbs
What are carbon dioxide portable units?
Primarily used on B and C fires, colorless and
Odorless, about one and a half times heavier than air, displaces oxygen levels required to support combustion.
What is PKP?
Potassium bicarbonate: intended for class B fires, extinguished the flame using dry chemicals which breaks the combustion chain, no cooling capabilities, won't result in permanent extinguishing if ignition sources are still present.
How do you ground an A/C?
Grounding strap on the deck, then the
What are danger areas for aviation?
Intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, hazmat, eye, hearing, and other industrial environment dangers.
How many volts can build up in the and be stored in the windshield?
What is used to discharge static from the windshield?
Static charge removal kit.
How many chains required for winds up to 45 knots with initial tie downs?
Up to 45 knots normal weather?
46-60 knots, moderate weather
Above 60 knots, heavy weather
What is identified by "no step"
A/C critical walkways that cannot be walked on.
All A/C hand signals have the same sign for?
For helos: wave off and hold
Why are emergency stop, wave off and hold all standarsized
For safety of A/C, aircrew, and ground personnel
What is the maximum speed for towing?
5 mph or as slow as the slowest walker.
What is the moving directors job?
Assembling the move crew, making sure they have proper quals to perform their duties, pre move brief, safe move of A/C with emphasis on safety
What is the brake riders job?
Conducting a pre movement inspection of brake system and A/C to ensure it is mechanically sound and ready for movement
What is the chick walkers job?
Remove, carry and install the chocks, escort the A/C, must be alert and ready to chock A/C
What is the safety observers job?
Ensuring the A/C is ready to be towed, and that there is ample clearance for the A/C. Positioned at wing tips and tail
What is the tractor drivers job?
Safe and slow movement of the A/C from hook up to final spot, responsible directly to move director.
What combinations are used to select the fpcon's?
Terrorist threat level, risk of terrorist attack which personnel and assets are exposed to, capability of penetrating existing physical security systems, assets ability to execute its mission even if attacks, protected asserts critically to their mission.
How are fpcon levels set?
Commanders at any level set it, subordinate commanders can raise it if the situation warrants it.
What is fpcon normal?
General global threat of possible terrorist activity.
What is fpcon alpha?
Increased general threat of terrorist activity
What is fpcon bravo?
An increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity.
What if fpcon Charlie?
An incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some sort of terrorist action is likely.
What is fpcon delta?
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
Who developed defcon?
Joint chiefs of staff, unified and specific combatant commands.
What is defcon 5?
Normal peacetime readiness.
What is defcon 4?
Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures
What is defcon 3?
Increase in force readiness above normal readiness
What is defcon 2?
Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum
What is defcon 1?
Max force readiness.
What does the mo do?
Head of maintenance dept. manages the dept. and is responsible to the CO for accomplishment of the dept. mission, ensures billet requirement, personnel identification, and assignments are satisfied
What does the AMO do?
Assistant head of maintenance, assists the MO in performance of duties, and keeps Mo informed on matters involving the dept. coordinates tad, inspects spaces, liaison with ops dept. manages se training and licensing, , utilizes ntmps/fltmps for manpower management.
What does the Mmco do?
Overall production and material control support of dept. coordinates and monitors the department workload while maintaining liaison with supporting and activities and supply, preparing and publishing the MMP
What does the mmcpo do?
Senior enlisted advisor for the maintenance department, reports to the mo and advises the co in all matters affecting the A/C ops, A/C maintenance, and department personnel, directs all maintenance in an op unit on a day to day basis in support of its ops and assigned missions.
What does a QAO do?
Ensure personnel assigned to QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment. Ensure QAR's receive cross training for areas not assigned to them.
What does the mco do?
Supply corps officer assigned to a deplorable squadron will be assigned as the mco for the handling of finances, material requisitions and more.
What is rework?
Restorative or additive work.
What is upkeep?
Preventative, restorative, or additive work.
What are the upkeep inspections?
T/A, daily, special. Conditional, phase, acceptance, and transfer.
What is a rework inspection?
Reliability centered maintenance: a process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operation context.
What is the definition of management?
The efficient attainment of objectives.
What is the definition of maintenance?
All actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability.
What are the 2 most critical aspects of naval aviation?
Release of an A/C safe for flight, and acceptance of an A/C
What does the MMP entail?
Scheduled control of predictable maintenance, requirements for se material, manpower, inspections and transfer or receipts of A/C
What does the A/C logbook entail?
Record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment. Also a record of rework, major repairs, flight and op data, a record of maintenance directives affecting the A/C, it's components and accerssories
How is an A/C log book broken into sections?
Non aging record, flight time, inspection records, repair/rework , technical directives, misc history, preservation record, installed explosive devices, inventory, assembly service record, equipment history, src's.
What is the concept of QA?
Prevent the occurrence of defects.
What kind of audits does QA do?
Special, work center, program.
Aircraft confined space program, used to ensure a safe environment when working on cells and tanks.
Naval aviation maintenance discrepancy reporting program.
14 November 1910
First take off from a ship-Eugene ely, by a civilian, in the 50-hp Curtiss plane
8 may 1911
The birthday of naval aviation, 2 Glenn Curtiss biplanes were bought.
20 June 1913
Ensign William billingsley fell from a B-2 at 1,600 feet and died.
22 October 1917
An inspector school was started producing 58 motor and 114 A/C inspectors, which created the modern day QA
20 march 1922
The Jupiter was recommissioned and made into the navy's first carrier (USS Langley)
10 march 1948
FJ-1 fury, the first navy jet, made its first carrier landing on the USS boxer (CV 21)
7-8 may 1942
Coral sea, America and Japan had the first carrier to carrier battle, with Japan's 3 carriers and Americas 2. The Lexington was sunk, and the Yorktown damaged. One Japanese carrier was damaged. It was a strategic setback for Japan.
3-5 June 1942
Midway: the turning point of the pacific war, Japanese had 4 A/C carriers and 11 battleships, America had 3 aircraft carriers and no battle ships ( hornet, enterprise, and York town) the York town was sunk, but all Japanese carriers were sunk.
13-15 November 1942
Guadalcanal: after 3 days of fighting the Japanese retreated and us marines secured Guadalcanal. Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers. The USS Juneau was sank along with the five Sullivan brothers. After that the family separation act was reinstated.
What is hazmat defined as?
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical/chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment.
How often are hazmat stowage locations inspected and what does the inspection consist of?
Weekly and quarterly, inspections consist of tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, labeling, and shelf life.
6 categories of hazmat?
What is the hazmat authorized use list?
A current inventory of Hazmat, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain hazmat.
What hazmat training should all hands get?
Types of hazmat
What hazwaste is and how to dispose of it.
How to read hazard warning labels
What and where the msds is
Based on what is hazmat disposed for?
Category of hazwaste
What are some methods of hazmat disposal
Double plastic bags
Fire safe containers
What hazmat fluids should you keep separate?
Petroleum and synthetic
What PPE is required for hazmat?
What are the steps of spill response?
Initiation of action
Cert for re entry
Follow up report.