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50 terms

MB CH17 quiz

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1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?
a) autoimmunization
b) active immunization by vaccination
c) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
d) immune testing
e) variolation
b) active immunization by vaccination
2) The discovery and use of _____ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.
a) antitoxoids
b) interferons
c) interleukins
d) immunoglobulins
e) chemotaxic substances
d) immunoglobulins
3) Variolation was first used
a) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations
b) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis
c) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages
d) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox
e) for research purposes in the 20th century
d) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox
4) Which of the following statements regarding variolation is false?
a) at the time no one knew how it worked
b) it was risk free
c) it reduced the incidence of smallpox
d) it was administered to children as early as the 12th century
e) it involves grinding smallpox scabs
b) it was risk free
5) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against
a) anthrax and rabies
b) rabies
c) anthrax
d) human cholera
e) influenza
a) anthrax and rabies
6) A vaccine is currently available which of the following microbes?
a) poliovirus
b) the protozoan that causes malaria
c) Ebola virus
d) the bacterium that causes leprosy
e) HIV
a) poliovirus
7) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by
a) treatment with formaldehyde
b) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde
c) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in the tissue culture cells
d) genetic manipulation
e) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells
c) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in the tissue culture cells
8) The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is and example of a(n)_____ vaccine.
a) toxoid
b) combination
c) whole inactivated
d) attenuated
e) subunit
d) attenuated
9) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is false?
a) it can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms
b) it can be produced from antigens fragments of a pathogen
c) it is made from pathogens that cannot replicate
d) it is safer than an attenuated vaccine
e) it is made from mutated forms of the pathogen
e) it is made from mutated forms of the pathogen
10) An adjuvant is a substance that
a) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen
b) is used to decrease the inflammatory reaction to a vaccine
c) is a piece of a microbe that is representative if the entire microorganism
d) delays the action of the vaccine
e) is used to inactivate a microbe in a vaccine
a) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen
11) Killed vaccines work by stimulating
A) the production of antibodies
B) cytotxic T cells
C) the action of Th1 cells
D) the cell-mediated immune response
E) lymphocyte proliferation
A) the production of antibodies
12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?
a) aluminum
b) formaldehyde
c) mineral oil
d) aluminum phosphate
e) saponin
b) formaldehyde
13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?
a) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde
b) inactivated whole pathogen
c) attenuated vaccine
d) toxoid vaccine
e) a vaccine composed of only a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
e) a vaccine composed of only a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE?
a) they provide lifelong immunity
b) they have few antigenic determinants
c) they are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself
d) they are chemically or thermally modified
e) they stimulate antibody medicated immune responses
a) they provide lifelong immunity
15) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?
a) subunit vaccine
b) attenuated vaccine
c) inactivated whole
d) toxoid vaccine
e) combination vaccine
c) inactivated whole
16) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the USA because
a) the site administered remains sore for many days after administration
b) it is very toxic
c) it does not provide good immunity
d) it can revert to the wild-type strain
e) it can cause severe anaphylaxis in some individuals
d) it can revert to the wild-type strain
17) A person who has been exposed to rabies received both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?
a) viral hemagglutination inhibition
b) active immunization
c) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
d) passive immunotherapy
e) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
c) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
18) Passive immunotherapy is used when
a) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated
b) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately
c) the pathogen does not produce a toxin
d) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated
e) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce
b) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately
19) Antivenin is
a) an antiserum produced from hybridomas
b) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites
c) a vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium
d) a vaccine made toward the endtoxin of a virus
e) an antigen produced from a virus
b) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites
20) Hydridomas are produced by
a) combining two bacterial infected cells
b) combining a viral infected celdd with a bacterial infected cell
c) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells
d) repreated culture of a pathogen until it loses it virulence
e) combining two virus-infected cells
c) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells
21) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as
a) cytology
b) hematology
c) serology
d) immunology
e) histology
c) serology
22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of an antigen-antibody complex?
A) blood typing
B) immunodiffusion
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
D) ELISA
E) fluorescent antibody tests
B) immunodiffusion
Which of the following tests is used to verify the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus?
a) an antibody neutralization test
b) the complement fixation test
c) electrophoresis
d) the western blot test
e) the fluorescent antibody test
d) the western blot test
Which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been infected with the H1N1 influenza virus?
a) a viral neutralization test
b) an antibody titer test
c) a western blot
d) an immunodiffusion test
e) a viral hemagglutnation test
e) a viral hemagglutnation test
Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using
a) a direct fluorescent antibody test
b) complement fixation
c) immunoelectrophoresis
d) a viral hemagglutination test
e) a western blot test
a) a direct fluorescent antibody test
The type of ELISA that is an indirect assay
a) detects the presence of a particular antibody
b) is used as a second verification test for HIV
c) involves an antigen "sandwiched" between two anitbodies
d) relies on the presence of complement
e) uses a fluorescent label
a) detects the presence of a particular antibody
Titration is a serological procedure that
a) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen
b) is used for blood grouping
c) inde tifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease
d) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV
e) detemines the amount of an antibody in the blood
e) detemines the amount of an antibody in the blood
Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that
a) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect
b) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label
c) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid
d) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen
e) antibodies have different molecular weights
a) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect
Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the
a) complement fication test
b) hemagglutination test
c) direct fluorescent antibody test
d) indirect fluorescent antibody test
e) ELISA test
d) indirect fluorescent antibody test
Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is true
a) the antibody label is a fluorescent molecule
b) they involve the use of membrane filters
c) they are labor intensive
d) they require large amounts of serum
e) they can be used to detect antibody or antigen
e) they can be used to detect antibody or antigen
Which of the following is the technique used for detecting antibodies against multiple antigens in a complex mixture?
a) the western blot test
b) hemagglutination inhibition test
c) the direct fluorescent antibody test
d) the ELISA
e) the Ouchterlony test
a) the western blot test
Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion testing to
a) diagnose infections by specific strains of viruses
b) diagnose tuberculosis because the diameter of the wheel corresponds to the severity of the infection
c) inactive an endogenous bacterial toxin
d) measure the concentration od specifc antibodies in a person's serum
e) diagnose HIV
d) measure the concentration od specifc antibodies in a person's serum
In precipitation tests, maximun precipitation takes place when
a) a complex solution of many antibodies is used
b) the amount of the anitbody exceeds the amount of the antigen
c) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody
d) a toxin is present
e) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions
e) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions
A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hgc hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormose produce two lines on the test strip what specific type of immunoassay does this represent?
a) an ELISA
b) a neutralization assay
c) a complemnt fixation test
d) an Ouchterlony test
e) an immunochromatographic assay
e) an immunochromatographic assay
The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBC's and antibodies against the RBC's are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be
a) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube
b) a cloudy solution in the tube
c) loss of color in the tube
d) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs
e) a fluorescent precipitate
b) a cloudy solution in the tube
The vaccine to prevent tetnus is a(n)________vaccine.
a) subunit
b) toxoid
c) inactivated whole
d) recombinant
e) attenuated
b) toxoid
Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented using a(n) ________ vaccine.
a) attenuated
b) toxoid
c) recombinant
d) inactivated whole
e) subunit
e) subunit
A(n) _____ vaccine is used in some parts of the world to reduce the spread of tuberculosis.
a) recombinant
b) inactivated whole
c) subunit
d) toxoid
e) attenuated
e) attenuated
Louis Pasteur developed a(n) ________ vaccine to prevent anthrax.
a) inactivated whole
b) subunit
c) toxoid
d) recombinant
e) attenuated
a) inactivated whole
A(n) _______ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.
a) toxoid
b) inactivated whole
c) attenuated
d) recombinant
e) subunit
d) recombinant
Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) ______assay.
a) western blot
b) immunodiffusion precipitation
c) viral neutralization
d) viral hemagglutination inhibition
e) direct fluorescent antibody
a) western blot
Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis can be diagnosed using a(n)______assay.
a) viral hemagglutination inhibition
b) immunodiffusion precipitation
c) viral neutralization
d) western blot
e) direct fluorescent antibody
b) immunodiffusion precipitation
A(n) ______assay is effective in verifying influenza infections.
a) viral hemagglutination inhibition
b) immunodiffusion precipitation
c) direct fluorescent antibody
d) viral neutralization
e) western blot
a) viral hemagglutination inhibition
Rabies virus can be detected using a(n)_____assay.
a) direct fluorescent antibody
b) immunodiffusion precipitation
c) viral hemagglutination inhibition
d) viral neutralization
e) western blot
a) direct fluorescent antibody
A(n)______assay is used to detect hantavirus.
a) western blot
b) viral hemagglutination inhibition
c) viral neutralization
d) direct fluorescent antibody
e) immunodiffusion precipitation
c) viral neutralization
Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.
True
For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.
True
In the body, phagocytic cells easily remove small immune complexes.
False
Complement fixation is a more sensitive test than agglutination.
True
The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.
False