Nuclear medicine exam review
Terms in this set (450)
Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult: A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr D)24hr
C)2-3hr. Static bone imaging performed with a labeled diphosphonate compound is routinely performed 2-3hr after tracer administration.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults: A)anterior iliac crests B)glenoid fossa C)sternoclavicular joints D)all of the above
D)all the above. On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased tracer activity include all those listed as well as the sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral column.
Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area: A)attenuation B)tracer infiltration C)acute myocardial infarction D)osteomyelitis
A)attenuation. A photopenic area is one in which a smaller number of photons is visualized-a cold spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an attenuation artifact, an area of falsely decreased tracer concentration(jewelry, belt buckles, pacemaker)
It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected PE because: A)# of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary arterioles B)particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum
A)# of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles. Less than 1% of the precapillary arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore, there is no adverse effect on the patient.
A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals: A)81mKr gas B)133Xe gas C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-MAA
C)99mTc-pentetate. A nebulizer is a device that uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne (aerosol) particles from a liquid.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities: A)99mTc-MAA B)99mTc-arcitumomab C)131I-iobenguane D)111In-oxyquinoline
A)99mTc-MAA is used to image acute deep-vein thrombosis in the lower extremities.
In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site: A)antecubital of either arm B)either femoral vein C)dorsal veins on top of each foot D)either basilic vein
C)dorsal vein on to of each foot. The tracer is introduced into the deep venous system of the legs. Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of each foot.
After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration in which areas: A)liver, lungs, bones B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder C)liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs D)bladder, liver, brain
B) The salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric mucosa and secretions into the intestine, and the urinary bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine. Concentrations in other sites indicate areas of functioning thyroid metastases.
A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radioparmaceuticals: A)123I-sodium iodide B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 99mTc-sestamibi
When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera toward the patient's feet separates what two structures: A)left ventricle and aorta B)left ventricle and left atrium C)left and right atria
B)left ventricle and left atrium. The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta and pulmonary artery. Tilting the detector caudally visually brings the left atrium out from under these structures and separates it from the left ventricle.
Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system: A)99mTc-sestamibi B)99mTc-exametazime C)99mTc-medronate D)201Tl-thallous chloride
A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body: A)3 B)6 C)10 D)12
C)10. A cardiac stress test requires a 12-lead ECG tracing, which uses 10 electrodes attached to the patient. 2 arm, 2 leg, and 6 chest leads.
Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a 99mTc-sulfer colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of: A)improper colloid particle size B)insufficient tracer circulation time C)liver dysfunction D)overactive bone marrow
C)liver dysfunction. Bone marrow uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe liver dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present.
During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present: A)common hepatic duct B)common bile duct C)gallbladder D)small intestine
C)gallbladder. If cystic duct obstruction is present, the tracer will be unable to enter the gallbladder. The cystic duct is the passage between the common bile duct and the gallbladder.
How long after the administration of 99mTc-pertechnetate does imaging begin for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1hr D)2-3hr
A)immediately. For localization of a Meckel's diverticulum, imaging begins immediately after administration of the tracer.
All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt exam using the first-pass method except: A)sulfur colloid B)pentetate C)sestamibi D)tetrofosmin
A)sulfur colloid. First-pass cardiac studies to identify or quantify left-to-right shunts are performed with radiopharmaceuticals that can be administered in small volumes of 20-25mCi.
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-pentetate B)99mTc-succimer C)99mTc-gluceptate D)99mTc-meritiatide
A)99mTc-pentetate. Determination of GFR requires an agent that is completely filtered by the glomeruli. 99mTc-pentetate (DTPA) is handled only by glomerular filtration.
Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-pentetate or medronate B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid C)99mTc-gluceptate or sulfur colloid D)99mTc-pertechnetate or mertiatide
B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid. Direct radionuclide cystography is performed by instilling 99mTc-pentetate, or sulfur colloid, into the urinary bladder. Imaging is performed as the bladder is filling and emptying.
Filtered 99mTc-sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations: A)gastroesophageal reflux B)gastric emptying C)LeVeen shunt patency D)lymphoscintigraphy
D)lymphoscintigraphy. Although all procedures listed may be performed with 99mTc-sulfur colloid, only lymphoscintigraphy requires that sulfur colloid be filtered to remove the larger particles.
A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the NM dept for an imaging procedure. The technologist should: A)confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required B)cancel study C)use the tube to administer tracer
A) Nasogastric tubes are used for gastric decompression. A physician must order the transfer and interruption of suction. The tech may be required to reestablish suction upon the patient's arrival in the department.
The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study: A)anterior cerebral arteries B)carotid arteries C)nasopharynx D)superior sagittal sinus
D)superior sagittal sinus. In a normal cerebral flow study, the first phase is the arterial phase, indicated by activity in the carotid and anterior cerebral arteries. The capillary phase is followed by the venous phase.
In performing cisternograpy, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain: A)the site of tracer administration B)the flow rate of the cerebral spinal fluid C)that the tracer was not infiltrated
C)that the tracer was not infiltrated. The injection site should be imaged first to confirm that the tracer has not infiltrated outside the subarachnoid space. Reinjections may be required if infiltration is confirmed.
On Wednesday a patient had a 125I thyroid study performed; a 125I plasma volume is ordered to be performed on Thursday. Should a baseline plasma sample be collected before performing the plasma volume? True or False
True. A blood sample collected before the 125I-albumin is injected can provide the background present in the patient's plasma. This will permit counts from the plasma sample containing 125I to be corrected for any residual 123I.
89Sr-chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions: A)bone pain B)polycythemia vera C)rheumatoid arthritis D)malignant effusions
A)bone pain. 89Sr-chloride is used to relieve bone pain resulting from skeletal metastases.
Whole-body imaging with 131I-sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer administration: A)12hr B)18-24hr C)48-72hr D)96hr or longer
D) >96 Hr. Although 131I whole-body imaging may be performed as early as 24hr, optimum images are obtained at 5-7 days up to 11 days after tracer administration.
During an imaging procedure a patient indicates a seizure is impending. The most appropriate action is: A)tell the patient to breathe deep to increase oxygen levels B)stop the procedure, have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the head
B)stop the procedure. Seizure patients may experience a warning that a seizure is about to occur. The tech should assist the patient to the floor and away from objects that may injure the patient. A pillow will cushion the head from the floor.
After administration of 111In-pentetreotide, which areas of the body should be imaged: A)anterior and posterior chest B)anterior and posterior abdomen C)anterior and posterior whole body
C)anterior and posterior whole body. Because the purpose of 111In-penetreotide imaging is to visualize the unknown primary site of the cancer or to demonstrate the extent of the disease, anterior and posterior whole-body images should be performed.
Which of the following is the initial positioning for visualizing gastrointestinal bleeding with labeled RBC's: A)xiphoid in middle of FOV B)symphysis pubis in middle of FOV C)lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV
C)lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV. RBC's labeled with 99mTc-pertechnetate are used for demonstrating intermittent lower GI bleeding.
Which of the tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and rest cardiac function exam is to be performed on a patient: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)99mTc-medronate C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-sestamibi
Patient preparation for breast imaging with 99mTc-sestamibi includes which of the following: A)explanation of the procedure B)fasting for 8hr before tracer administration C)discontinuation of any medications D)consumption of a fatty meal
A) There is no patient preparation for breast imaging with 99mTc-sestamibi except explanation of the procedure to the patient.
Historically, a Schilling test may be ordered for a patient with suspected: A)hemolytic anemia B)pernicious anemia C)iron deficiency anemia D)lymphocytic anemia
B)pernicious anemia. The Schilling test is used to measure the absorption of vitamin B-12 in patients with unexplained anemia. Pernicious anemia is a vitamin B-12 deficiency resulting from a lack of intrinsic factor.
The proper route of administration for a lymphoscintigrapy exam is: A)an intravenous injection B)orally C)an intrathecal injection D)a subcutaneous injection
D)a subcutaneous injection. Subcutaneous injections are needed for a lymphoscintigraphy to determine the sential node.
A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by: A)multiplying the patient's hematocrit by 0.9 B)subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1 C)finding the ratio of plasma volume to RBC volume D)dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit
B)subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1. The hematocrit represents the portion of the blood made up of cellular components, and the plasmacrit represents the fluid portion. Together they comprise the total blood volume.
During a red cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs except: A)liver B)spleen C)heart D)kidneys
D)kidneys. Sequestration sites for RBC's include the liver and spleen. Cardiac counts are used as a standard. Renal areas are not counted.
In performing a plasma volume with 125I-albumn, 3 blood samples are collected a varying times after tracer administration and counted. These counts vs time are plotted on semilog graph paper. The purpose of this graph is to?
Correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical. There is leakage of the labeled albumin from the vascular system. The 3 blood samples provide the information needed to estimate the leakage rate and determine the plasma counts before any leakage occurred.
Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medication. Which of the following are antithyroid drugs: A)synthroid B)potassium perchlorate C)propylthiouracil D)thyroxine
C) Propylthiouracil (PTU) interferes with the organification of iodide by the thyroid gland and is on of the antithyroid drugs available to decrease thyroid hormone production.
During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?
Heparin. Injection of about 0.5mL of heparin is sufficient to maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing used during a red cell mass determination.
A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-medronate B)99mTc-disida C)99mTc-sulfur colloid D)99mTc-MAA
C)99mTc-sulfur colloid. Gastric-emptying studies involve combining 99mTc-sulfur colloid with eggs. (oatmeal)
In the case of insulinoma, which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may cause hypoglycemia: A)111In-pentetreotide B)99mTc-sestamibi C)67Ga-citrate D)18F-FDG
A)111In-pentetreiotide - binds to somatostatin receptors in certain tumors. In the case of suspected insulinoma, there is a potential for inducing severe hypoglycemia. For this reason, an intravenous infusion of glucose should be available.
Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with 18F-FDG: A)thyroid B)brain C)pituitary gland D)pancreas
B)brain. Structures normally visualized on an image performed with 18F-FDG include the brain, myocardium, liver, spleen, intestines, kidneys, and urine.
The 14C urea breath test is used to: A)detect the presence of peptic ulcers B)detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria C)identify gastric cancers D)rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B) The 14C urea breath test is used to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria. All patients with duodenal ulcers and 80% of patients with non-drug induced gastric ulcers are infected with H. pylori.
What is the patient's thyroid uptake @ 1500 if a 123I-sodium iodide capsule is administered to the patient and used as the standard: Capsule-216,789cpm @ 0900; Bkgd-92cpm @ 0900; Thyroid-94,954cpm @ 1500; Thigh-521cpm @ 1500; DF=0.73
60%. 216,789 x DF (0.73) = 158,256cpm standard @ 1500 % thyroid uptake = thyroid cpm - thigh cpm / standard cpm - bkg cpm x 100
If the elution efficiency of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is 96% and 11.7 MBq 99mTc is present on the column, approximately how much activity will be removed during elution?
A dry-column generator is eluted with 5mL of saline, and the eluate containing 863mCi is collected into a 10mL evacuated vial. What is the concentration of the eluate?
If no eluate is obtained during generator elution, the technologist should next: A)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial B)contact the generator manufacturer C)check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks D)add more saline to generator
A)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial. Loss of vacuum from the elution vial is most likely the cause of this problem. Checking the tubing may cause increased radiation exposure.
According to the NRC, records of 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate must be maintained for how long: A)1year B)3 years C)5 years D)10 years
B)3 years. The NRC requires that records of 99Mo concentrations in 99mTc eluates be retained for 3 years.
According to the NRC, the concentration of what radionuclidic impurity must be determined after the first elution of a 99Mo/99mTc generator: A)Al B)free pertechnetate C)99Mo D)a and c
C)99Mo. Al is a chemical impurity and not subject to regulation by the NRC. Free pertechnetate is 99mTc-pertechnetate that is not bound to another compound. 99Mo is a radionuclidic impurity, a radionuclide other than the desired one in 99mTc eluate.
Based on the day's clinic schedule - Patient A:Renal function study; Patient B:Total-body bone image; Patient C:Meckel's diverticulum localization; Patient D:Hepatobiliary study - the tech should order or prepare what radiopharmaceuticals?
Patient A: 99mTc-mertiatide for renal Patient B: 99mTc-medronate for bone Patient C: 99mTc-pertechnetate for Meckel's Patient D: 99mTc-mebrofenin for hepatobiliary
According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long: A)3 years B)5 years C)10 years D)indefinitely
A) The NRC requires that records of written directives be maintained for 3 years.
According to the NRC, dose calibrator quality control testing should be performed how often for Constancy Linearity Accuracy Geometry
Constancy - daily before clinical use Linearity - installation and quarterly Accuracy - Annually Geometry - installation, service, or relocation
Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here: Patient A - Thyroid uptake and image Patient B - Therapy for hyperthyroidism Patient C - Cisternogram. The tech should prepare or order what radio-parmaceuticals?
131I-sodium iodide is the agent used for treatment of hyperthyroidism. 123I-sodium iodide is the agent of choice for thyroid uptake and may be used for imaging as well. 111In-pentetate is administered for cisternography.
If an MAA kit must be reconstituded with 3.5mL of 99mTc-pertechnetate, what are the consequences if only 2.0mL are added to the kit?
Patients will receive more MAA particles per milliliter of 99mTc-MAA. The volume added to an MAA kit governs the number of particles in each milliliter of radiopharmaceutical and, therefore, the number of particles the patient will receive.
Reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate is administered to the patient in which RBC labeling method: A)in vitro method B)in vivo method C)modified in vivo method D)both in vivo and modified in vivo method
D)in both the in vivo and modified in vivo techniques, reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate, containing stannous ions that permit 99mTc-pertechnetate to permeate red cell membranes, is administered intravenously to the patient.
Which of the following radiopharmaceutical kit formulations is light sensitive: A)sestambi B)oxidronate C)mertiatide D)exametazime
C)mertiatide. The contents in the mertiatide reaction vial are light sensitive and must be protected from light.
When performing radiochromatography on a radiopharmaceutical sample, the solvent front is located 8.5cm from the origin and the radio-chemical impurity is at the origin. What is the R(f) value of the radio-chemical impurity: A)0 B)0.85 C)1.0 D)8.5
A)0. The R(f) value is the distance traveled by a given radio-chemical component compared with the solvent front.
According to the USP, to be administered to patients, most 99mTc-lableed radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least what percentage: A)98% B)95% C)90% D)88%
C)90%. According to the USP, most 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least 90%.
A technologist must administer 8mCi 99mTc-mebrofenin to a patient at 1100. On the basis of the vial label information given what volume should be given. Calibration: 0700 Total act: 100mCi Total vol: 8.5mL Concentration: 11.8mCi/mL Expiration: 1500
A technologist must administer 37MBq 201Tl- thallous chloride at 1000 on Feb 16. What volume should be administered to the patient based on the following information: Calibration: Feb 14 @ 1200 Total act: 222MBq Total vol: 4mL Concentration: 55.5MBq/mL
A technologist needs 4mCi 201Tl thallous chloride at 0800 on June 29. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on June 29 given the following information: Total act: 10.0 Total vol: 5.5mL Assay: 1200, July 1.
Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label RBC's with 99mTc: A)albumin B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)pyrophosphate
C)pertechnetate. Three methods of labeling RBC's with 99mTc all use pertechnetate. Pertechnetate enters the RBC and binds to hemoglobin.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells with 99mTc: A)bicisate B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)sestamibi
B)exametazime. Pertechnetate is used to label RBC. Bicisate is used to demonstrate regional brain perfusion. Sestamibi is used for myocardial imaging as well as other applications.
When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)0.9% sodium chloride C)methylene blue stabilizer D)ACD solution
C)methylene blue stabilizer. When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, methylene blue stabilized is omitted from its preparation.
4mCi of 201Tl-thallous chloride is the prescribed unit dosage. According to the NRC, which of the following measurements verifies that a dosage within acceptable limits has been dispensed into the syringe: A)3.5mCi B)4.0mCi C)4.3mCi D)4.5mCi
All the measurements are within acceptable limits. The NRC states that the administered dosage must fall within the prescribed dosage range or may not differ from the prescribed dosage by more than 20%.
In labeling RBC's with radiochromium, the order of components to be added to the vial containing ACD solution is: A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid B)Radiochromium, patient blood, ascorbic acid C)radiochromium, ascorbic acid, patient blood
A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid. Radiochromium should not be added to the ACD solution before the patient's blood because ACD may change the valence of the radiochromium before labeling can take place. Ascorbic acid is added at the end.
If a unit dosage of 99mTc-MAA contains 148MBq and 325,000 particles in 0.75mL at 1000, approximately how many particles will be contained in 148MBq at 1600?
If a unit dosage of radioactivity contains 4.5mCi in 1.2mL, how many mL must be removed so that 3.5mCi remain in the syringe: A)0.93mL B)0.78mL C)0.42mL D)0.27mL
If a radiopharmaceutical kit must be reconstituded with 30mCi contained in 5mL and the eluate has an activity of 350mCi in 7mL, how many mL of preservative-free saline must be added: A)0.1mL B)0.6mL C)4.4mL D)4.9mL
What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 min, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g?
According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs: A)no posting is required B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials" C)"Caution: Radiation Area D)"Caution: High Radiation Area
B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials".
Which of the following exposure rates indicate that a package containing radioactive material must be labeled with a category 111 DOT label: A)56mR/hr @ 1m B)22mR/hr @ 1m C)1.5mR/hr @ 1m D)0.5mR/hr @ 1m
A)56mR/hr @ 1m. Category 1 (white) <0.5mR/hr Category 11 (yellow) <50mR/hr Category 111 (yellow) <200mR/hr
If a point source produces an exposure rate of 30mR/hr @ 15cm, what is the exposure rate at 40cm from the source: A)0.2mR/hr B)4.2mR/hr C)11.2mR/hr D)22mR/hr
B)4.2mR/hr. Use the inverse square law
If the half-value layer (HVL) for 131I in lead is 0.3cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of a 131I source from 12mR/hr to less than 2mR/hr: A)0.3cm B)0.6cm C)0.9cm D)1.2cm
C)0.9cm. Each half-value layer (HVL) will decrease the activity to one-half of the previous activity.
A patient receives a unit dosage of 89Sr-chloride intended for another patient. According to the NRC, does this situation describe a medical event requiring notification to the NRC, or a medical event that needs to be reported only the the NM supervisor.
The situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC.
According to the NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is: A)500mSv B)150mSv C)50mSv D)5mSv
B)150mSv. According to the NRC, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is 15rem or 150mSv.
A vial of 133Xe has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next?
According to the NRC regulations, decay in storage of radioactive materials requires that the materials remain in storage until the radioactivity is indistinguishable from background radiation using a survey meter on the most sensitive scale.
According to the NRC, wipe test of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed: A)on a reasonable schedule B)every day on which radiopharmaceuticals are used C)weekly D)only if contamination occurs
A)on a reasonable schedule. As of October 2002, the NRC no longer requires daily surveys and weekly wipe tests. Instead, it allows facilities to establish a survey and wipe test schedule.
What is the measured exposure rate of a GM meter if the dial is set to x0.1 and the meter is showing 1.7mR/hr?
When opening packages containing radioactive material, which of the steps should be performed first: A)visually inspect the package for damage B)put on disposable gloves C)verify the package contents to the packing slip D)wipe test the package
Bad question! Visually inspect is usually the answer. B)put on disposable gloves. Because it has not been determined that the package is free of contamination, gloves should be put on before he package or its contents are handled.
During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until: A)no more contamination can be removed B)the exposure rate cannot be distinguished from background C)no one would receive the maximum allowable TEDE if in area
A)no more contamination can be removed. If residual radioactivity is present after thorough decontamination, the area should be covered as a reminder for personnel to limit their time in that area.
Personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are: A)exposed to radiation at any time during work hours B)exposed to radiation above background levels C)likely to exceed 10% of the annual max allowable occupational exposure
C)likely to exceed 10% of annual max allowable occupational exposure. The NRC requires monitoring of occupationally exposed individuals if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual allowable limit for external exposure or internal uptake.
A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose, from being exposed to the patient, exceeding how many rems: A)0.1 B)0.2 C)0.5 D)5.0
If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05mR/hr: A)4 half-lives B)5 half-lives C)6 half-lives D)7 half-lives
C)6 half-lives. For each half-life that passes, the activity decreased to half of the previous activity.
According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years: A)1 B)3 C)5 D)as long as the facility's license is in effect
B)3 years. According to the NRC, the results of all surveys must be retained for 3 years.
Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides: A)lead B)plastic-lined lead C)tungsten D)steel
C)tungsten. Tungsten is recommended because it will absorb more radiation than the same thickness of lead.
If a NMT needs a diagnostic X-ray, how should this exposure be included in the occupational exposure record: A)the NMT should wear their dosimeter during the X-ray B)RSO will supply a separate dosimeter C)X-ray is not included in the occupational record
C) Only radiation exposure directly related to the practice of nuclear medicine as an occupation is recorded in the individual's dosimetry record. Personal diagnostic and therapeutic exposures are not included.
If the results of a dose calibrator linearity test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15%, the technologist should: A)replace the instrument B)have the instrument repaired C)use a correction factor to determine true activities
C)use a correction factor to determine true activities. The NRC requires dose calibrators be tested for proper function according to nationally recognized standards. The standard of practice dictates that the measured activity should be within 10%.
A NMT measures a 57Co standard in a dose calibrator on these settings: 57Co, 99mTc, 123I, 133Xe, and 201Tl, and then calculates the % difference between the calculated and measured activities. The NMT is assessing: A)accuracy B)constancy C)linearity
B)constancy. Using a long-lived source, a reading is obtained for each of the commonly used preset buttons on the dose calibrator. Although this does not provide an accurate reading, it shows whether the instrument is performing with precision.
A 137Cs reference standard is counted daily with a scintillation spectrometer, using the same gain, window, and high voltage setting. If the net counts per minute changes dramatically from one day to the next, what should the NMT do?
Recalibrate the operating voltage. Voltage may drift slightly from one day to the next, causing the gamma ray spectrum to shift to the right or left, out of the preset window.
According to the standards of practice, how often should dose calibrator linearity testing be performed: A)annually B)quarterly C)monthly D)daily
B)quarterly. Dose calibrator linearity should be performed quarterly.
To repair non-uniformity on an intrinsic uniformity image the service engineer will need to: A)replace the crystal B)replace a photomultiplier tube C)repair the collimator
B)replace a photomultiplier tube. On an intrinsic flood, a collimator is not used. Damage to a crystal would appear irregular.
Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy: A)99mTc B)137Cs C)125I D)131I
B)137Cs. The reference source used for monitoring dose calibrator constancy must be long-lived to permit comparison of measured and predicted activities over an extended period.
Which statement about the effect of the filter-cutoff frequency is TRUE: A)the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image B)the lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image
I'm not sure about this one.... Sharper the image, sharper borders tends to be noisier. Low pass filters tend to be be smoothing B) The cutoff frequency of a filter determines which frequencies are passed unchanged and which are altered or suppressed. Lowering the cutoff frequency eliminates more of the high-frequency signal that gives the image its sharp detail.
Temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition parameters: A)% energy window B)matrix size C)framing rate D)collimator
C)framing rate. Temporal resolution is the ability to demonstrate changes in radiopharmaceutical distribution over time. Therefore, this is a factor in dynamic and multiple-gated acquisitions, both of which acquire data in sequential frames.
Temporal smoothing could be appropriately applied in which of the following studies: A)whole-body bone B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function C)SPECT of liver D)thyroid
B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function study. Temporal smoothing is used in dynamic studies to produce a gradual variation in counts and smoother motion from one frame to the next. It is not useful in static imaging.
If an image is acquired into a 128 x 128 matrix on a scintillation camera with a 350-mm-diameter field of view, what are the dimensions of each pixel?
2.73 x 2.73mm. Pixel size is determined by the matrix dimensions and the size of the field of view. Pixel size(mm) = diameter of FOV(mm)/number of pixels.
Which of the following instruments should be used to determine whether all removable contamination has been eliminated: A)GM counter B)cutie pie C)well counter D)uptake probe
C)well counter. When GM counter readings no longer decrease as the cleanup progresses, a wipe test, which is measured in a well counter, is performed.
Which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet: A)64x64 byte B)64x64 word C)256x256 byte D)256x256 word
A)64x64 byte. A blood-flow study of the feet would be acquired at a framing rate of 2-4 sec/frame, so few counts would be obtained in each frame. Therefore, a small matrix must be used:64x64.
A daily uniformity flood for a scintillation camera should contain a minimum of how many counts: A)1-2 million B)3-5 million C)6-10 million D)20-30 million
Reality 5-15 million counts. B)3-5 million. For a small-FOV-camera, 3 million counts should be acquired; for a large-FOV-camera, 5 million counts should be obtained.
As a pinhole collimator is moved farther away from the thyroid, how will it affect the image: A)the gland will appear larger B)the gland will appear smaller C)no change in size
B)the gland will appear smaller. As a pinhole collimator is moved from a source, the image of the source becomes smaller. As it is moved closer, the image becomes larger.
During geometric variation testing of a dose calibrator, activity in a 1mL syringe measures 253uCi when the expected reading is 212uCi. Which of the correction factors should be applied to the reading: A)0.84 B)1.19 C)4.1 D)23.3
A)0.84. When the geometric variation varies from the expected by more than 10%, a correction factor must be calculated and applied. Correction factor = expected activity/actual activity.
Before tracer administration, all the following preparations are required for a 27 year old woman referred for total-body bone imaging except: A)explain the procedure B)answer patient's questions C)rule out pregnancy D)remove attenuating materials
D)remove attenuating materials. This must be done before imaging.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of children? A)diaphyses of the long bones B)breast tissue C)costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates D)lumbar spine and cranium
C)costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates.
If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the: A)patient was imaged too soon B)radiopharmaceutical contained excess free 99m-Tc
B)radiopharmaceutical contained excess free 99mTc. Typically about 3-10% of the pertechnetate does not bind to the medronate or oxidronate, so there is always some unbound or "free" pertecnetate in any bone tracer preparation.
For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest X ray is required to: A)determine cardiac size B)rule out a pulmonary embolus C)rule out previous lung surgery D)rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms
D)rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms. Many of the symptoms of pulmonary emboli are similar to those of rib fracture, myocardial infarction, and pneumonia.
Blood that is withdrawn into the syringe and allowed to mix with the 99mTc-MAA for a prolonged period may cause the MAA particles to clump together and the blood to clot. This will produce a bad image. True or False?
True If the mixture is injected into the patient, the clumped particles and "labeled" blood clots are trapped in the lung vasculature and appear as multiple small hot spots on the image.
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb: A)bacteria B)carbon dioxide C)moisture D)xenon gas
D)xenon gas The NRC sets limits on the airborne concentration of 133Xe. For this reason, 133Xe that the patient exhales must be trapped for decay.
Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-pentetate B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)exametazime D)99mTc-MAA
D)99mTc-MAA The deep venous system of the lower extremeties may be imaged with 99mTc-MAA or 99mTc-labeled RBCs. If 99mTc-MAA is used, the lungs may be imaged after the venogram to rule out pulmonary embolism.
If ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas: A)brain B)base of tongue C)mediastinum D)base of tongue or in mediastinum
D)at the base of the tongue or in the mediastinum. Sublingual thyroid tissue occurs when the tissue does not descend from the base of the tongue to the neck during fetal development. It is often associated with hypothyroidism.
During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to: A)correct the image series for patient motion B)visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue C)visualize substernal thyroid tissue D)diagnose hyperparathyroidism
B)visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue. The upper mediastinum between the heart and the thyroid is imaged to visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue.
When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right and left ventricles: A)left lateral B)left posterior oblique C)left anterior oblique D)anterior
C)left anterior oblique. The left anterior oblique view is the projection from which the ejection fraction (EF) is calculated. It is extremely important to separate the two ventricles to obtain an accurate EF value. Typically, 35-45 degrees.
In preparation for a 201Tl stress test, patients are instructed to fast to : A)prevent gastrointestinal upsets during exercise B)minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract C)enhance myocardial tracer uptake D)standardize test conditions
B)minimize tracer uptake in GI tract. Digestion directs more of the cardiac output toward the gut. Excessive tracer in the upper abdominal vicera interferes with visualization of the myocardial wall, especially when the patient is supine.
Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time: A)dobutamine B)adenosine C)dipyridamole D)nitroglycerin
C)dipyridamole. Adenosine <10 sec. Dobutamine 2 min. Regadenosin 1-3 min. Dipyridamole 15-30 min. Nitroglycerine is not used to induce pharmacoloical stress.
SPECT liver imaging with 99mTc-sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration: A)immediately B)10-15 min C)30-45 min D)1-2 hours
B)10-15 min. A 10-15 min time interval is necessary for the colloidal particles to be completely localized within the liver and spleen.
Significantly increased serum biliruben levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images: A)colon B)kidneys C)lungs D)spleen
B)kidneys. Increased serum bilirubin levels indicate poorly functioning hepatocytes. Therefore, these cells cannot efficiently remove the tracer from the blood, causing the tracer to be excreted through the urinary system.
Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)67Ga-citrate B)99mTc-pentetate C)99mTc-pertechnetate D)99mTc-sulfur colloid
C)99mTc-pertechnetate is used to visualize a Meckel's diverticulum. Often the Meckel's diverticulum is lined with gastric mucosa that concentrates this tracer.
In infants, 24hr images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux: A)lung fields B)lower esophagus C)stomach D)upper small intestine
A)lung fields. 24-hr images are useful in infants for demonstrating aspiration of stomach contents.
Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-pentetate B)99mTc-disofenin C)99mTc-medronate D)99mTc-mertiatide
MAG3 D)99mTc-mertiatide. ERPF is primarily a measurement of tubular function; therefore, a renal agent that is secreted by the tubules must be used. 99mTc-mertiatide is secreted by the renal tubules and is used to determine ERPF.
Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is best accomplished by which of the following techniques: A)visual inspection B)calculating the cardiac transit time C)generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava D)imaging the injection site.
C)generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava. Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is accomplished by generating a time-activity curve over the superior vena cava and measuring the full width at half max (FWHM).
Which of the following is/are NOT normally visualized on a 67Ga image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration: A)kidneys B)lacrimal glands C)sternum D)liver
A)kidneys. In the first 24 hr after administration, the kidneys excrete almost one-third of the 67Ga injected. Hence, renal activity is normally visualized on images up to 48 hr after tracer administration. After 48 hr, renal activity indicates disease.
Which of the following statements about "transmission-based precautions" is FALSE: A)applied when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease B)implemented in the case of diseases such as mumps C)replace "standard precautions"
C) Transmission-based precautions are applied along with standard precautions when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease. They are a second level of precautions that include additional safety measures.
Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is TRUE: A)is labeled with 99mTc B)is a labeled antibody C)exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect D)excreted exclusively through the kidneys
C)it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA)effect. Pentetreotide is an analog of the hormone somatostatin that is labeled with 111In. It is a peptide rather than an antibody and for this reason does not induce the HAMA effect in patients.
The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to: A)tranquilize the patient B)evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia C)localize the area of the brain from which seizures arise D)localize brain tumors
B)evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia. Acetazolamide (Diamox(r)) is used in conjunction with SPECT brain imaging in patients with transient ischemic attacks, carotid artery disease, and cerebrovascular disease, among others.
The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include: A)lumbar puncture B)obtaining consent C)monitoring the patient D)ensuring personnel and surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
D) One of the responsibilities of the technologist is to protect personnel in the work environment by limiting their radiation exposure and confining radioactivity to prevent the spread of contamination.
Sodium phosphate (32P) may be used to treat which of the following conditions: A)liver metastases B)polycythemia vera C)rheumatoid arthritis D)malignant effusions
B)polycythemia vera. Sodium phosphate (32P) is administered intravenously and may be used to treat polycythemia vera.
Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administered to the patient for therapy with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)153Sm-exidronam B)89Sr-chloride C)131I-sodium iodide D)131I-tositumomab
D) To minimize thyroid uptake of unbound iodine, supersaturated potassium iodide is administered to a patient receiving 131I-tositumomab for treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The blocking agent is given 1 day before and for the next 14 days.
The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to: A)perform chest compressions B)establish an airway C)call for help D)perform rescue breathing
C)call for help. American Heart Association standards and guidelines indicate that after verification of cardiac arrest has occurred, the rescuer should call for help first and then initiate CPR.
111In-Pentetreotide should NOT be administered through an IV line containing: A)a total parenteral nutrition mixture B)0.9% sodium chloride C)dextrose and water D)glucose
A)TPN mix. 111In-pentetreotide shouldn't be given through IV line containing TPN mixes because the tracer may form a complex with components of the TPN mixture. Because the chemical form of the tracer is now altered, its distribution in body will change.
Dual-isotope gastric emptying studies use which radio-pharmaceutical for the solid phase of the study and which radio-pharmaceutical for the liquid phase of the study?
Solid phase - 99mTc-sulfur colloid Liquid phase - 111In-pentetate
Proper placement of a urine collection bag includes: A)place it across the patients legs keeping it level with the bladder B)place it on the stretcher near the patient's feet so that it is out of FOV C)hang it from the imaging table lower than the bladder
C)hang if from the imaging table, lower than the bladder. For proper drainage, the urine collection bag must always be lower than the urinary bladder. If it is not lower, the urine may reflux back into the bladder, which may result in a UTI.
Which of the following rad-pharmaceuticals can be used to assess vesicoureteral reflux by the indirect method: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)99mTc-sulfur colloid C)99mTc-albumin D)99mTc-pentetate
D)99mTc-pentetate. Radionuclide cystography is used to assess vesicoureteral reflux. This study may be performed by the indirect or the direct method. In the indirect method, a renal agent is administered intravenously.
If 0.02ug/kg of CCK is needed for a hepatobiliary study, what volume needs to be drawn for a 175lb patient with a solution of 10ug/mL available to draw from?
There are 2.2lbs per kg. 175lbs x 1kg/2.2lbs = 79.54kgs. 0.02ug/kg of CCK x 79.54kg = 1.59ug of CCK needed. 1.59ug of CCK x 1mL/10ug = 0.159mL
Parenteral administration of a drug or radio-pharmaceutical would include all of the following routes EXCEPT: A)intravenous B)intramuscular C)subcutaneous D)oral
D)oral. The term parenteral means "other than trough the intestine."
The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected: A)pernicious anemia B)intestinal malabsorption C)iron deficiency anemia D)hemolytic anemia
D)hemolytic anemia. The red cell survival test is used to study the lifespan of RBC's in patients with suspected hemolytic anemia. These patients will have a cell life span shorter than normal.
A technologist confirms a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by: A)locating the order in the patient's medical record B)telephoning he patient's physician for confirmation C) asking the patient
A)locating the order in the patient's medical record. The referring physician initiates orders for diagnostic testing and enters those orders in the patient's medical record. It is the technologist's responsibility to confirm the order for every test.
Which type of collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study: A)low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel hole B)high-energy, low-resolution parallel hole C)pinhole D)flat field
D)flat field. A probe system equipped with a flat-field collimator should be used to obtain organ counts. This will allow adequate statics in reasonable time periods and exclude counts coming from areas outside the region of interest.
If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15L, which of the following events has most likely occurred: A)completion of a satisfactory study B)over-hydration of the patient C)leakage of tracer from circulation D)infiltration of the tracer
D)infiltration of the tracer. Depending on body weight and gender, the total blood volume normally ranges from 3-6L. If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15L, there was most likely a technical error that caused this result.
A bio-hazard warning label would be found on all of the following EXCEPT: A)contaminated sharps container B)refrigerator containing potentially infectious material C)unit of blood released for clinical use D)receptacle for contaminated laundry
C)labels are not required on containers of blood that have been released for clinical use, such as blood transfusion. Bio-hazard warning labels are attached to any container of regulated materials (blood or infectious materials).
The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the: A)hematocrit B)plasmacrit C)corrected hematocrit D)corrected plasmacrit
D) The formula for calculating the TBV based on the plasma volume uses the corrected plasmacrit in the denominator. Correction is needed to account for trapped plasma and to adjust the venous hematocrit to an average whole-body hematocrit.
If radioactivity in the circulation from a previous NM test is unaccounted for, the results of a plasma volume determination will be: A)unaffected B)falsely elevated C)falsely decreased D)impossible to predict
C)falsely decreased. When residual radioactivity is present in the circulation, it appears as if the amount of radioactivity injected has been diluted in a smaller volume than it actually has.
The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is: A)10-15mg B)15-20mg C)25-50mg D)55-100mg
C)25-50mg tablet, usually given orally 1hr prior to hypertension renal study.
Imaging with 111In-pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the body: A)head and chest B)chest C)abdomen D)head to upper femurs
D) imaging with 111In-pentetreotide routinely includes the head to upper femurs, because detection of both the primary tumor and any metastases is the goal of the examination. If indicated, the extremities may also be included.
A patient scheduled for scintimammography has symptoms involving her left breast. Which of the following sites is the best choice for injection of the radiopharmaceutical: A)right antecubital B)right carotid C)left carotid D)left hand
A)right antecubital. If the suspected disease is in the left breast, it would be best to use the contralateral side of the body for injection at a site distant from the breast or lymph nodes, which may also be involved.
Based on the net counts data shown, Rt Lung = 175,362 Lt Lung = 325,672 What is the percentage perfusion to the right lung: A)30% B)35% C)54% D)65%
B)35%. % activity in ROI = counts in ROI/total counts in ROIs x 100 175,362/501,034 x 100 = 35%
If 375mCi 99mTc are on the column of a 99Mo/99mTc generator and after elution 342mCi 99mTc are assayed in the elution vial, the appx elution efficiency of the generatror is: A)110% B)91% C)33% D)11%
B)91%. Elution does not remove all 99mTc on the generator column. Elution efficiency is expressed as the percent of 99mTc activity on the column that is eluted. Elution efficiency = 99mTc activity eluted/99mTc activity on column x 100.
Two-hundred fifty (250) kilobecquerels are equivalent to how many microcuries: A).25uCi B)6.76uCi C)9.25uCi D)9.250uCi
B)6.76uCi Conversions between the CGS and SI systems can be accomplished easily if you remember the three following relationships: 1Ci=37GBq 1mCi=37MBq 1uCi=37kBq 250kBq x 1uCi/37kBq = 6.75uCi
If a 99Mo/99mTc generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum 99mTc activity could next be eluted at what time: A)1200 Monday B)1800 Monday C)0600 Tuesday D)0600 Wednesday
C)0600 Tuesday. Maximum 99mTc activity is obtained about 24 hr after the last elution of 99mTc.
According to the NRC, 99Mo contamination in 99mTc eluate must be measured how often: A)weekly B)daily C)after each elution D)only after the first elution
D)only after the first elution. According to the NRC, 99Mo breakthrough must be measured in the first elution from a 99Mo/99mTc generator.
These results were obtained when 99mTc eluate was assayed for 99Mo breakthrough at 0600: 99Mo = 10uCi 99mTc = 416mCi Which of the following statements about this elution at 1700 is true: A)the eluate should not be used B)the eluate may be used
B)the eluate may be administered to patients. At 0600, the 99Mo contamination in the eluate is below the max allowable limit of 0.15uCi 99Mo per mCi 99mTc. To determine 99Mo concentration in the eluate at 1700, decay correct both 99Mo and 99mTc for 11 hr.
A tech performs an Al ion breakthrough test on 99mTc eluate. When the indicator paper is spotted with Al ion solution, a faint red color is seen, but when the paper is spotted with eluate, no color change is seen. What does this mean?
The Al ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit. No color change represents an AL ion concentration below 10ug/ml of eluate, the USP limit. This eluate may be administered to patients and used to prepare 99mTc-labled radiopharmacuticals.
All of the following procedures may be performed with 99mTc-sulfur colloid EXCEPT: A)gastric-emptying study B)gastroesophageal reflux study C)GI bleeding localization D)Meckel's diverticulum localiztion
D)Meckel's divierticulum localization. 99mTc-pertechnetate is used to localize a Meckel's diverticulum.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if a renal function study is being performed to determine the glomerular filtration rate: A)99mTc-gluceptate B)99mTc-mertiatide C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-succimer
C) DTPA 99mTc- (pentetate) is the renal agent used to determine glomerular filtration rate because it is handled by the kidneys solely by glomerular filtration. It is neither bound to protein nor secreted by the renal tubules as are other renal agents.
Aluminum is a chemical impurity and not subject to regulations by the NRC. True or False?
Heating is required during the preparation of all of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals except: A)bicisate B)mertiatide C)sestamibi D)sulfur colloid
A)99mTc-bicisate requires a 30 minute incubation at room temperature. For the other radiopharmaceuticals listed, heating is required for the preparation.
To calculate the yield of a 99Mo/99mTc generator, the first step to be performed is what?
Determine the time elapsed between calibration of the 99Mo activity and generator elution.
What is the R(f) value of hydrolyzed-reduced 99mTc if the solvent front is 12.6cm from the origin: Hydrolyzed-reduced 99mTc is 2.5cm from origin; 99mTc-pertechnetate is 12.6cm from origin.
R(f)=0.20 The R(f)value is the distance traveled by a given radiochemical component compared with the solvent front. 2.5 cm / 12.6 cm = 0.198
All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical specific activity except: A)uCi/mg B)kBq/mL C)Ci/g D)MBq/mole
B)kBq/mL. Specific activity is defined as the amount of radioactivity per unit mass of a radionuclide or labeled compound and is expressed in units of radioactivity per mass.
A tech needs 1mCi 111In at 0900 on May 18. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on May 18 using the following information: Total act=3.0mCi; Total vol=3.0mL; Assay=1200, May 21; DF=0.480
If 25uCi of a radiopharmaceutical are to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity should be administered to a child weighing 15.5kg: A)852uCi B)0.39mCi C)0.85mCi D)1.6mCi
For labeling RBC's, the prescribed dosage of 99mTc-pertechnetate is 925MBq(+-)10%. Which dose calibrator reading verifies the prescribed activity was dispensed: A)21mCi B)28mCi C)20mCi D)25.5mCi
The USP 26 limit is ___ Al/mL 99mTc for fission-produced 99Mo: A)10mg B)10ug C)15mg D)15ug
Venipuncture materials labeled with which of the following expiration dates may be used safely on Aug 10: A)July 31 B)Aug 31 C)Sept 30 D)Oct 1
A) Materials that have passed their expiration date should not be used with patients. In the case of venipuncture materials, the sterility of the materials may be compromised.
According to NRC, all the following information must appear in the record of 99Mo concentration measurements except: A)ratio of 99Mo to 99mTc activities B)name of individual making the measurement C)dose calibrator make and model D)time and date
C)Dose calibrator make and model. Records of 99Mo concentration measurements must include the other information.
According to NRC, a written directive must be prepared for administration of which radiopharmaceuticals: A)1mCi 111In-oxine B)5mCi 131I-sodium iodide C)10mCi 67Ga-citrate D)30mCi 99mTc-sestamibi
B) According to the NRC, a written directive is required for any dosage of 131I-sodium iodide grater than 30uCi or for any therapy dosage of an unsealed by-product material.
If 99mTc eluate needs to be diluted to prepare other 99mTc-labeled products, the correct diluent is: A)sterile saline containing 0.2% thiosulfate B)preservative free isotonic saline C)bacteriostatic saline D)distilled water
B) If 99Tc eluate needs to be diluted to prepare other 99mTc-labeled products, the correct diluent is preservative-free isotonic saline.
A unit dose of 67Ga-citrate is calibrated for 0800 on July 9 contains 5mCi in 2.6mL. If 3mCi are needed on July 10 at 0800, what volume should be retained in the syringe. DF=0.808 A)1.5mL B)1.9mL C)1.1mL
If a 2.5Ci 99Mo/99mTc generator is estimated to contain 268mCi of 99mTc-pertechnetate, but 198mCi are eluted, what is the approximate elution efficiency: A)74% B)26% C)11% D)8%
The USP 26 limit for 99Mo breakthrough, the 99Mo contamination in the 99mTc-eluate, is ___99Mo/mCi99mTc per administered dosage at time of administration: A)0.10uCi B)0.15uCi C)0.20uCi D)0.10mCi
Which of the following federal agencies regulates the packaging and transport of radioactive materials: A)DOT B)EPA C)FDA D)NRC
A)DOT. The U.S. Department of Transportation regulates the packaging and transport of radioactive materials. The NRC regulations follow DOT requirements.
Which of the following exposure rates indicates a package must be labeled with a category 11 DOT label: A)52mR/hr surface 2.2mR/hr @ 1 meter B)35mR/hr surface 1.0mR/hr @ 1 meter C)65mR/hr surface 5.5mR/hr @ 1 meter
B) Category 1 (white)= <0.5 surface, no detectable radiation @ 1 meter Category 11 (yellow)= <50 surface, 1.0 or less @ 1 meter Category 111 (yellow)= <200 surface, 10 or less @ 1 meter
When RBC's are labeled with 99mTc using the in vivo method, what order are the reagents(stannous pyrophoshate and 99mTc-pertechnetate) injected?
Reconstructed stannous pyrophosphate must be administered first. This step, sometimes referred to as "pretinning," permits 99mTc-pertechnetate to enter the red blood cells.
If the radiation intensity of a point source at 0.5 m measures 36mR/hr, at what distance will the intensity be halved?
If the HVL of 60Co in lead is 1.25cm, what percentage of 60Co photons is absorbed from a 60Co source shielded with 2.5cm of lead?
According to the NRC, a written directive is required for the administration of all the following radiopharmaceuticals except: A)25mCi 131I-sodium iodide B)20mCi 18F-FDG C)15mCi 32P-sodium phosphate D)10mCi 89Sr-chloride
B) 20mCi 18F-FDG
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to any organ or tissue other than the eye is: A)50mSv B)5mSv C)15rem D)50rem
D)50rem or 500mSv.
According to NRC regulations, which of the following can't be disposed of in the sewage system: A)diaper of a child who has received 67Ga B)feces from a patient who received 131I therapy C)unused 123I sodium iodide capsules D)urine from a renal test
C)unused 123I sodium iodide capsules. Only patient excreta are exempt from any limits when discarded into the sewage system.
In performing a room survey with an end-window GM counter, the tech should first: A)measure the room background B)perform a battery test on the counter C)perform a wipe test D)measure designated areas on the survey diagram
B) To ensure that the batteries are functional, a battery check should be performed immediately before taking any measurements with a survey meter.
Normal values for a solid Gastric emptying study is: A)30-45min B)45-60min C)50 to 80min D)60-80min
C) Normal values are 50-80min for solid meals and 10-15min for liquid meals.
A container of 131I measures 0.08mR/h, and room background measures 0.07mR/hr. The tech should next: A)obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose of the container in regular trash B)dispose of the container as radioactive waste
A) The exposure rate of the packing material is approximately the same as room background, so the carton may be disposed of in the regular trash after any radiation symbols are removed or obliterated.
According to NRC regulations, in what areas can radioxenon be administered: A)in any room that can be closed off with doors B)only in rooms that have xenon alarm systems C)only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized
C)only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized.
When can a decay factor be used to calibrate a unit dosage in place of measuring the dosage in a dose calibrator: A)only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration B)only if the dosage contains less than 1mCi activity
A)only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration.
A patient received 5mCi 131I-sodium iodide for treatment of hyperthyroidism. The patient should adhere to all instructions except: A)minimize close contact with others B)remain home at lest 30 days C)drink plenty of fluid D)wash hands after using toilet
B)patients should be given instructions to follow for 3 to 7 days that will minimize spread of contamination and radiation exposure to others.
After a 99mTc spill, decontamination procedures have not been able to remove all of the spilled material. If the current exposure rate is 32mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2mR/hr?
If a patient is hospitalized in isolation after receiving a high activity of 131I, which sign must be placed on the door: A)authorized personnel only B)sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room C)reverse isolation procedures required
B) If a person is hospitalized after administration of a therapeutic dosage of 131I, the door of the room must have signage that indicates the length of time a visitor may stay.
How soon after a medical event has occurred must the NRC be notified: A)telephone notification no later than the following calendar day B)telephone notification within 72h C)written report within 5 regular workdays D)written report within 30 days
A)NRC regulations state that the NRC Operations Center must be notified of a medical event (error) (misadministration) no later than the next calendar day.
According to NRC, written instructions must be provided to a patient who has received radionuclide therapy when: A)female of childbearing age B)every patient must receive instructions C)another individual may receive exposure greater than 0.1rem
C)NRC regulations state that written precautions must be provided to the patient or the patient's parent or guardian if any individual is likely to exceed 0.1rem (1mSv) exposure from the therapy patient.
Which of the statements about the shielding method of performing a dose calibrator linearity test is true: A)when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm accuracy B)a different source activity is required for each shield
A)to ensure that the shields will give accurate results, the decay method must be performed at the same time the shields are first used.
The NRC requires that dose calibrators be tested for proper functioning according to nationally recognized standards. The standard of practice requires the measured value to be within (+-) __% of the calculated value. A)10 B)15 C)20 D)5
Full width at half maximum(FWHM) is defined as the width of the photopeak, expressed in keV, at one-half of the maximum or peak counts. True or False?
To perform a constancy test on a dose calibrator, the best choice of radionuclide settings on which to count the reference standard would include: A)125I, 123I, 131I B)125I, 57Co, 137Cs C)99mTc, 201Tl, 123I D)57Co, I131, 137Cs
C)After the long-lived reference is read on its setting, the same source should be used to obtain a reading on each commonly used radionuclide setting.
The two most commonly used radiopharmaceuticals for GI bleeding detection are?
99mTc-SC and 99mTc-RBC's.
The standard of practice for performing a dose calibrator accuracy test calls for the use of how many long-lived reference sources: A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4
B)the standard of practice calls for the use of at least two long-lived reference sources.
Which of the following filters is a high-pass filter: A)Butterworth B)Hanning C)Parzen D)Ramp
D)Ramp. The ramp filter is a high-pass filter, that is, it permits high frequencies to pass through while altering the lower frequencies. The other filters listed are low-pass filters used to eliminate noise.
In quantitating scintillation camera detector uniformity, the central FOV is defined as the diameter of the useful FOV times: A)0.75 B)0.5 C)0.33 D)0.25
A)0.75 The UFOV is first determined by measuring the diameter of the largest area that can be inscribed within the collimated FOV. Then, the CFOV is defined as a circle with a diameter that is 75% of the UFOV diameter.
When the heart rate is 95bpm, what is the length of an average R-R interval: A)0.5sec B)0.63sec C)1sec D)1.6sec
To perform pixel calibration, 2 capillary sources are placed on the camera surface 13cm apart. From an image acquired using a 128x128 matrix, an activity profile is generated. If there are 45 pixels between the 2 activity peaks, the pixel size is?
Coincidence loss is likely to occur when using a well counter if the: A)E of radionuclide is below 50keV B)E of radionuclide is above 300keV C)activity of the source is below 1uCi D)activity of the source is above 2mCi
D) With activities in the mCi range and sometimes lower, photons are striking the well-counter crystal at very short intervals. The instrument is in deadtime while many photons are interacting with the crystal.
To assure a max error of 2% at the 95% confidence level, all samples that are measured in a well counter should be counted for a time interval that produces at least: A)10,000counts B)5,000counts C)1,000counts D)500counts
A 137Cs source was originally calibrated to contain 200uCi on June 1, 1998. What would be the expected activity of the source on June 1, 2002? 2 year DF=0.955
182.4uCi. 0.955 x 0.955 x 200uCi = 182.4uCi
A 57Co source originally calibrated to contain 325.8uCi 35 days ago. If the source is measured today, the reading must fall within what range of activities to meet the accepted standard? DF=0.914
268.0-327.6uCi. 325.8uCi x 0.914 = 297.8 297.8 (+-) 10% is accepted standard
It has been determined that a correction factor of 1.15 must be used when a 5mL syringe containing about 25mCi is measured. If a unit dosage activity reads 26.2mCi, what is the true activity?
30.1mCi 26.2mCi x 1.15 = 30.1mCi
Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit: A)maximum tracer uptake in skeleton B)blood clearance of excess tracer C)tracer clearance from sites of infiltration D)tracer clearance from normal bone tissue
B) Maximum skeletal uptake of 99mTc-medronate and 99mTc-oxidronate occurs within 45 min after tracer administration, and imaging is to allow the excess circulating tracer to be cleared from the blood by the kidneys.
For which clinical indications would limited bone imaging be most appropriate: A)evaluate TMJ pain B)evaluate Paget's disease C)rule out skeletal metastases D)history of child abuse; rule out occult fractures
A) Paget's disease, skeletal metastases, and occult fractures resulting from child abuse all have the potential to be widespread. TMJ pain is localized; therefore, "spot" view imaging of the skull, face, and cervical spine is indicated.
3 or 4 phase bone imaging is particularly useful when which condition is suspected: A)skeletal metastases B)osteoporosis C)osteomyelitis D)stress fracture
C) Early images are important in diagnosing inflammatory conditions such as osteomyelitis. In osteomyelitis, tracer concentration remains increased throughout the phases.
The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are: A)anterior and posterior B)posterior and obliques C)anterior, posterior, and lateral D)anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques
D) At least 6 views should be performed in a lung perfusion study: anterior, posterior, right and left-laterals, and right and left posterior obliques.
If a patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint, the most appropriate action for the tech would be to: A)talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply B)check vital signs C)have the patient lie down again
A)To help minimize the severity of orthostatic hypotension, the patient should be encouraged to talk and breathe slowly and deeply. Symptoms should subside within a few minutes.
Which statement about performing a lung ventilation study with 99mTc-pentetate aerosol is False: A)the patient is disconnected from the nebulizer after inhalation of the aerosol B)the patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer
B)After inhalation of the tracer, the patient is disconnected from the delivery apparatus. Then, the patient is imaged.
The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with 99mTc-MAA is to: A)distend the veins in the feet B)suppress superficial circulation C)prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs
B)Elastic bandages are used to wrap the legs between the ankles and knees to divert blood flow from the superficial circulation to the deep venous system.
When radiation levels coming from a radioiodine therapy patient in isolation is measured, it should be measured: A)every day B)every day at same time C)the same distance from patient each time D)every day at the same distance from the patient each time
D)every day at the same distance from the patient each time, using the same instrument and counting geometry.
The function of a draw sheet is to provide: A)warmth to the patient during the procedure B)support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer C)protection from infectious disease D)patient privacy during procedure
B) The draw sheet is the one on which the patient is lying and is used for transferring the patient from stretcher to imaging table.
A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which 99mTc-labeled tracers: A)pentetate B)medronate C)pyrophosphate D)human serum albumin
D)Many departments label the patient's RBC's with 99mTc-pertechnetate, but other facilities prefer the immediate availability of 99mTc-albumin. Currently 99mTc-albumin is available only outside the United States.
The 99mTc-complexes such as PYP, MDP, and HDP are the agents used for what type of imaging?
Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with 99mTc-sestamibi requires two dose administrations of tracer, because the tracer: A)does not redistribute B)rapidly washes out of the myocardium C)has too short a half-life to permit delayed imaging
A) 99mTc-sestamibi is taken up into the myocardium in proportion to blood flow. It does not redistribute the way 201Tl-thalous chloride does.
In a normal hepatobiliary study, which structure will not be visualized: A)liver B)spleen C)common bile duct D)gallbladder
B)spleen. Hepatobiliary agents are cleared from the blood by the hepatocytes in the liver. The tracer is cleared from the hepatocytes into the common bile duct and gallbladder and from there into the small intestine.
In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast to: A)prevent renal uptake of the tracer B)enhance liver uptake of the tracer C)avoid stimulating the gallbladder D)minimize risk of radioactive emesis
C) Ingestion of food may cause the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing a false-positive result; that is, the gallbladder is not visualized.
To determine the patency of a LeVeen shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered into: A)a vein B)the peritoneal cavity C)the intrathecal space D)the shunt tubing
B) The physician performs an intraperitoneal injection of the tracer.
What is the correct patient/camera position for imaging a transplanted kidney: A)upright/anterior B)supine/anterior C)upright/posterior D)supine/posterior
B) A transplanted kidney is placed in the iliac fossa. Therefore, a transplanted kidney should be imaged with the patient supine and the camera placed anteriorly over the pelvis.
In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to: A)quantitate the amount of tracer deposited at injection site B)rule out tracer infiltration C)calculate the amount of injected activity
B) Because ERPF is a quantitative study, any tracer infiltration will invalidate the calculated ERPF values. It is essential to confirm the entire amount of activity was injected into the circulatory system.
Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires: A)intravenous injection of tracer B)use of a renal agent C)catheterization of the patient D)administration of furosemide
C)Direct radionuclide cystography requires that the patient be catheterized and the bladder drained.
All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of 111In-labeled leukocytes except: A)osteomyelitis B)dental abscess C)pulmonary embolism D)ostomy site
C) Leukocytes accumulate in areas of infection or inflammation. Not PE.
Signs/symptoms that a patient is going into anaphylactic shock include all of the following except: A)hot, dry skin B)pallor C)restlessness D)tachycardia
A) Pale, cold, clammy skin is characteristic of shock. The patient may also exhibit restlessness and tachycardia.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood-brain barrier: A)99mTc-bicisate B)99mTc-gluceptate C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-pertechnetate
A) 99mTc-bicisate and 99mTc-exametazime normally cross the blood-brain barrier and are taken up in brain tissue in proportions to blood flow
The patency of ventriculoperitoneal shunts may be assessed with which tracer: A)111In-chloride B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-bicisate D)99mTc-MAA
B) The patency of the shunt can be ascertained by injecting a tracer, typically 99mTc-pertechnetate, into the shunt tubing and imaging the movement of the tracer down the tube into the peritoneum.
According to the FDA, written informed consent must be obtained to administer which radiopharmaceutical: A)123I-sodium iodide B)99mTc-sestamibi C)99mTc-bicisate D)any IND
D) Written consent must be obtained for any radiopharmaceutical that is investigational. These drugs are referred to as investigational new drugs (INDs).
Patient preparation for 89Sr-chloride therapy includes all except: A)nuclear medicine bone imaging B)complete blood count C)discontinuation of pain medication D)renal function studies
C)discontinuation of pain medication
Patient preparation for 131I therapy for thyroid cancer includes all except: A)ruling out pregnancy B)administering oral potassium iodide C)reviewing isolation requirements D)discontinuing breast-feeding
B) Oral potassium iodide may be administered to personnel who are exposed to airborne radioiodine as a means of preventing tracer uptake in the thyroid gland.
One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all except: A)before administration B)after administration
B) Verification should be done before injection, and the label should be checked when the radiopharmaceutical is removed from the shelf, when it is dispensed, and when it is returned to the shelf.
When dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which tracer is used for stress and which for rest?
Stress: 99mTc-sestamibi Rest: 201Tl-thallous chloride
If 99mTc-sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?
99mTc-sulfur colloid is cleared and localized in the liver and spleen within 15 min of administration. Therefore, to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding with this tracer, it will have to occur while the tracer is still circulating.
Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first-pass study: A)median basilic vein B)cephalic vein C)axillary vein D)dorsal vein
A) A cardiac first-pass study requires a bolus injection technique to demonstrate each of the cardiac chambers separately. Therefore, a large peripheral vein, such as he median basilic or external jugular, is needed.
Patient prep for a 131I therapy includes: A)low-iodine diet for 1 week prior to therapy B)high-iodine diet for 1 week prior to therapy C)low-carb diet for 3 days prior to therapy D)no salt for 1 week prior to therapy
A) Patient prep for 131I therapy includes a low-iodine diet for 1 week prior to therapy to help increase the ability of the thyroid gland or metastatic cancer as a whole to uptake the radioactive 131I versus stable iodine.
For 67Ga infection imaging, the proper rout of administration of the radiopharmaceutical is: A)intravenously B)intramuscularly C)orally D)inhalation
A) The proper rout of administration for 67Ga infection imaging is intravenously.
When performing a plasma volume test, intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein in one arm, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm. True or False?
True. Because radioiodinated serum albumin is "sticky," it has a tendency to adhere to substances, including tissue.
When administering an intravenous injection, the needle should be inserted into the vein at an angle of ___ degrees: A)90 B)45 C)15 D)5
C) An intravenous injection should be done with the needle at about a 15-degree angle to the vein it is being inserted into.
When counting 51Cr RBC samples in a scintillation well counter, the window should be set around the photopeak at: A)81keV B)159keV C)320keV D)511keV
C) The gamma energy of 51Cr is 320keV. Therefore, the scintillation detector should be set to accommodate this photopeak.
Which tomographic plane of the heart displays all walls of the left ventricle: A)horizontal long axis B)short axis C)transaxial D)vertical long axis
B) The short-axis slice displays all walls of the left ventricle.
When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a A)converging B)straight-bore C)flat-field
C) A scintillation probe with a flat-filed collimator is used for a radioiodine uptake test. The flat-field collimator allows for small variations in organ depth without affecting statistical accuracy.
Which would NOT be in accordance with electrical safety guidelines: A)use of 3 pronged plugs and outlets B)disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord C)keeping walk areas free from electrical cords
B) Cords should be disconnected from the wall by grasping and pulling on the plug, not the cord.
A linearity test indicates the dose calibrator's ability to measure the activity over a wide range of values. True or False?
True. Normally, dose calibrators exhibit a linear response for activities up to 200mCi (7.4GBq) to 2Ci (74GBq), depending on the chamber and geometry and the electronics of the dose calibrator, and tend to underestimate at higher activities.
When using 18F-FDG for PET imaging a consideration must be made for which of the following being a contraindication for performing the study: A)blood glucose level of 200mg/dL B)blood glucose level of 120mg/dL C)high-iodine diet within past week
A) Ideally, the blood glucose should be less than 120mg/dL when imaging with 18F-FDG. The 18F-FDG competes for glucose receptors, and a high blood glucose level reduces potential uptake of the 18F-FDG.
A 1:25 dilution of a solution with a concentration of 10uCi/mL is prepared. What is the tracer concentration in the dilution?
0.4uCi/mL. 1/25 x 10uCi/mL = 0.4uCi/mL
In preparation for 18F-FDG imaging, patients are required to fast to: A)prevent hypoglycemic episodes B)enhance cardiac uptake C)maximize tumor uptake D)eliminate the need for laxatives
C) In preparation for 18F-FDG imaging, patients are required to fast to maximize tumor uptake.
Which step is performed before the administration of 90Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy: A)determine PSA level B)fasting for 8 hr C)whole-body imaging with 111In-ibritumomab tiuxetan D)intravenous hydration for 4 hr
C) Before administration of 90Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy, a whole-body image is performed with 111In-ibritumomab tiuxetan.
The size of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is expressed as the total activity of: A)99Mo on the column B)99mTc on the column C)99mTc eluted from the column D)decay-corrected 99mTc available at time of elution
A) The size of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is expressed as the total 99Mo activity on the column at the time of initial assay (calibration).
If 1.2Ci of 99mTc are eluted from a generator in a 5.7mL volume, what is the concentration of the eluate?
210mCi/mL. 1.2Ci/5.7mL = 0.210Ci/mL 0.210Ci/mL x 1000mCi/1Ci = 210mCi
If 633mCi are expected to be eluted from a wet-column generator, what volume evacuated vial should be used to obtain an eluate concentration of approximately 30mCi/mL: A)5mL B)10mL C)15mL D)20mL
The maximum allowable limit of Al(3+) in 99mTc eluate is set by the: A)NRC B)U.S. Pharmacopeia C)EPA D)U.S. DOT
B) Aluminum is a nonradioactive, chemical impurity. The allowable limit is set by the U.S. Pharmacopeia.
If the following measurements were obtained from an assay of 99mTc eluate: 99Mo=8uCi; 99mTc=652mCi: then the 99Mo concentration in 1mCi of 99mTc is: A)81.5uCi/mCi B)8.0uCi/mCi C)0.012uCi/mCi D)0.000012uCi/mCi
C) 8uCi/652mCi = 0.012uCi99Mo/99mTc
Increased levels of Al(3+) in 99mTc eluate used to prepare 99mTc-sulfur colloid may cause the tracer to concentrate in the: A)liver B)lungs C)RBC's D)thyroid
B) Increased levels of aluminum ions in 99mTc eluate cause the colloidal particles in 99mTc-sulfer colloid to clump together, forming particles large enough to be trapped in the blood vessels of the lung.
Which radiopharmaceutical may be ordered to treat bone pain caused by bony metastases: A)131I-sodium iodide B)111In-oxine C)32P-chromic phosphate D)153Sm-exidronam
D) Of the radiopharmaceuticals listed, 153Sm-exidronam is the agent used in treating bone pain.
According to NRC regulations, reports of medical events sent to the NRC must include all information except: A)whether patient or relative was notified B)description of incident C)referring physicians name D)patient's name
D) The patient's name
All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced 99mTc-pertechnetate except: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-oxidronate C)99mTc-MAA D)99mTc-lidofenin
A) 99mTc-sulfur colloid
What is the most commonly used 99mTc complex used for bone imaging. A)PYP B)MDP C)HDP
B) 99mTc-MDP is most commonly used for bone scanning.
On the basis of the USP criteria, which of the following statements about the particle size of MAA preparations is true: A)no particles should exceed 90um in diameter B)Some particles may be smaller than 10um C)up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150um
B) According to the USP, 90% of the particles in MAA preparation should be 10-90 microns in size. No particles should be larger than 150 microns.
An eluate of 99mTc-pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination immediately after elution. If the 99Mo breakthrough is determined to be 0.035uCi 99Mo/mCi99mTc and the shelf life of the eluate is 12hr, for how many hours after elution can it be used?
After a radiochromatography strip is developed and cut in half, the solvent front half of the strip counted 15,345cpm and the original half of the strip counted 55,632cpm. What is the radiochemical impurity?
78.4% 55,632cpm/(55,632cpm + 15,345cpm) x 100 = 78.4%
Why is a patient asked to void the bladder before a whole body bone scan?
So the bladder activity does not blur the pelvic region on the image.
18F-FDG can be used for brain imaging. True or False?
True. 99mTc-HMPAO, 99mTc-ECD and 18F-FDG are diffusible tracers that can be used for brain imaging.
A tech needs 185MBq 131I-sodium iodide solution on Nov 3. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on Nov 9 given this information: Total act=740MBq Total vol=10mL Assay=Oct 28 DF=.597
In labeling RBC's with 51Cr-sodium chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample from coagulating: A)ACD solution B)EDTA C)heparin D)sodium fluoride
A) ACD solution, EDTA, heparin, and sodium fluoride all may be used as anticoagulants. However, for labeling RBC's with 51Cr ACD solution is the anticoagulant of choice.
All of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo 99mTc labeling of RBC's except: A)doxorubicin B)heparin C)penicillin D)lidocaine
What dose calibrator reading would verify that the maximum activity of 99mTc-pentetate was prepared: Concentration=25.0mCi/mL Total volume=5mL
125mCi. 25mCi/mL x 5mL = 125mCi
In radiopharmacy lab, good radiation protection includes all except: A)wearing disposable gloves B)wiping the top of the vial with betadine solution C)using syringe shields
B) wiping the top of the vial with betadine solution is not radiation protection.
If 99mTc-exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label WBC's, it should be used no later than what time: A)0930 B)1100 C)1300 D)1500
A) When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label WBC's, methylene blue stabilizer is omitted from its preparation. For this reason, the preparation should be used within 30 minutes.
Upon visual inspection, a vial of 99mTc-medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid. What should the technologist do?
99mTc-medronate, a bone agent, should be a clear, colorless solution. Therefore, the technologist should not use the original vial because of its abnormal appearance.
What is the % of radiochemical impurity of the 99mTc-pentetate reparation: system 1:Origin=3uCi HR-Tc Solvent front=177uCi 99mTc-pentetate; System 2: Origin=275uCi 99mTc-pentetate HR-Tc Solvent front=15uCi 99mTc-pertechnetate
If a 290uCi/kg dose is needed, approximately how many millicuries should a 95-lb patient receive?
12.5mCi 95lb x 1kg/2.2lb=43.18kg
Which needle size is the most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a medication vial: A)27 gauge B)25 gauge C)22 gauge D)16 gauge
D)16 gauge. Larger-gauge needles are more likely to damage the rubber closure, especially after multiple withdrawals.
According to NRC, which sign should be posted on the door a a radiopharmacy lab in which radiation levels measure 7.5mR/hr: A)no posting required B)caution radioactive materials C)caution radiation area D)caution high radiation area
C)The NRC requires that restricted areas, such as a radiopharmacy lab, be posted with specifically worded signs depending on the radiation level present. A "Caution: Radiation Area" sign should be posted when an individual could receive more than 5mrem/hr
To determine the transportation index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at: A)surface of package B)6in from surface C)1m from surface D)2m from surface
C) The U.S.DOT defines the transport index of a package containing radioactive materials to be the dose rate measured at 1 meter from the surface of the package.
To comply with NRC regulations, personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained: A)3 years B)5 years C)10 years D)indefinitely
D) According to the NRC, personnel radiation exposure records must be retained indefinitely.
If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50mR/hr @ 1 foot,at what distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2mR/hr?
5 feet. Use the inverse square law
An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when: A)the worker leaves the NM dept B)the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic procedure
B) Occupationally exposed workers should not wear a personal monitor when undergoing medical procedures that involve radiation.
According to NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15mCi of 131I-sodium iodide must include: A)dosage B)patient's thyroid uptake value C)patient's birth date D)lot number or Rpharmaceutical
A) A written directive for administration of 131I-sodium iodide in dosages greater than 30uCi must include the patient's name and the dosage to be administered.
According to the NRC, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than: A)500mrem B)100mrem C)50mrem D)2mrem
B) According to NRC regulations, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public is limited to 100mrem
Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding 32P: A)lead B)plastic C)tungsten D)no shielding is required
B) 32P is a pure beta-emitting radionuclide. When it is placed in shielding material of a higher atomic number (Z), such as lead or tungsten, bremsstrahlung radiation is produced.
The tiny particles possessing a negative charge of 1.6 x 10^-19 coulomb that orbit the nucleus of an atom are termed: A)electrons B)neutrons C)protons
During a room survey, a tech identifies an area that exceeds the trigger level. What should the tech do next: A)determine the identity of radionuclide B)perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable C)cover the area
B) A wipe test will determine if the contamination is removable.
In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life-threatening injuries, which action should be given priority: A)decontamination of the victim B)confinement of radioactive spill C)medical treatment of the the seriously injured
C) Medical treatment for life-threatening conditions always takes precedence over any other activity.
Nurses caring for 131I therapy patients who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patient's: A)feces, urine, and blood B)urine, saliva, and perspiration C)blood and urine D)sputum and blood
B) For up to about 1 week after administration of 131I-sodium iodide, iodine that is not bound to thyroid hormone is found in the urine, perspiration, sputum and saliva.
According to NRC regulations, a tech cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed unless: A)no other Rpharmaceutical is available B)the patient weighs more than 20% over standard reference weight C)the authorized user approves
C) A dosage cannot be administered if the activity falls outside the range established by the authorized user or differs from the prescribed dosage by 20% or more, unless the authorized user directs the dosage to be administered.
If a woman who is breast-feeding needs 131I therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast-feeding: A)48hr B)1 week C)she may not resume it with this child D)suspension of breast-feeding is not necessary
C) According to the NRC, a woman who is breast-feeding should completely cease breast-feeding that child after she has received 131I-sodium iodide.
According to the NRC, wipe test results must be reported as: A)cpm B)dpm C)mR/hr D)mrem/hr
B) According to the NRC, wipe test results must be reported in dpm.
Fifteen mrem is equivalent to how many mSv: A)0.0015 B)0.015 C)0.15 D)1.5
C) 1mrem = 0.01mSv, therefore 15 x 0.01mSv = 0.15mrem
A package containing radiopharmaceuticals is delivered before the NM department opens. According to the NRC, the package must be checked in and monitored: A)as soon as the dept opens B)w/i 3 hr after the dept opens C)w/i 6 hr after the dept opens
B) NRC regulations state that packages containing radioactive material must be monitored no later than 3 hr after delivery during regular working hours or within 3 hr of opening the department.
On the basis of this data: Wipe test count=375cpm; Background count=120cpm; and a well-counter efficiency of 45%, the results of the wipe test in dpm are?
Which of the following measure the amount of red cells in circulating blood: A)red cell volume B)hemoglobin C)hematocrit D)A and C
D) red cell volume and hematocrit
89Sr-chloride is used to treat: A)malignant ascites B)polycythemia vera C)bone pain caused by metastases D)Grave's disease E)A and C
C) bone pain caused by metastases
An energy resolution test is performed on a scintillation spectrometer using 137Cs. If the FWHM is determined to be 53keV and the photopeak energy is 662keV, what is the % energy resolution of the instrument?
If a dose calibrator linearity test begins by assaying 50mCi of 99mTc-pertechnetate, for how long should the test be carried out: A)24hr B)48hr C)66hr D)72hr
C) The standard of practice calls for a dose calibrator linearity test to be carried out until the original activity is decayed to 30uCi or less. If the test begins with 50mCi it will take 11half-lives or 66hr for the original activity to decay to 30uCi.
If a PLES transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to assess linearity over the entire FOV of a scintillation camera: A)one B)two C)three D)four
B) A PLES phantom contains lead bars that have the same width and spacing. Two images taken 90deg to one another can be used to assess linearity over the entire FOV.
According to the NRC, all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for: A)1 year B)3 years C)the life of the instrument D)as long as the facility's license is in effect
B) All dose calibrator quality control records must be retained for 3 years
What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5: A)image will be smoother B)image will be sharper C)image will appear unchanged D)star artifact will be eliminated
B) As the order of a Butterworth filter is increased, more high frequencies are retained in the image. High frequencies add sharpness to the image, so the overall image will be sharper.
A 256 x 256 matrix requires how much more computer memory than a 64 x 64 matrix?
16 times more memory. 256x256=65,536pixels 64x64=4,096pixels
Which statement is TRUE about an image acquired with zoom: A)background counts are increased B)image resolution is increased C)more memory is required D)contrast is decreased
B) When zoom mode is engaged before acquisition, the image is magnified because a small region of interest is represented by a large number of pixels. This increases resolution. Background is decreased.
If a 99mTc-medronate bone image and a 111In-tagged white blood cell image are acquired simultaneously with a 128 x 128 word-mode matrix, how much computer memory is required to store the images?
An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies: A)plasma volume B)red cell mass C)red cell survival D)splenic sequestration
D) Splenic sequestration study requires external counting over the spleen, liver, and precordium. By using the uptake probe with a flat-field collimator, counts from surrounding tissue and background are minimized.
How much memory will be needed for a gated-equilibrium cardiac function exam that is acquired in 30 frames with a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix?
What energies will be accepted by a 15% window placed around a centerline of 159keV: A)135-183keV B)144-174keV C)147-171keV D)151-167keV
C) Half of the percentage window is above and half is below the centerline. 159keVx.15=24keV 159(+-)12keV
A SPECT study is acquired using 60 projections over a 360deg rotation. Each projection is acquired for .5min. If the counting rate is 144,000cpm, how many counts will be collected for the total acquisition?
4,320,000 counts. 60projections x .5min=30min 30minx144,000cpm=4,320,000counts
Using a 125uCi source, 30,500cpm were collected during a camera sensitivity determination. If the background count is 1,200cpm, what is the sensitivity of the instrument: A)234cpm/uCi B)244cpm/uCi C)29,300cpm D)3,662,500cpm
How does 201Tl decay: A)by positron emission B)by electron capture C)by beta emission D)none of the above
B) 201Tl decays by electron capture
In performing a bone image, which view would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus: A)lateral views of the patella B)post-void image of the pelvis C)plantar view of the feet D)anterior view of the distal humerus and radius
C) The calcaneus, the heel of the foot, would be best imaged by placing the sole of the patient's foot on the detector. Both feet may be imaged at the same time.
All of the following are true about 4 phase bone imaging EXCEPT: A)study includes both dynamic and static imaging B)study may be performed with any blood pool agent C)patient is positioned under camera before tracer administration
B) Because the 2nd through 4th phases are performed to determine the presence of increased, persistent tracer uptake in the bone, the study must be performed with a bone agent.
Which patient should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging: A)80-yr old woman with suspected PE B)65-yr old man with COPD C)45-yr old man with right-to-left cardiac shunt D)25-yr old woman with asthma
C) Patients with left-to-right cardiac shunts should be given a reduced number of particles because the particles pass through to the left side of the heart and into the systemic circulation.
Which statement about the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation study is TRUE: A)patient rebreathes a mixture of oxygen and xenon during the wash-in phase B)patient can be disconnected from the gas trap apparatus after the wash-in phase
A) In the wash-in/wash-out method, the patient breathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen for several minutes while a wash-in image is acquired.
After the administration of 99mTc-pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all the following areas EXCEPT: A)floor B)patient's mouth C)patient's chest D)technologist's hands
D) There is leakage at the exhaust of the delivery system. The filter is unable to trap the exhausted aerosol sufficiently to prevent the escape of airborne tracer from the delivery system.
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)123I-sodium iodide C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 123I-sodium iodide
D) For routine thyroid imaging, either 99mTc-pertechnetate or 123I-sodium iodide may be used.
When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements may be taken over the: A)lateral skull B)mediastinum C)abdomen D)thigh
D) Non-thyroidal background measurements may be collected over the thigh.
Pulse rates may be determined by all the following methods EXCEPT: A)multiplying the respiration rate by 4 B)using a pulse oximeter C)listening to the heart with a stethoscope D)analyzing the electrocardiogram
A) In addition to the routine finger method of determining the radial pulse, pulse rates can be determined from the ECG or pulse oximeter. Listening to the heart with a stethoscope will give a pulse rate known as the apical pulse.
Which statement about the administration of oxygen is FALSE: A)oxygen is a drug B)oxygen therapy may be ordered by a physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist C)with the consent of a physician or nurse an oxygen appliance may be removed
B) Because oxygen is a drug, it must be prescribed by a physician who specifies the amount to be received, the device to be used, and time interval.
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: A)adenosine B)aminophylline C)acetazolamide D)nitroglycerin
B) Adverse effects of dipyridamole, a vasodilator, include hypotension, headache, and nausea. These effects may be reversed by administering aminophylline intravenously.
Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole: A)water B)aspirin C)insulin D)theophylline
D) Caffeine and medications containing caffeine should not be consumed for at least 12hr before testing. The use of xanthine derivatives (theophylline, aminophylline) should be discontinued 24-36hr before the NM procedure.
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur a maximum of how long after tracer administration: A)5-10min B)20-30min C)45-60min D)1-2hr
B) In a normal hepatobiliary study, the duodenum and proximal jejunum are visualized by 30 min after tracer administration.
Which agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction: A)sincalide and 99mTc-disofenin B)sincalide and 99mTc-sulfer colloid C)morphine and 99mTc-lidofenin D)morphine and 99mTc-mertiatide
A) In cases of delayed gallbladder visualization, sincalide is administered when the gallbladder is full. Pre-and post contraction images are used to calculate an ejection fraction.
For which of the procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally: A)gastric emptying B)GI bleed C)salivary gland imaging D)vesicoureteral reflux imaging
A) For the determination of gastric emptying, the patient ingests the radiopharmaceutical.
Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following: A)hydration of the patient B)discontinuation of all medications C)fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging D)administration of furosemide 1hr before imaging
A) Renal function imaging should be performed with the patient in a normal state of hydration. To ensure hydration, the patient should drink 0.5L of water 30-60min before the study.
Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the administration of 99mTc-succimer: A)immediately B)30min C)2hr D)8hr
C) 99mTc-succimer (DMSA) is used for static renal cortical imaging. Imaging is performed about 2 hours after tracer administration.
Patient prep for 67Ga-citrate imaging may include administration of which of the following: A)diuretics B)potassium perchlorate C)Lugol's solution D)laxatives
D) 67Ga-citrate is excreted in the feces. The activity in the bowl may interfere with the interpretation of the study. Therefore, a bowel prep may be prescribed at the same time the tracer is administered.
A normal biodistribution of 111In-labeled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24hr after injection in which of the following sites: A)bone marrow B)liver C)lung D)spleen
D) At 24hr after injection, a normal biodistribution of 111In-labeled leukocytes demonstrates tracer uptake only in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow. The greatest uptake is in the spleen, followed by the liver and the bone marrow.
A patient with diabetes who becomes hypoglycemic may exhibit all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT: A)weakness and shakiness B)confusion C)irritability D)nausea and vomiting
D) Hypoglycemic patients may exhibit an intense hunger, may be weak, shaky, and sweat excessively. They may become confused and irritable. Most patients will recognize symptoms before they become severe.
Which of the following tracers may be used to confirm brain death: A)99mTc-exametazime B)99mTc-oxidronate C)99mTc-mertiatide D)201Tl-thallous chloride
A) 99mTc-exametazime has been used to confirm brain death, because this tracer is normally concentrated in brain tissue in proportion to blood flow. It can visualize the degree of perfusion in the brain.
Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which condition is suspected: A)rhinorrhea B)hydrocephalus C)CSF shunt patency D)blockage of CSF flow
A) In the case of cerebral spinal fluid leaks through the nose (rhinorrhea) or ears (otorrhea), placing cotton gauze in the patient's nose or ears is helpful in diagnosing such leaks.
Colloidal 32P-chromic phosphate is administered by which route: A)intraperitoneal B)intravenous C)subcutaneous D)inhalation
A) Colloidal 32P-chromic phosphate is used to treat pleural or peritoneal effusions resulting from a malignancy. The agent is introduced directly into the pleural or peritoneal cavity.
Which of the following radiation safety measures should be used when performing 89Sr therapy: A)use of lead vial and syringe shields B)urinary catheterization for incontinent patients C)use of absorbent paper in isolation room
B) It is recommended that incontinent patients receiving 89Sr-chloride be catheterized to minimize the spread of contamination.
On the basis of blood flow, which of the following is visualized as an area of high tracer concentration on a brain image performed with 99mTc-exametazime: A)gray matter B)white matter C)pineal body D)medulla oblongata
A) Uptake of a SPECT brain agent is primarily in the gray matter of the cerebrum, which has a higher blood flow than white matter.
A tech is performing a lung image on a patient known to have active TB. The most appropriate personal protective device the tech should utilize is: A)gloves B)gown C)lab coat D)mask
D) The mask is the most appropriate for airborne respiratory diseases.
The patency of a LeVeen shunt may be demonstrated with which radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-disofenin or 99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-MAA or 99mTc-sulfur colloid C)99mTc-pentetate or 99mTc-pertechnetate D)99mTc-albumin or 99mTc-RBC's
B) A LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites by draining the excess fluid that accumulates in the peritoneal cavity into the superior vena cava. Imaging may be performed with either 99mTc-MAA or 00mTc-sulfur colloid.
Which of the following is common to image gastroesophageal reflux in adults and children: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid tracer of choice B)patient must fast midnight before the test C)abdominal binder is used to increase pressure over the abdomen
A) 99mTc-sulfur colloid is the radiopharmaceutical used to image gastroesophageal reflux in both children and adults.
The following studies are ordered for a patient: ERPF determination; TB bone imaging; 111In-pentetreotide imaging. What order should the studies be performed?
ERPF determination; Total body bone imaging; 111In-pentetreotide imaging.
Historically, the function of intrinsic factor administered during a Schilling test was to: A)increase urine output B)facilitate absorption of B-12 C)saturate B-12 storage sites
B) Intrinsic factor is essential to the absorption of vitamin B-12. It binds to the vitamin and facilitates an active transport mechanism for B-12 absorption in the terminal ileum.
The region of interest for detection of a left-to-right cardiac shunt is drawn around which structure: A)superior vena cava B)one or both lungs C)left ventricle D)right ventricle and great vessels
B) The region of interest for detection of a left-to-right cardiac shunt is drawn around one or both lungs to generate a pulmonary time-activity curve.
For an adult, what are the normal values for Pulse, BP, Respirations, and Temperature?
Pulse=60-100bpm BP:Diastolic=60-90mmHg; Systolic=95-140mmHg Respirations=12-20breaths/min Temperature=97.7-99.5 degrees F
A common antecubital vein used for intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical is the: A)cephalic B)radial C)brachial D)ulnar
A) A variety of antecubital veins can be used for drug administration, but the two most commonly used are the basilic and cephalic veins.
The 51Cr-red cell sequestration study is performed to identify abnormal destruction of RBC's by the: A)bone marrow B)heart C)liver D)spleen
D) The red cell sequestration study is performed to determine if the patient's anemia is the result of active splenic sequestration of normal red cells.
The difference in hematocrit values between the average whole-body hematocrit and the venous heatocrit is the result of: A)difference in vessel size B)variation in RBC diameter C)increased amount of blood in extremities D)plasma leakage
A) Hematocrits vary with vessel size. Smaller vessels yield a lower hematocrit value than larger vessels.
What is the % of uptake: Thyroid=2,876; Patient Bkgd=563; Standard=10,111; Room Bkgd=124
A tech is asked to check the flow rate on a drip infusion on a patient in the department. An acceptable flow rate is how many drops per min: A)1-5 B)10-20 C)40-60 D)75-100
B) An acceptable flow rate for a drip infusion is 10-20 drops per minute. This rate may be adjusted by physician order.
The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the measured red cell volume by the: A)hematocrit B)plasmacrit C)corrected hematocrit D)correctied plasmacrit
C) The formula for calculating the total blood volume, based on the red cell volume, uses the corrected hematocrit in the denominator.
The calculated plasma volume in milliliters is: Net Std counts-839,621cpm; Std dilution factor=15; Net plasma counts=2,528cpm/mL
If the concentration of a 1:2,000 dilution is 0.05uCi/mL, what is the tracer concentration of the original solution?
A patient scheduled for 18F-FDG imaging has a blood glucose level of 100mg/dL. The tech should: A)reschedule the patient B)administer insulin to lower glucose level C)administer glucose to raise glucose level D)proceed with the exam
D) In an adult, a normal fasting blood glucose level is 70-115mg/dL. Because the patient's blood glucose level is within the normal range, the technologist can proceed with the examination.
What is the % gallbladder ejection fraction: Maximum gallbladder counts=185,623; Minimum gallbladder counts=77,203
After a 99Mo/99mTc generator is eluted, it takes approximately how many hours for the 99mTc activity to build up to a maximum level: A)8hr B)12hr C)24hr D)the secular generator can be eluted only once
C) Maximum 99mTc activity is obtained about 24hr after the last elution of 99mTc.
What is the total activity of 8mL of 99mTc eluate that has a concentration of 2.0MBq/mL?
16MBq. total activity=2.0MBq/mLx8mL=16MBq
A wet column generator is equipped with all the following parts EXCEPT: A)alumina column B)lead shield C)charging port D)collection port
C) A wet-column generator is not equipped with a charging port because the saline supply is contained within the generator itself. A dry-column generator, however, uses a charging port to add saline to the column.
According to the USP, the max allowable aluminum concentration in 99mTc eluate is not to exceed: A)0ug/mL B)10ug/mL C)20ug/mL D)10mg/mL
B) According to the USP, a 99mTc eluate should contain no more than 10ug/mL of Al(+3) in 1mL of eluate.
Which statement about determining 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate using the lead shield method is TRUE: A)eluate is assayed only for 99Mo B)eluate in the lead shield is measured with the dose calibrator set to assay 99Mo
B) The lead shield method of determining 99Mo contamination is based on the energy differences between 99mTc photons (140keV) and 99Mo photons (740,780keV).
The test kit to measure Al ion concentration in 99mTc eluate contains specially treated indicator paper and an Al solution with a concentration of appx: A)2ug/mL B)5ug/mL C)10ug/mL D)20ug/mL
C) The test kit contains an Al solution with a concentration of approximately 10ug/mL, the max Al ion concentration allowed in 99mTc eluate as established by the USP.
Which pair of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging: A)99mTc-SC and 99mTc-pentetate aerosol B)99mTc-albumin and 133Xe C)99mTc-MAA and 133Xe D)99mTc-bicisate and 99mTc-pentetate aerosol
15 rem is equal to how many mSv?
Following the injection of 99mTc-MAA for a perfusion lung scan, activity is seen in the kidneys and brain. This is indicative of: A)right to left cardiac shunt B)renal failure C)CHF D)incorrect particle size
A) right to left cardiac shunt
Which ingredients in a sulfur colloid kit are combined and heated: A)99mTc-pertechnetate and thiosulfate mix B)thiosulfate mix and acid C)99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mix, and acid D)99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mix, acid, and buffer
C) A sulfur colloid kit contains the following reagents: acid, sodium thiosulfate, the material from which the colloidal particle is formed, and a buffer. The buffer is added after boiling.
When preparing to withdraw a dose of 32P-chromic phosphate, the tech visually inspects the it and notes that it is a blue-green color. The tech should next: A)contact the manufacturer B)reschedule the procedure C)withdraw the dose
C) 32P-chromic phosphate is a blue-green color. Because this is the radiopharmaceutical's normal appearance, the tech should continue preparing the unit dose.
What is the concentration of 99mTc-succimer if 1.5mL succimer reagent and 30mCi 99mTc-pertechnetate (concentration is 18mCi/mL) are mixed to prepare the radiopharmaceutical?
9.4mCi/mL. 30mCi/18mCi/mL=1.7mL 30mCi/(1.7mL+1.5mL)=9.4mCi/mL
Which radiopharmaciutical, when correctly prepared, will have the smallest particle size: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-albumin colloid C)99mTc-human serum albumin D)99mTc-MAA
C) 99mTc-human serum albumin
What method is used to calculate pediatric dose: A)weight B)Clark's formula C)body surface area D)Talbot's nomogram E)all the above
E) All methods can be used to calculate pediatric dose.
A vial of 67Ga is calibrated to contain 5mCi at 0600, Pacific Standard Time, on March 8. How much activity does the vial contain on March 9 at 1200, Eastern Standard Time?
3.9mCi. 0600PST=0900EST. DF=0.787 5mCix0.787=3.9mCi
Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of radionuclides used for imaging: A)photon energy 50-500keV B)effective half-life long enough to permit imaging C)particulate emission D)low toxicity
C) Particulate emission is not a desirable characteristic of a radionuclide used for imaging.
To reduce the possibility of pyrogenic reactions, all kits should be prepared using saline that contains bacteriostatic preservatives. True or False?
All of the following are advantages of the in vitro method of labeling RBC's with 99mTc-pertechnetate EXCEPT: A)RBC's can be washed to remove substances from the plasma that may interfere with labeling B)has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis
What equipment is needed to verify the size and number of MAA particles in a 99mTc-MAA preparation: A)dose calibrator B)limulus amebocyte lysate solution C)chromatography strips, solvent, developing chamber D)hemocytometer, light microscope
D) Particles are viewed with the aid of a microscope. Their size and number can be determined by using the grids on the hemocytometer as a reference.
According to NRC regulations, records of patient dosage determinations must be retained for how long: A)3yrs B)5yrs C)10yrs D)indefinitely
A) The NRC requires that patient unit dosage records be retained for 3 years.
During RBC labeling with 51Cr, the purpose of adding ascorbic acid to the ACD whole-body solution is to: A)prevent hemolysis of the RBC's B)maintain the pH of the mix C)prevent clot formation D)reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state
D) Ascorbic acid acts as a reducing agent to change the valence of radiochromium from +6 to +3, which stops the labeling process.
Upon visual inspection, a vial of 99mTc-MAA has a white, slightly cloudy appearance. What should the tech do: A)prepare unit doses from the vial B)prepare another vial of 99mTc-MAA C)filter the preparation D)adjust the pH of the preparation
A) 99mTc-MAA is made up of aggregated protein particles (albumin). It normally appears as a cloudy, milky solution.
Convert 23mCi to SI units.
If an MAA kit contains appx 6 million particles, what reconstituting volume is required to obtain 500,000 particles in 0.4mL: A)0.03mL B)0.21mL C)4.8mL D)12mL
When assembling a needle and syringe for an intravenous administration, all areas must remain sterile EXCEPT: A)outer side of syringe barrel B)syringe tip C)needle shaft D)needle tip
A) The areas of a needle and syringe that must remain sterile are any areas that will come into contact with the sterile solution being withdrawn into the syringe or any part of the needle that will be introduced into the patient.
The NRC defines an unrestricted area as one in which an individual will receive less than how many millirems in an hour: A)2mrem B)5mrem C)50mrem D)100mrem
A) According to the NRC, an unrestricted area is one in which access is not limited by or under control of a licensee and one in which an individual will receive less than 2mrem in any hour.
A package containing radioactive material produces 0.4mR/hr at the surface and no detectable radiation exposure at 1 meter from the package. What DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package?
Category 1 (white)
The NRC requires that all of the following information be included in unit dosage measurement records EXCEPT: A)date and time of measurement B)dose calibrator make and model C)patient's name D)radiopharmaceutical name
B) Dosage measurement records must include the radiopharmaceutical, the patient's name or identification number, the prescribed dosage, the determined dosage, date and time of measurement, and name of the person who measured the dosage.
If the distance between a radiation point source and a survey meter is doubled, the measured radiation exposure rate is reduced: A)to 1/2 original exposure rate B)to 1/4 original exposure rate C)to 1/8 original exposure rate
B) The inverse square law states that by doubling the distance from a point source, the radiation intensity is reduced to 1/4 of the original intensity.
If excessive Al is present in 99mTc eluate, which of the following would be expected on a bone scan: A)lung uptake B)liver uptake C)thyroid uptake D)gastric uptake
According to NRC, a written directive for the administration of 89Sr-chloride must include all the information EXCEPT: A)route of administration B)radiopharmaceutical name C)patient's SSN D)signature of an authorized user
C) Do not use patient's Social Security Number
According to the NRC, the radiation dose to the fetus of a declared pregnant worker must not exceed how many rems during the pregnancy: A)500 B)50 C)5 D)0.5
D) According to the NRC, the radiation dose to the fetus of a declared pregnant worker must not exceed 0.5rem (500mrem) during the entire pregnancy.
Which of the following monitoring techniques should be used to rule out internal contamination after handling a radioiodine solution: A)thyroid uptake after 24hr B)urine count after 2-4hr C)plasma count after 24hr D)pocket dosimeter reading
A) Iodine is taken up into the thyroid gland whether it is ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin. Therefore, using an uptake probe to measure radioiodine uptake the day after handling a radioiodine solution is the method of choice.
Which is an example of a radionuclidic impurity: A)free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc-sulfur colloid B)presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate C)presence of Al ions in 99mTc eluate D)presence of pyrogens in eluate
B) Presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate
According to NRC, packages with which DOT labels must be checked for contamination using a wipe test: A)yellow 11 B)white 1 and yellow 11 C)yellow 11 and yellow 111 D)white 1, yellow 11, and yellow 111
D) According to the NRC, all shipments of radioactive materials identified with DOT radioactive labels of White 1, Yellow 11, or Yellow 111 must be tested for contamination using a wipe test.
The first step in the decontamination of personnel is to: A)remove contaminated personal or protective clothing B)wash contaminated areas of the skin with soap and water C)remove the contaminated person from the site of the spill
A) Most contamination may be eliminated by removing a personal clothing or protective garb. Once contaminated clothing is removed, decontamination of skin surfaces should begin.
According to the NRC, patient dosage records must be retained for how many years: A)1 B)3 C)5 D)as long as the facility's license is in effect
B) According to the NRC, patient dosage records must be retained for 3 years.
According to NRC regulations, a written directive must me retained: A)1yr B)3yrs C)5yrs D)indefinitely
B)According to the NRC, written directives must be retained for 3 years.
If a tech stands next to a radioactive source that is producing an exposure rate of 0.5mrem/hr for 20min, what radiation dose does the tech receive: A)0.17mrem B)0.5mrem C)10mrem D)17mrem
A wipe test gives a reading of 1240cpm with a background count of 410cpm. If the efficiency of the instrument is 35%, what is the wipe test reading in dpm?
Ten millisieverts is equivalent to how many millirems?
1,000 1mSv=100mrem 10x100mrem=1,000mrem
If a tech received dosimeter readings that are nearly equal to the NRC limits, which is the most appropriate action: A)the RSO must review the technologist's work habits B)the RSO must give the technologist a written warning
A) If an occupationally exposed worker has an exposure reading that approaches the NRC limits, the RSO is required to review the individual's work habits to determine what changes can be made to decrease exposure.
How often must dose calibrator constancy be performed?
Daily. According to the NRC, dose calibrator constancy must be tested on a daily basis before the instrument is used to measure radiopharmaceuticals.
According to the NRC, records of survey meter calibration are retained for how long?
The NRC requires that survey meter calibration records be retained for 3 years. It does not require records for daily constancy tests.
Radiochemical impurities often result from: A)introduction of water into the kit B)introduction of oxygen int the kit C)introduction of nitrogen into the kit D)a and b only E)all of the above
It is a proper technique to clean the septum of a kit reaction vial, and inject an amount of air equal to the volume being withdrawn when preparing a unit dose. True or False
According to the NRC, how often must survey meters be calibrated?
According to NRC regulations, survey meters must be calibrated before first use, annually, and after each repair.
What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for the purpose of leukocyte labeling: A)to act as an anticoagulant B)to hasten the settling of erythrocytes C)to separate platelets from leukocytes D)improve labeling efficiency
B) to hasten the settling of erythrocytes
The standard of practice dictates that the COR offset correction be performed how frequently on SPECT cameras: A)daily B)weekly C)monthly D)quarterly
B) It is recommended that the COR offset correction be performed at least weekly.
How often should a uniformity flood be acquired on a scintillation camera: A)daily B)weekly C)monthly D)quarterly
A) The standard of practice calls for acquisition of a uniformity flood every day the camera is used, prior to performing patient studies.
Static frame mode acquisition is the most appropriate type of image acquisition for which procedure: A)first phase of a 3-phase bone scan B)LVEF determination C)thyroid imaging D)renal function imaging
C) A static acquisition is performed in studies where the radiopharmaceutical localizes and remains in the area of interest for a period of time long enough for imaging to be completed.
Which radionuclide source is used to acquire a uniformity correction flood: A)99mTc point source w/o collimator B)57Co sheet source w/o collimator C)99mTc point source with collimator in place D)57Co sheet source with collimator in place
D) The collimator must be in place when uniformity correction acquisitions are performed because collimators have inherent variations that differ from one collimator to another.
It is recommended that high-count uniformity correction flood images be acquired how frequently?
For uniformity correction maps, it is recommended that high-count flood images be acquired weekly. These flood images should not be confused with daily uniformity flood images that are acquired to check detector response.
Which will increase resolution of a "spot view" bone image obtained with a parallel-hole collimator: A)increasing the pulse-height analyzer window width B)moving the camera closer to the patient's body C)using fewer shades of gray to display the image
B) The resolution of a parallel-hole collimator is greatest at its surface, so the closer the collimator is to the patient, he better the resolution will be.
If a Butterworth filter is applied to an image and the order of the filter remains constant, which frequencies will result in the smoothest image: A)0.50cycles/pixel B)0.42cycles/pixel C)0.33cycles/pixel D)0.15cycles/pixel
D) The lower the cutoff frequency, the more high frequencies (which provide image detail) are removed from an image.
When a high activity of a radiouclide is used for a PET scan, image quality is degraded because: A)deadtime decreases B)random events increase C)attenuation increases D)noise increases
B) As activity increases, so does the number of events.
If a 20% window is set around a centerline of 364keV, what energies will be accepted by the pulse-height analyzer?
A tech changes collimators from a low-energy all-purpose to a high-resolution collimator. If the same number of counts are acquired, how will the acquisition time change
Because the holes are smaller and the septa are often longer in a high-resolution collimator, fewer photons pass through the channels and strike the crystal. This decreases sensitivity and takes more time.
Testing for pyrogens is achieved by: A)radiochromatography B)limulus amebocyte lysate assay C)ITLC D)none of the above
B) Testing for pyrogens is achieved by limulus amebocyte lysate assay.
For a patient undergoing bone imaging, the information from the medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image EXCEPT: A) gallbladder surgery a year ago B)abdominal surgery 10 days ago C)radiation therapy to the breast 6 months ago
A)gallbladder surgery a year ago.
If a patient is injected with 99mTc-MAA in an upright position, which is most likely to be seen on the perfusion lung images: A)increased tracer activity in lung apices B)decreased tracer activity in lung apices C)decreased tracer activity in lung bases
B) If the patient is in the upright position, the apices of the lung receive very little blood flow.
If the usual adult dosage of 99mTc-MAA is 4mCi, a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should receive what dosage: A)1mCi B)2mCi C)3mCi D)4mCi
B) For adult patients who have only one lung and , therefore half the lung vasculature, half the usual dosage is recommended.
Which step would be appropriate during a standby-assist wheelchair transfer: A)wheelchair should be perpendicular to the imaging table B)wheelchair footrests should be out of the way C)wheelchair should be parallel to the imaging table
B) The footrests should always be moved out of the way. The wheelchair must be properly aligned to the imaging table (depending on patient condition) and locked.
Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells include: A)fasting for at lest 4hr B)smoking cessation for at least 24hr C)discontinuation of certain medications D)lab work and info concerning recent blood transfusions
D) No special preparation is really needed for a white blood cell infection imaging other than a possible interference if the patient has had a recent blood transfusion.
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which collimators: A)flat field B)pinhole C)parallel hole D)pinhole or parallel hole
D) A pinhole collimator provides an image with better resolution and offers the ability to obtain oblique views. A parallel-hole used with electronic zoom can provide a magnified image with good resolution.
Which of the following measures absorbed doses: A)millicurie B)becquerel C)gray D)all of the above
C) Absorbed doses are measured in gray.
The % LVEF calculated from the net counts per min shown here End diastole=2,875; End systole=2,162 is approx: A)13% B)25% C)33% D)75%
OSHA requires that personnel exposure records be provided to employees: A)monthly B)quarterly C) annually D)biannually
C) OSHA requires that personnel exposure records be provided to employees annually.
Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by: A)60-100bpm B)R wave occurs at constant intervals C)PR interval 0.12-0.20sec long D)all the above
D) The characteristics of normal sinus rhythm as they appear on an ECG tracing are: heart rate of 60-100bpm, R waves at regular intervals, P waves present and preceded QRS complex, PR interval between 0.12 and 0.20 sec long, QRS complex less than 0.12sec
After stress myocardial imaging with 201Tl, 1-1.5mCi of 201Tl may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to: A)improve patient throughput B)demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily C)demonstrate infarct size more precisely
B) Defects visualized on stress images are interpreted as myocardial ischemia if the defect fills in on the resting images.
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60min during hepatobiliary imaging, what may be administered: A)cimetidine B)morphine C)dobutamine D)furosemide
B) If the gallbladder is not visualized after 1hr but tracer is seen in the common bile duct and small intestine, morphine may be administered. Morphine contracts the sphincter of Oddi.
Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes: A)administration of laxatives B)fasting for at least 2hr before imaging C)enema immediately before imaging D)oral or intravenous hydration
B) Bowel preparations are contraindicated before Meckel's diverticulum imaging. It is recommended that patients fast for at least 2 hours before imaging to reduce stomach secretions.
Which 99mTc-labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent GI bleeding: A)HSA B)lidofenin C)RBC's D)Sulfur colloid
C) 99mTc-labeled RBC's are preferred, because this tracer remains in the blood pool for an extended period that permits imaging up to 24 hours.
Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to: A)rule out transplant rejection B)rule out uretopelvic obstruction C) enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney D)increase blood flow to the kidneys
B) Furosemide is a diuretic that increases the production of urine. Activity retained in the collecting system or renal pelvis may indicate an obstruction in that area.
Which event is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study: A)radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder B)the peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened
Early (6hr after injection) 67Ga imaging should be performed if what condition is suspected: A)sarcoma B)osteomyelitis C)lymphoma D)bronchogenic carcinoma
B) 67Ga imaging can be performed from 6hr-3 days or longer. When the exam is being performed for inflammatory process, early imaging is indicated.
The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is: A)stay home when ill B)wear gloves, mask, and hospital gown at all times C)wash hands before and after patient contact D)maintain distance from patients
C) It is widely accepted that handwashing is considered to be the single most effective way of preventing the spread of infection in a medical care facility.
111In-pentetreotide normally localizes in all of the following sites EXCEPT: A)pituitary gland B)salivary gland C)spleen D)thyroid gland
B) 111In-pentetreotide normally localizes in the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, liver, spleen, bladder, and bowel. NOT SALIVARY GLAND
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of 99mTc-exametazime: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1-2hr D)24hr
C) For the best image quality, brain imaging with 99mTc-exametazime should begin no sooner than 90 min after tracer administration.
Radioactivity is visualized in all of the following areas during a normal cisternographic study EXCEPT: A)cerebral convexities B)basal cisterns C)lateral ventricles D)central canal
C) Normally, cerebral spinal fluid flows out of the lateral ventricles. Reversal of this flow (or reflux) and visualization of tracer in the lateral ventricles is an abnormal finding.
Patient prep for instilling colloidal 32P into the peritoneal cavity includes: A)surgical placement of a LeVeen shunt to remove excess peritoneal fluid B)introducing 99mTc-SC into the cavity to confirm that the 32P will disperse evenly C)fasting 8-12hr
B) Before instilling 32P into the peritoneal space, 99mTc-SC is introduced to demonstrate that the agent will disperse throughout the cavity, thereby uniformly irradiating the peritoneal space.
Patient prep for post-thyroidectomy 131I whole-body imaging for metastases may include all EXCEPT: A)discontinuation of thyroid hormone B)administration of exogenous TSH C)administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging
The administration technique for 99mTc-bicisate includes: A)direct venous stick B)infusion at peak cardiac stress C)bolus injection technique D)minimize environmental stimuli
D) It is desirable to image the brain in as close to a resting state as possible, because uptake of 99mTc-bicisate can be affected by sensory input.
What instruction should be given to patients after administration of 18F-FDG for PET imaging: A)the patient may leave and return in 90 min B)the patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins C)the patient may read
B) Patient's who receive 18F-FDG for PET imaging must remain quiet during the interval between tracer administration and imaging.
In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin: A)15min after meal, and every 15min for 1hr B)immediately after meal, and every 15min for at least 2 hr
B) With the patient upright, imaging should begin immediately after meal for 1min. Then every 15min for at least 2hr.
A patient with a chest tube arrives in the NM dept for an imaging study. The tech should: A)place the chest tube's external apparatus on the imaging table next to patient B)place chest tube's external apparatus on a level lower than the patient's chest
B) For proper drainage, chest tube apparatus must always remain lower than the patient's chest.
The following studies are ordered for a patient: GFR determination 99mTc-pentetate; Shilling test 57Co 0.5uCi; Thyroid uptake 123I-sodium iodide. What order should the studies be performed?
Shilling test Thyroid uptake GFR
To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi, a tech should give what prior to imaging: A)fatty meal B)cold water C)adenosine D)dextrose intravenously
B) In an effort clear activity out of the thyroid, liver, and bowel, cold water can be given to the patient prior to imaging to increase the target-to-nontarget ratio for imaging the heart.
A contraindication for performing a myocardial perfusion resting study is: A)fasting for 4-12hr B)drinking cold water prior to the study C)having a nitroglycerin drip D)NPO for 4-12hr
C) A nitroglycerin drip will interfere with determining if, at rest, the cardiac arteries are partially occluded.
A technologist is working in a hot lab where the exposure rate is 20mR/hr. What sign should be on the door?
Caution: Radiation Area
A pregnant tech receives 350mrem during her pregnancy according to a film badge worn at waist level. Has the NRC dose limit for the fetus been exceeded?
If the hematocrit is 40%, and a plasma-volume determination is 3900mL, what are the derived red cell and whole blood volumes, in milliliters?
If an anticoagulant is added to the blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is know as: A)plasma B)serum C)antiserum D)blood complement
A) Preventing clot formation with the addition of an anticoagulant will result in the fluid portion remaining as plasma. The fluid portion of a blood sample that is allowed to clot is serum.
In a hospital setting, CPR cannot legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the patient: A)has an infectious disease B)has a DNR C)is hallucinating D)has a terminal illness
B) CPR should always be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest unless the patient, patient's family, or patient's physician has specifically requested that it not be done. In these cases, DNR should be clearly indicated on the patient's chart.
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans: A)gastric emptying B)deep vein thrombosis C)LeVeen shunt patency D)Meckel's diverticulum
D) Pentagastrin stimulates ectopic gastric mucosal uptake of pertechnetate by 30-60% while decreasing emptying time into small bowel and decreasing background.
Data collected from a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper: A)linear B)semilog C)log-log D)logit-log
B) Red cell survival half-time is obtained from a graph of the net counts per minute of each blood sample plotted on the log scale and plotted on the linear scale of semilog paper.
Which of the following is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration: A)dim the lights B)inject using IV line C)talk calmly to patient D)ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open
C) Place patient in quiet environment before injection.
If a 1:50 dilution of a solvent with a tracer concentration of 50uCi/mL is prepared, followed by a 1:200 dilution of the 1:50 dilution, what is the final dilution?
Which of the following medical history is relevant to 111In-capromab pendetide imaging: A)breast-feeding schedule B)mamogram results C)PSA level D)pregnancy status
C) 111In-capromab is used in patients who have been newly diagnosed with prostate cancer to more accurately stage the disease before surgery.
On the basis of the data, what are the net counts in the cardiac region of interest? Cardiac ROI: total counts 28,503 in 417 pixels Background ROI: total counts 1,859 in 88 pixels
If a 99mMo/99mTc generator is eluted at 0700 and again at 1300, the next day's 99mTc yield at 0700: A)is decreased B)is unaffected C)is increased D)cannot be predicted
A) The yield of 99mTc is affected by 3 factors: the amount of 99Mo on the column at the time of elution, the time elapsed since the last elution, and the elution efficiency of the generator.
127mCi is equvalent to how many GBq?
4.7GBq. (127mCi)x(37MBq/mCi)=4,699MBq 1,000MBq=1GBq (4,699MBq)x1GBq/1000MBq=4.7GBq
All factors affect the amount of 99mTc eluted from a 99Mo/99mTc generator except: A)amount of 99Mo activity on column B)time elapsed since last elution C)elution efficiency D)saline volume used for elution
D) The amount of 99mTc activity removed will be the same regardless of the saline volume used for elution.
According to the NRC, max allowable 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate at the time of administration to the patient must not exceed: A)0.15uCi B)1uCi C)5uCi D)5uCi
A) According to the NRC, the max allowable 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate must not exceed 0.15uCi99Mo/99mTc at the time of administration to the patient.
An eluate of 99mTc-pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination with these results. 99Mo=45uCi; 99mTc=275. Should this eluate be used?
If a new generator is eluted several times and each time the amount of Al in the eluate exceeds the USP limit, what should the tech do?
Contact the generator manufacturer.
Which of the following 99mTc-labeled agents is approved for perfusion brain imaging: A)apcitide B)exametazime C)succimer D)tetrofosmin
B) 99mTc-exametazime (HMPAO) is approved for perfusion brain imaging. Apcitide is used to visualize deep vein thrombosis. Succimer is a static renal imaging agent. Tetrofosmin is a myocardial perfusion agent.
The shelf life of most 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals is: A)4-6hr B)6-8hr C)10-12hr D)16-18hr
B) Most prepared 99mTc-agents may be administered for 6-8 hours after preparation.
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
ASCP MLT/MLS Certification Exam (BOC) Preparation
Nuclear medicine exam review
Everything for the Final Test
CCMA Practice Test Questions
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Nuclear Medicine Board Review Instrumentation
Nuclear Medicine/PET Isotopes
applications of rad review
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Nuclear Medicine Board review.
Patient Care for ARRT Boards NUCMED