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MIS 250 Exam 2

STUDY
PLAY
1) Which of the following is a basic concept associated with Web 2.0?
A) shift in users' preference from online sites to encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information
B) shift in users' role from the passive consumer of content to its creator
C) shift in users' interest from sharing information to finding information
D) shift in users' lifestyle due to increased purchasing power
E) shift in users' preference to environment-oriented products
B) shift in users' role from the passive consumer of content to its creator
2) Which of the following is a consequence of the use of social software?
A) People are using encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information.
B) People are using environmentally-friendly products.
C) People have increased purchasing power.
D) People are sharing more personal information.
E) People have become passive consumers of content.
D) People are sharing more personal information.
3) The use of ________ within a company's boundaries or between a company and its customers or stakeholders is referred to as Enterprise 2.0.
A) Web 1.0 techniques and intranet
B) extranet and intranet
C) Web 2.0 techniques and social software
D) extranet and Web 1.0 techniques
E) social software and extranet
C) Web 2.0 techniques and social software
4) Which of the following statements is true about Web 1.0?
A) It helps users share information.
B) It helps users find information.
C) Users rule these applications.
D) Users receive and give recommendations to friends.
E) It helps connect ideas and people.
B) It helps users find information.
5) A major benefit of social software is the ability to harness the "wisdom of crowds," which is also referred to as ________.
A) collaborative filtering
B) preference elicitation
C) creative commons
D) consensus democracy
E) collective intelligence
E) collective intelligence
6) The concept of ________ is based on the notion that distributed groups of people with a divergent range of information and expertise will be able to outperform the capabilities of individual experts.
A) cognitive dissonance
B) creative commons
C) collective intelligence
D) consensus democracy
E) preference elicitation
C) collective intelligence
7) Which of the following statements is true about a discussion forum?
A) It started out as a novice's way of expressing themselves using very simple Web pages.
B) It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological entries that comment on everything.
C) Rather than trying to produce physical books to sell or use as gifts, users merely want to share stories about their lives or voice their opinions.
D) It is dedicated to a specific topic, and users can start new threads.
E) It enables a person to voice his/her thoughts through short "status updates."
D) It is dedicated to a specific topic, and users can start new threads.
8) Which of the following statements is true about blogs?
A) They emulate traditional bulletin boards and allow for threaded discussions between participants.
B) They allow individuals to express their thoughts in a one-to-many fashion.
C) They are dedicated to specific topics, and users can start new threads.
D) They are moderated so that new postings appear only after they have been vetted by a moderator.
E) They enable people to voice their thoughts through short "status updates."
B) They allow individuals to express their thoughts in a one-to-many fashion.
9) Which of the following Web 2.0 applications has been classified as the "amateurization" of journalism?
A) blogs
B) discussion forums
C) social presence tools
D) instant messaging
E) online chats
A) blogs
10) Keith Norat, the Chief Technology Officer of Kender Internationals, relies on blogs while making decisions. In his words, "Blogs are an important part of our purchase decisions. In todays environment, blogs provide diverse information that help us to make good decisions." Which of the following is an underlying assumption?
A) Information in blogs is accurate.
B) Some of the blogs are not written well.
C) Blogs are company sponsored.
D) Professional bloggers rely heavily on advertisements to sustain their operations.
E) Blogs lead to the "amateurization" of journalism.
A) Information in blogs is accurate.
11) Which of the following explains the term "blogosphere?"
A) the movement against blogs
B) the amateurization of blogs
C) the revolution against microblogging
D) the community of all blogs
E) the movement against discussion forums
D) the community of all blogs
12) Social presence tools are also known as ________ tools.
A) social bookmarking
B) instant chatting
C) microblogging
D) videoconferencing
E) geotagging
C) microblogging
13) Which of the following facilitates real-time written conversations?
A) instant messaging
B) discussion forums
C) status updates
D) blogs
E) tagging
A) instant messaging
14) ________ take the concept of real-time communication a step further by allowing people to communicate using avatars.
A) Blogging
B) Microblogging
C) Instant messaging
D) Discussion forums
E) Virtual worlds
E) Virtual worlds
15) Which of the following statements is true about virtual worlds?
A) It allows people to communicate using avatars.
B) Small firms have not been successful in consumer-oriented virtual worlds.
C) It is designed for short "status updates."
D) It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological entries that comment on everything.
E) Large companies have been able to realize the potential of consumer-oriented virtual worlds.
A) It allows people to communicate using avatars.
16) The network effect refers to the notion that the value of a network is dependent on ________.
A) the speed of the network
B) the number of other users
C) the knowledge of the users
D) the commitment of the users
E) the technical expertise of the moderators
B) the number of other users
17) ________ is a cooperative Web 2.0 application making use of the network effect.
A) Media sharing
B) RSS
C) Tagging
D) Instant messaging
E) A discussion forum
A) Media sharing
18) ________ is the distribution of digital media, such as audio or video files via syndication feeds for playback on digital media players.
A) Narrowcasting
B) Crowdsourcing
C) Blogging
D) Netcasting
E) Phishing
D) Netcasting
19) Podcasting is a misnomer because podcasts ________.
A) are concerned with the dissemination of information to a narrow audience
B) cannot be played on Apple's iPods
C) are not related to distribution of digital media for digital devices
D) are concerned with outsourcing tasks to a large group of people or community
E) can be played on a variety of devices in addition to Apple's iPods
E) can be played on a variety of devices in addition to Apple's iPods
20) Social bookmarking allows users to share Internet bookmarks and to create categorization systems. These categorization systems are referred to as ________.
A) tag clouds
B) podcasts
C) folksonomies
D) geospatial metadata
E) microblogs
C) folksonomies
21) Which of the following statements is true about social bookmarking?
A) It is the distribution of digital media.
B) It allows netcasters to publish and push current shows to the watchers/listeners.
C) It allows people to communicate using avatars.
D) It allows users to create folksonomies.
E) It allows users to post short "status updates."
D) It allows users to create folksonomies.
22) ________ is the creation of a categorization system by users.
A) Social cataloging
B) Podcasting
C) Social blogging
D) Netcasting
E) Crowdsourcing
A) Social cataloging
23) ________ refers to manually adding metadata to media or other content.
A) Phishing
B) Tagging
C) Crowdsourcing
D) Podcasting
E) Netcasting
B) Tagging
24) Which of the following statements is true about tagging?
A) It is the process of creating a categorization systems by users.
B) It is the process of distributing digital media for playback on digital media players.
C) It is the process of adding metadata to pieces of information.
D) It is the process of of creating avatars and syndication feeds.
E) It is the process of creating an online text diary.
C) It is the process of adding metadata to pieces of information.
25) ________ refer(s) to a way of visualizing user generated tags or content on a site.
A) Crowdsourcing
B) Tag clouds
C) Phishing
D) Podcasting
E) Pharming
B) Tag clouds
26) Which of the following is one of the uses of geotagging?
A) to use avatars while chatting online
B) to create categorization systems for social cataloging
C) to know the location of a person sending out a breaking news update
D) to create folksonomies for social bookmarking
E) to use syndicate feeds while sharing media
C) to know the location of a person sending out a breaking news update
27) Which of the following is an example of synchronous communication?
A) online reviews
B) work flow automation systems
C) intranets
D) videoconferencing
E) collaborative writing tools
D) videoconferencing
28) Which of the following is an example of asynchronous communication?
A) group calendars
B) videoconferencing
C) online chatting
D) shared whiteboards
E) electronic meeting support system
A) group calendars
29) Which of following factors differentiates asynchronous communication from synchronous communication?
A) language
B) network speed
C) coordination in time
D) expertise
E) distance
C) coordination in time
30) In today's business environment, project teams comprise highly specialized members, many of whom are not colocated. ________ are comprised of members from different geographic areas.
A) Work groups
B) Virtual teams
C) Work teams
D) Task forces
E) Command groups
B) Virtual teams
31) Which of the following is an electronic communication tool that allows users to files, documents, and pictures to each other and share information?
A) e-mail
B) instant messaging
C) application sharing
D) electronic calendars
E) knowledge management systems
A) e-mail
32) Which of the following is an electronic conferencing tool that facilitates information sharing and rich interactions between users?
A) e-mail
B) wikis
C) blogs
D) instant messaging
E) online document systems
D) instant messaging
33) Which of the following is a collaboration management tool that is used to facilitate virtual or colocated meetings ?
A) Internet forums
B) videoconferencing
C) wikis
D) fax
E) intranets
E) intranets
34) Web-based collaboration tools ________.
A) allow for easy transferability from one person to another
B) have well-documented procedures for system complexities
C) reduce the risk of exposing sensitive corporate data
D) require users to frequently upgrade their software
E) are complex and time-consuming to learn
A) allow for easy transferability from one person to another
35) Which of the following statements is true about Gmail?
A) It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group Web sites and share team information.
B) It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee.
C) It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new events.
D) It is an instant messaging client.
E) It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application.
B) It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee.
36) Which of the following Google Apps is an instant messaging client?
A) Gmail
B) Google Calendar
C) Google Talk
D) Google Sites
E) Google Docs
C) Google Talk
37) ________ is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application.
A) Gmail
B) Google Talk
C) Google Sites
D) Google Calendar
E) Google Docs
E) Google Docs
38) Which of the following statements is true about Google Sites?
A) It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group Web sites and share team information.
B) It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee.
C) It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new events.
D) It is an instant messaging client.
E) It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application.
A) It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group Web sites and share team information.
39) A(n) ________ system allows users to publish, edit, version track, and retrieve digital information.
A) social presence
B) collective intelligence
C) application sharing
D) content management
E) peer production
D) content management
40) Which of the following statements is true about content management systems?
A) It is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities.
B) The creation of the goods or services is dependent on the incremental contributions of the participants.
C) It allows the assignment of different roles for different users.
D) Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome.
E) It is a family of syndication feeds used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news stories.
C) It allows the assignment of different roles for different users.
41) Which of the following is the responsibility of an administrator in a content management system?
A) editing the content into a final form
B) managing account access levels to the digital information
C) sharing team information
D) publishing new information
E) creating database applications
B) managing account access levels to the digital information
42) ________ is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities.
A) Peer production
B) A folksonomy
C) Creative commons
D) Groupware
E) Social software
A) Peer production
43) Which of the following statements is true about peer production?
A) The creator is responsible for publishing new information.
B) Only editors have the right to develop new content.
C) It is also known as enterprise content systems.
D) Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome.
E) The guest is a person who can only view the digital information.
?
44) Which of the following occurs during wiki wars?
A) editors do not agree with the creators of the content
B) participants debate on a particular topic before creation
C) administrators refuse to publish a creator's content
D) guests edit the creator's content without permission
E) contributors continuously edit or delete each others' posts
E) contributors continuously edit or delete each others' posts
45) ________ is a phenomenon where companies use everyday people as a cheap labor force.
A) Nearshoring
B) Phishing
C) Crowdsourcing
D) Narrowcasting
E) Pharming
C) Crowdsourcing
46) ________ enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects.
A) E-filing
B) E-auction
C) E-tailing
D) E-lancing
E) E-timing
D) E-lancing
47) ________ sites create social online communities where individuals with a broad and diverse set of interests meet and collaborate.
A) Crowdsourcing
B) Social cataloging
C) Social networking
D) Social bookmarking
E) Media sharing
C) Social networking
48) Which of the following statements is true about viral marketing?
A) It uses the network effect to increase brand awareness.
B) It uses everyday people as a cheap labor force.
C) It is the dissemination of information to a narrow audience.
D) It enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects.
E) It is used to market a product without the audience realizing it.
A) It uses the network effect to increase brand awareness.
49) Which of the following is a critical factor in the success of a viral marketing campaign?
A) restricting access to viral content
B) doing what the audience expects
C) making sequels
D) restricting easy distribution
E) distributing products for free
C) making sequels
50) ________ attempts to provide relevant search results by including content from blogs and microblogging services.
A) Social search
B) OpenSearch
C) Enterprise search
D) Metasearch
E) Netsearch
A) Social search
51) Which of the following statements is true about Real Simple Syndication (RSS)?
A) It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect.
B) It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience.
C) It is used to market the product without the audience realizing it.
D) It is used to enable people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects.
E) It is used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news stories.
E) It is used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news stories.
52) For companies operating in the digital world, online collaboration with suppliers, business partners, and customers is crucial to being successful. ________ allow(s) data to be accessed without intimate knowledge of other organizations' systems, enabling machine-to-machine interaction over the Internet.
A) Web services
B) Widgets
C) RSS feeds
D) Social search
E) Peer production
A) Web services
53) Android is a Web service hosted by Google to ________.
A) create customized search features
B) build mobile phone applications
C) manage personal calendars
D) integrate Google's mapping system into Web sites
E) allow users to build applications that work with multiple social communities
B) build mobile phone applications
54) Which of the following statements is true about widgets?
A) They can be placed on a desktop, but cannot be integrated into a Web page.
B) They can integrate two or more Web services.
C) They are created by the integration of Web services and mashups.
D) They are small interactive tools used for a single purpose.
E) They can be integrated into a Web page, but cannot be placed on a desktop.
D) They are small interactive tools used for a single purpose.
55) Together, Web services and widgets enable the creation of ________.
A) protocols
B) mashups
C) codecs
D) folksonomies
E) tag clouds
B) mashups
56) Which of the following statements is true about a mashup?
A) It is a small interactive tool used for a single purpose.
B) It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect.
C) It is the process of allowing companies to use everyday people as a cheap labor force.
D) It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience.
E) It is an application or a Web site that integrates one or more Web services.
E) It is an application or a Web site that integrates one or more Web services.
57) Which of the following is a reason for the development of semantic Web?
A) Web pages can be understood by people but not by computers.
B) Users should be able to use any device in any network for any service.
C) Users give a lot of unnecessary personal information to social networking sites.
D) Widgets cannot be integrated into Web pages.
E) Users are skeptical while making purchases online due to the fear of getting cheated.
A) Web pages can be understood by people but not by computers.
58) Which of the followings is NOT true about an Enterprise 2.0 strategy?
A) Web 2.0 sites base their success on user-driven self-expression.
B) Enterprise 2.0 applications are not suited to traditional top-down organizational structures.
C) Enterprise 2.0 applications should be driven by a specific usage context.
D) Organization-wide Enterprise 2.0 implementations typically need changes in terms of organizational culture.
E) Within organizations, the critical mass needed for an Enterprise 2.0 application is often easily achieved.
E) Within organizations, the critical mass needed for an Enterprise 2.0 application is often easily achieved.
59) Enterprise 2.0 is likely to fail if ________.
A) an organization's workforce is dominated by baby boomers
B) an organization has a flat organizational hierarchy
C) an organization emphasizes open communication
D) an organization's workforce is dominated by millennials
E) it is integrated well with an organization's existing information systems infrastructure
A) an organization's workforce is dominated by baby boomers
68) ________ is a computer networking model in which multiple types of computers are networked together to share data and services.
A) Centralized computing
B) Mainframe computing
C) Task computing
D) Distributed computing
E) Serial computing
D) Distributed computing
69) A(n) ________ is a computer network that spans a relatively small area, allowing all computer users to connect with each other to share data and peripheral devices, such as printers.
A) enterprise network
B) wide area network
C) campus area network
D) local area network
E) value-added network
D) local area network
70) A(n) ________ is a wide area network connecting disparate networks of a single organization into a single network.
A) value-added network
B) global network
C) enterprise network
D) local area network
E) personal area network
C) enterprise network
71) ________ are private, third-party-managed medium-speed WANs that are shared by multiple organizations.
A) Value-added networks
B) Enterprise networks
C) Global networks
D) Local area networks
E) Personal area networks
A) Value-added networks
72) A(n) ________ is an emerging technology that uses wireless communication to exchange data between computing devices using short-range radio communication, typically within an area of 10 meters.
A) value-added network
B) local area network
C) personal area network
D) enterprise network
E) campus area network
C) personal area network
73) ________ are network services that include the storing, accessing, and delivering of text, binary, graphic, and digitized video and audio data across a network.
A) Print services
B) File services
C) Message services
D) Application services
E) Software services
C) Message services
74) The high-speed central networks to which many smaller networks can be connected are known as ________.
A) last-mile networks
B) ISPs
C) Internet exchange points
D) private branch exchanges
E) backbones
E) backbones
75) Which of the following wireless communication technologies uses high-frequency light waves to transmit data on an unobstructed path between nodes—computers or some other device such as a printer—on a network at a distance of up to 24.4 meters?
A) Bluetooth
B) wireless LAN
C) high-frequency radio
D) infrared line of sight
E) microwaves
D) infrared line of sight
76) WLANs based on a family of standards called 802.11 are also referred to as ________.
A) Bluetooth
B) wireless fidelity
C) ethernet
D) personal area networks
E) infrared line of sight
B) wireless fidelity
77) Which of the following is a characteristic of terrestrial microwave communication?
A) high attenuation
B) speeds up to 16 Mbps
C) low expense
D) high susceptibility to eavesdropping
E) low electromagnetic interference
D) high susceptibility to eavesdropping
78) ________ is the set of rules that governs how a given node or workstation gains access to the network to send or receive data.
A) Media access control
B) Logical link control
C) Hypertext transfer protocol
D) File transfer protocol
E) Internet control message protocol
A) Media access control
79) ________ is a commonly used method of random access control, in which each workstation "listens" to traffic on the transmission medium (either wired or wireless) to determine whether a message is being transmitted.
A) Code division multiple access
B) Carrier sense multiple access
C) Hybrid coordination function
D) Group packet radio service
E) Point coordination function
B) Carrier sense multiple access
80) In a(n) ________ network all nodes or workstations are connected to a central hub, or concentrator, through which all messages pass.
A) ring
B) bus
C) star
D) mesh
E) tree
C) star
81) Which of the following network topologies is capable of covering the largest distance?
A) star network
B) bus network
C) ring network
D) mesh network
E) tree network
C) ring network
82) Which of the following statements is true of a bus network topology?
A) A bus network has the most complex wiring layout.
B) Extending a bus network is more difficult to achieve than it is for other topologies.
C) A bus network topology enables all network nodes to receive the same message through the network cable at the same time.
D) The configuration of bus networks facilitates easy diagnosis and isolation of network faults.
E) In a bus network, every computer and device is connected to every other computer and device.
C) A bus network topology enables all network nodes to receive the same message through the network cable at the same time.
83) As per the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following layers defines the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded?
A) application layer
B) transport layer
C) presentation layer
D) data link layer
E) session layer
C) presentation layer
84) According to the OSI model, the ________ layer defines the protocols for structuring messages.
A) physical
B) session
C) transport
D) data link
E) network
C) transport
85) According to the OSI model, the physical layer defines ________.
A) the protocols for data routing to ensure that data arrives at the correct destination
B) the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded
C) the mechanism for communicating with the transmission media and interface hardware
D) the way that application programs such as electronic mail interact with the network
E) the protocols for structuring messages
C) the mechanism for communicating with the transmission media and interface hardware
86) A ________ is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals so that telephone lines may be used as a transmission medium to send and receive electronic data.
A) modem
B) LAN card
C) network adapter
D) PCI connector
E) USB port
A) modem
87) A ________ is a PC expansion board that plugs into a computer so that it can be connected to a network.
A) transceiver
B) multiport repeater
C) cable router
D) network interface card
E) modular connector
D) network interface card
88) A(n) ________ is a piece of networking hardware that manages multiple access points and can be used to manage transmission power and channel allocation to establish desired coverage throughout a building and minimize interference between individual access points.
A) router
B) wireless controller
C) network switch
D) modem
E) network interface card
B) wireless controller
89) Which of the following entities is responsible for managing global and country code top-level domains, as well as global IP number space assignments?
A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
C) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
D) Internet Governance Forum (IGF)
E) European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN)
C) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
90) Which of the following Internet connectivity technologies enables data to be sent over existing copper telephone lines by sending digital pulses in the high-frequency area of telephone wires?
A) integrated services digital network technology
B) digital subscriber line technology
C) dial-up service technology
D) cable modem technology
E) fiber to the home technology
B) digital subscriber line technology
91) Computers working as servers on the Internet are known as ________.
A) network adapters
B) modems
C) network switches
D) Ethernet hubs
E) Internet hosts
E) Internet hosts
92) A(n) ________ is a unique identifier that should be created and used when designing a database for each type of entity, in order to store and retrieve data accurately.
A) foreign key
B) surrogate key
C) primary key
D) superkey
E) candidate key
C) primary key
93) In which of the following database models does the DBMS view and present entities as two-dimensional tables, with records as rows, and attributes as columns?
A) relational database model
B) hierarchical database model
C) network database model
D) object-oriented database model
E) semantic database model
A) relational database model
94) ________ is a technique to make complex databases more efficient and more easily handled by the DBMS.
A) Assertion
B) Exception handling
C) Normalization
D) Model elimination
E) Structural induction
C) Normalization
1) Which of the following statements is true about business intelligence?
A) It is the act of outsourcing tasks, traditionally performed by an employee or contractor, to an undefined, large group of people or community, through the use of information technology.
B) It is the process by which a customer-owned mutual organization or co-operative changes legal form to a joint stock company.
C) It is the use of information systems to gather and analyze information from internal and external sources in order to make better business decisions.
D) It is an organization's process of defining its strategy, or direction, and making decisions on allocating its resources to pursue this strategy, including its capital and people.
E) It is the use of human resources to gather and analyze information from external sources in order to make better business decisions.
C) It is the use of information systems to gather and analyze information from internal and external sources in order to make better business decisions.
2) "Backward looking" budgets are typically based on ________.
A) forecasts
B) marketing research
C) future trends
D) historical data
E) current market conditions
D) historical data
3) Responding to threats and opportunities and continuous planning is based on analyzing data from the ________ level of the organization.
A) operational
B) executive
C) tactical
D) business
E) strategic
A) operational
4) Taking entities as tables, each row is a ________.
A) field
B) record
C) attribute
D) form
E) query
B) record
5) Taking entities as tables, each column is a(n) ________.
A) attribute
B) record
C) form
D) bot
E) query
A) attribute
6) An attribute is also referred to as a(n) ________.
A) form
B) record
C) field
D) query
E) bot
C) field
7) A(n) ________ is a collection of related attributes about a single instance of an entity.
A) bot
B) form
C) query
D) field
E) record
E) record
8) In DBMS, data are kept separate from the applications' programming code. This means that ________.
A) an application cannot be changed without making changes to the database
B) an application's programming code needs to be updated continuously to keep up with the database
C) an application needs to be changed when database is changed
D) database does not need to be changed if a change is made to an application
E) database needs to be changed when a change is made to an application
D) database does not need to be changed if a change is made to an application
9) A common way to represent a data model is a(n) ________.
A) entity-relationship diagram
B) normalization diagram
C) report-query diagram
D) form-record diagram
E) report generator
A) entity-relationship diagram
10) Data type helps the DBMS ________.
A) present the data in a useful format
B) format data
C) allocate storage space
D) eliminate data duplication
E) retrieve information
C) allocate storage space
11) To finalize the data model in order to actually build the database, a process called ________ is used to make sure the database will operate efficiently.
A) slicing and dicing
B) normalization
C) clustering
D) visualization
E) inferencing
B) normalization
12) In DBMS, normalization helps to ________.
A) eliminate data duplication
B) retrieve information
C) format data
D) present the data in a useful format
E) allocate storage space
A) eliminate data duplication
13) Once the data model is created, the format of the data is documented in a(n) ________.
A) data warehouse
B) data mart
C) expert system
D) data type
E) data dictionary
E) data dictionary
14) A data dictionary is also known as ________.
A) data mart
B) data warehouse
C) metadata repository
D) entity-relationship diagram
E) clickstream data
C) metadata repository
15) Bringes, a retail chain, has retail stores across three states. With its current legacy system, Bringes is having problems tracking the inventory levels for its stores. It is planning to implement Oracle database systems to replace this legacy system. Which of the following most supports Bringes' decision to replace its legacy system with an Oracle database system?
A) Implementing Oracle database system means hiring additional specialized personnel to manage it.
B) Partial implementation of the Oracle database system can create more problems than it solves.
C) Conversion cost required for the implementation of Oracle database system is supported by IT budgets.
D) Bringes' channel partners use a database system that supports the Oracle database system.
E) Maintenance cost of an Oracle database system is more than the legacy system presently in use.
D) Bringes' channel partners use a database system that supports the Oracle database system.
16) Treston, an automobile manufacturer, has recently implemented a new database system. It is confident that this system will help enhance the company's internal (employees) and external (customers and channel partners) communication. Treston is planning to pursue a just-in-time inventory system soon after the database system is implemented. After the implementation of the database system, however, Treston realized that the database system was not effective. Which of the following, if true, can be cited as a reason for the failure of Treston's database system?
A) Microsoft launched a new version of Enterprise Microsoft Access which is better than Treston's database system.
B) The maintenance cost of Treston's new database system was three times more than the one it was previously using.
C) Treston's new database system was not supported by the database system of its suppliers and distributors.
D) Treston's competitors implemented its database a few days prior to Treston's implementation date.
E) Treston had to hire specialized personnel to manage its new database system, which added to its costs.
C) Treston's new database system was not supported by the database system of its suppliers and distributors.
17) Business rules are captured by the designers of the database and included in the data dictionary to ________.
A) organize and sort the data, complete calculations, and allocate storage space
B) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
C) eliminate data duplication
D) make sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to the entity
E) capture the structure of the database
B) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
18) ________ are used to capture data to be added, modified, or deleted from the database.
A) Forms
B) Reports
C) Queries
D) Bots
E) Layers
A) Forms
19) A(n) ________ is a compilation of data from the database that is organized and produced in printed format.
A) form
B) attribute
C) field
D) entity
E) report
E) report
20) A query is used to ________.
A) organize and sort the data in a database
B) allocate storage space for a database
C) eliminate data duplication
D) retrieve information from a database
E) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
D) retrieve information from a database
21) Which of the following statements is true about query by example capabilities in a database?
A) It helps to create a query quickly and easily.
B) It refers to immediate automated responses to the requests of users.
C) It is designed to handle multiple concurrent transactions from customers.
D) Its primary use is gathering new information.
E) It prevents illegal entries into a database.
A) It helps to create a query quickly and easily.
22) The systems that are used to interact with customers and run a business in real time are called ________.
A) tactical systems
B) strategic systems
C) operational systems
D) informational systems
E) executive systems
C) operational systems
23) ________ is the data that is deemed most important in the operation of a business.
A) Metadata
B) Master data
C) Reference data
D) Query data
E) Tactical data
B) Master data
24) Which of the following statements is true about an operational system?
A) Its primary purpose is to support managerial decision making.
B) It consists of historical or point-in-time data.
C) Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
D) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
E) It is primarily used by managers.
D) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
25) Which of the following statements is true about informational systems?
A) Its primary purpose is to run the business on a current basis.
B) It is primarily used by online customers, clerks, salespersons, and administrators.
C) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
D) Its goal is to enhance performance.
E) Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
E) Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
26) ________ integrates data from various operational systems.
A) Data warehouse
B) Metadata repository
C) Data modeling
D) Master data
E) Data mining
A) Data warehouse
27) The purpose of a data warehouse is to ________.
A) standardize the format of data retrieved from different systems
B) allow managers to run queries and reports themselves without having to know query languages or the structure of the underlying data
C) provide capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
D) put key business information into the hands of more decision makers
E) reduce the complexity of the data to be analyzed
D) put key business information into the hands of more decision makers
28) ________ refers to the process of standardizing the format of data retrieved from different systems.
A) Data cleansing
B) Data mining
C) Normalization
D) Content mining
E) Clustering
A) Data cleansing
29) A ________ is a data warehouse that is limited in scope.
A) metadata repository
B) master data
C) data model
D) data reduction
E) data mart
E) data mart
30) Which of the following statements is true about a data mart?
A) It standardizes the format of data retrieved from different systems.
B) It contains selected information from the data warehouse.
C) It stores master data only.
D) It is is a compilation of data from the database that is organized and produced in printed format.
E) It helps to eliminate data duplication.
B) It contains selected information from the data warehouse.
31) Information and knowledge discovery tools are used primarily to ________.
A) standardize the format of data retrieved from different systems
B) reduce the complexity of the data to be analyzed
C) extract information from existing data
D) discover "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
E) allow managers to learn query language for the effective maintenance of the database
C) extract information from existing data
32) ________ are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
A) Ad hoc queries
B) Exception reports
C) Drill-down reports
D) Scheduled reports
E) Key-indicator reports
D) Scheduled reports
33) Which of the following statements is true about key-indicator reports?
A) They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
B) They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
C) They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
D) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
E) They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine decision.
A) They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
34) Which of the following statements is true about exception reports?
A) They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
B) They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
C) They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine decision.
D) They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
E) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
E) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
35) ________ help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
A) Ad hoc queries
B) Exception reports
C) Drill-down reports
D) Scheduled reports
E) Key-indicator reports
C) Drill-down reports
36) Which of the following statements is true about ad hoc queries?
A) They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
B) They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
C) They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
D) They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine decision.
E) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
D) They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine decision.
37) ________ refers to the process of quickly conducting complex, multidimensional analyses of data stored in a database that is optimized for retrieval, typically using graphical software tools.
A) Inferencing
B) Online analytical processing
C) Normalization
D) Data mining
E) Predictive analysis
B) Online analytical processing
38) Online analytical processing tools enable users to ________.
A) discover "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
B) find associations or correlations among sets of items
C) analyze different dimensions of data beyond simple data summaries
D) group related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes
E) extract textual information from Web documents
C) analyze different dimensions of data beyond simple data summaries
39) Which of the following statements is true about online analytical processing server?
A) It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
B) It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
D) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E) It understands how data is organized in the database and has special functions for analyzing the data.
E) It understands how data is organized in the database and has special functions for analyzing the data.
40) How do online analytical processing systems improve performance?
A) They preaggregate data so that only the subset of the data necessary for the queries is extracted.
B) They use reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain.
C) They make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem.
D) They allow for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
E) They provide capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive relationships in the data.
A) They preaggregate data so that only the subset of the data necessary for the queries is extracted.
41) In online analytic processing systems, ________ are the values or numbers the user wants to analyze.
A) dimensions
B) forms
C) measures
D) queries
E) entities
C) measures
42) In online analytic processing systems, ________ provide a way to summarize the data.
A) forms
B) measures
C) facts
D) records
E) dimensions
E) dimensions
43) Which of the following statements is true about the online analytic processing cube?
A) It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
B) It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It understands how data is organized in the database and has special functions for analyzing the data.
D) It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
E) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
D) It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
44) Data mining complements online analytic processing in that it ________.
A) finds associations or correlations among sets of items
B) provides capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
C) extracts textual information from Web documents
D) groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes
E) analyzes different dimensions of data beyond simple data summaries
B) provides capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
45) ________ can be achieved by rolling up a data cube to the smallest level of aggregation needed, reducing the dimensionality, or dividing continuous measures into discrete intervals.
A) Data cleansing
B) Normalization
C) Clustering
D) Data reduction
E) Inferencing
D) Data reduction
46) Which of the following statements is true about association discovery?
A) It is a technique used to find correlations among sets of items.
B) It is the process of grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It is the use of analytical techniques for extracting information from textual documents.
D) It is a type of intelligent system that uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E) It makes sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to the entity.
A) It is a technique used to find correlations among sets of items.
47) ________ is the process of grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
A) Normalization
B) Data mining
C) Clustering
D) Inferencing
E) Slicing and dicing
C) Clustering
48) Which of the following is a recording of a user's path through a Web site?
A) clustering
B) normalization
C) slicing and dicing
D) clickstream data
E) inferencing
D) clickstream data
49) ________ is the ability to attract and keep visitors.
A) Normalization
B) Inferencing
C) Stickiness
D) Crowdsourcing
E) Visualization
C) Stickiness
50) Which of the following analysis are you conducting to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results?
A) predictive analysis
B) time-series analysis
C) linear regression analysis
D) what-if analysis
E) multivariate analysis
D) what-if analysis
51) Which of the following statements is true about expert systems?
A) It is composed of a network of processing elements that work in parallel to complete a task, attempt to approximate the functioning of the human brain and can learn by example.
B) It is a program that works in the background to provide some service when a specific event occurs.
C) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
D) It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
E) It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
52) Which of the following statements is true about a rule in expert systems?
A) It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
B) It makes sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to the entity.
C) It allows multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
D) It is typically expressed using an "if--then" format.
E) It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
D) It is typically expressed using an "if--then" format.
53) ________ allows expert system rules to be represented using approximations or subjective values in order to handle situations where information about a problem is incomplete.
A) Fuzzy logic
B) Normalization
C) Clustering
D) What-if analysis
E) Stickiness
A) Fuzzy logic
54) The processing in an ES is called ________.
A) clustering
B) inferencing
C) normalization
D) recommending
E) data cleansing
B) inferencing
55) Which of the following statements is true about neural networks?
A) It allows multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
B) It works in the background to provide some service when a specific event occurs.
C) It attempts to approximate the functioning of the human brain and can learn by example.
D) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E) It helps analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
C) It attempts to approximate the functioning of the human brain and can learn by example.
56) Which of the following statements is true about user agents?
A) They are also known as Web spiders.
B) They are agents that search to find the best price for a particular product you wish to purchase.
C) They are agents that continuously analyze large data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user.
D) They are agents that automatically perform a task for a user.
E) They are agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm e-mail addresses off Web sites or deposit spyware on machines.
D) They are agents that automatically perform a task for a user.
57) Which of the following is a role of monitoring and sensing agents?
A) tracking inventory levels
B) sending a report at the first of the month
C) assembling customized news
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important to a user
E) finding the best price for a particular product the user wants to purchase
A) tracking inventory levels
58) Which of the following is a role of data mining agents?
A) tracking inventory levels
B) sending a report at the first of the month
C) assembling customized news
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important to a user
E) finding the best price for a particular product the user wants to purchase
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important to a user
59) Which of the following statements is true about explicit knowledge assets?
A) It reflects the processes and procedures that are located in a person's mind on how to effectively perform a particular task.
B) It reflects the person's ability to effectively solve a problem without external help.
C) It reflects knowledge that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of information systems.
D) It reflects an individual's special knowledge about a new-to-the-world product.
E) It reflects the strategies that are located in a person's mind on how to effectively perform a particular task.
C) It reflects knowledge that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of information systems.
60) Which of the following is the primary goal of a knowledge management system?
A) Identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage tacit knowledge.
B) Continuously analyzing large data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user.
C) Grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
D) Allowing hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem to observe how these changes influence the results.
E) Identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage explicit knowledge.
A) Identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage tacit knowledge.
61) Social network analysis is a technique that attempts to ________.
A) analyze large data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user
B) analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred
C) discover "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
D) allow hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem to observe how these changes influence the results
E) find experts in particular subject areas
E) find experts in particular subject areas
62) ________ refers to the display of complex data relationships using a variety of graphical methods.
A) Normalization
B) Visualization
C) Clustering
D) Inferencing
E) Textual mining
B) Visualization
63) Which of the following statements is true about digital dashboards?
A) It is the combination of various analysis techniques and interactive visualization to solve complex problems.
B) It supports usage models like push reporting, exception reporting and alerts, and pull reporting.
C) It can visualize features and relationships between features drawn from an underlying geographic database.
D) Analysts can combine geographic, demographic, and other data for locating target customers.
E) It a system for creating, storing, analyzing, and managing geographically referenced information.
B) It supports usage models like push reporting, exception reporting and alerts, and pull reporting.
64) Digital dashboards provide the decision makers with a quick overview of key performance indicators and other key operational statistics and trends. This usage model is known as ________.
A) exception reporting
B) pull reporting
C) ad hoc reporting
D) drill-down reporting
E) push reporting
E) push reporting
65) While using digital dashboards, pull reporting is conducted to ________.
A) alert the user of any items that require immediate attention
B) provide the decision makers with a quick overview of key performance indicators
C) discover "hidden" predictive relationships in the data
D) analyze the root causes of an exception
E) extract textual information from Web documents
D) analyze the root causes of an exception
66) Which of the following statements is true about hard data?
A) It involves the use of text mining technologies.
B) It includes nonanalytical information.
C) It involves input from dedicated personnel.
D) It includes textual news stories.
E) It includes facts and numbers.
E) It includes facts and numbers.
67) Which of the following explains the phrase "data is geocoded"?
A) It is transformed into coordinates.
B) It is shared in the Internet.
C) It is used to create Web pages.
D) It is compared with similar historical data.
E) It is converted into soft data.
A) It is transformed into coordinates.
1) Traditionally, companies are organized around four distinct functional areas. Which of the following is one of those four areas?
A) supply chain management
B) risk management
C) technology management
D) communication management
E) systems management
A) supply chain management
2) Which of the following is a core business process?
A) time-to-purchase
B) make-to-stock
C) plan-to-produce
D) account-to-report
E) hire-to-retire
B) make-to-stock
3) Whenever an order is placed with online retailers, the retailers put together the order, ship it, and charge the customer's credit card. This process of selling a product or service is known as the ________ process.
A) make-to-order
B) time-to-market
C) order-to-cash
D) procure-to-pay
E) make-to-stock
C) order-to-cash
4) For most businesses, the ________ process entails subprocesses such as creating a customer record; checking the customer's creditworthiness; creating an order; checking and allocating stock; picking, packing, and shipping; invoicing; and collecting the payment.
A) order-to-cash
B) make-to-order
C) procure-to-pay
D) make-to-stock
E) plan-to-produce
A) order-to-cash
5) An online retailer has finished creating a customer record. What should the retailer do next in an order-to-cash process?
A) create order
B) allocate stock
C) pick, pack, and ship
D) prepare and send invoice
E) check customer credit
E) check customer credit
6) In the order-to-cash process, once "checking credit" is done, it is followed by ________.
A) collecting payment
B) creating an order
C) allocating stock
D) picking, packing, and shipping
E) preparing and sending the invoice
B) creating an order
7) An online retailer has just finished creating an order for a customer. In an order-to-cash process what should the retailer do next?
A) collect payment
B) create customer record
C) allocate stock
D) pick, pack, and ship
E) prepare and send invoice
C) allocate stock
8) The processes associated with the acquiring of goods from external vendors are together referred to as the ________ process.
A) make-to-stock
B) make-to-order
C) order-to-cash
D) plan-to-produce
E) procure-to-pay
E) procure-to-pay
9) Which of the following is typically the first step in the procure-to-pay process?
A) negotiate price and terms
B) issue purchase order
C) receive goods
D) receive invoice
E) settle payment
A) negotiate price and terms
10) In the procure-to-pay process, the negotiation of price and terms is followed by ________.
A) settling the payment
B) creating the customer record
C) issuing the purchase order
D) receiving the goods
E) receiving the invoice
C) issuing the purchase order
11) ________ immediately after the purchase order is issued in the procure-to-pay process.
A) Payment is settled
B) Price and terms are negotiated
C) Credit is checked
D) Goods are received
E) Invoices are received
D) Goods are received
12) Receiving the goods is immediately followed by ________ in the procure-to-pay process.
A) settling the payment
B) negotiating the price and terms
C) issuing the purchase order
D) creating the order
E) receiving the invoice
E) receiving the invoice
13) In the ________ process, goods are produced based on forecasts and are stored in a warehouse and sales orders are then fulfilled from the inventory.
A) configure-to-stock
B) make-to-stock
C) make-to-order
D) engineer-to-order
E) assemble-to-order
B) make-to-stock
14) Which of the following uses a push-based approach?
A) order-to-cash
B) procure-to-pay
C) production-to-order
D) make-to-stock
E) make-to-order
D) make-to-stock
15) In the ________ process, raw materials, subcomponents, and accessories are procured based on forecasts, but actual manufacturing does not start until sales orders are received.
A) order-to-cash
B) procure-to-pay
C) make-to-stock
D) acquire-to-dispose
E) make-to-order
E) make-to-order
16) Which of the following uses a pull-based approach?
A) make-to-order
B) make-to-stock
C) plan-to-produce
D) account-to-report
E) acquire-to-dispose
A) make-to-order
17) Which of the following is typically the first step in the make-to-stock process?
A) scheduling production
B) procuring inputs
C) processing sales orders
D) negotiating price and terms
E) creating customer records
B) procuring inputs
18) Which of the following goods are typically produced under a make-to-order approach?
A) expensive high-volume goods
B) cheap low-volume goods
C) very expensive low-volume goods
D) mass-produced goods
E) goods from external vendors
C) very expensive low-volume goods
19) Which of the following goods are produced using the make-to-order approach?
A) commercial aircraft
B) shampoos
C) lipsticks
D) televisions
E) refrigerators
A) commercial aircraft
20) ________ are performed by the functional areas that process inputs and produce outputs.
A) Base activities
B) Core activities
C) Support activities
D) Extended activities
E) Focus activities
B) Core activities
21) Which of the following is a core activity?
A) human resource activities
B) technology development
C) operations and manufacturing
D) administrative activities
E) infrastructure activities
C) operations and manufacturing
22) Inbound logistics involves business activities associated with ________.
A) distributing end products within the order-to-cash business process
B) creating marketing literature
C) communicating with potential and existing customers
D) receiving and stocking raw materials, parts, and products
D) receiving and stocking raw materials, parts, and products
23) Assembly processes are ________ activities.
A) outbound logistics
B) marketing and sales
C) customer sales
D) administrative
E) operations and manufacturing
E) operations and manufacturing
24) Outbound logistics activities focus on the ________.
A) processing of orders
B) distribution of end products within the order-to-cash business process
C) pricing of goods and services
D) transformation of raw materials into end products
E) receiving and stocking of raw materials, parts, and products
D) transformation of raw materials into end products
25) Administrative activities focus on the ________.
A) design and development of applications that support the primary business activities
B) hardware and software that must be implemented to support the applications that the primary activities use
C) business activities associated with employee management
D) processes and decision making to orchestrate the day-to-day operations of an organization
E) purchasing of goods and services that are required as inputs for the primary activities
D) processes and decision making to orchestrate the day-to-day operations of an organization
26) The hardware and software that must be implemented to support the applications that the primary activities use are a part of the ________ activities.
A) human resources
B) technology development
C) procurement
D) inbound logistics
E) infrastructure
E) infrastructure
27) Which of the following is a support activity?
A) outbound logistics activities
B) operations and manufacturing activities
C) technology development activities
D) customer service activities
E) marketing and sales activities
C) technology development activities
28) Human resource activities ________.
A) is classified as a support activity since the primary activities cannot be accomplished without the employees to perform them
B) includes the design and development of applications that support the primary business activities
C) includes the purchasing of goods and services that are required as inputs to the primary activities
D) integrate the internal applications with suppliers, business partners, and customers
E) streamline the organization's internal value chain
A) is classified as a support activity since the primary activities cannot be accomplished without the employees to perform them
29) Designing and developing applications that support the primary business activities are a part of the ________ activities.
A) operations and manufacturing
B) outbound logistics
C) technology development
D) procurement
E) inbound logistics
C) technology development
30) A(n) ________ information flow consists of information that is received from another organization.
A) stand-alone
B) legacy
C) packaged
D) upstream
E) downstream
D) upstream
31) A(n) ________ information flow relates to the information that is produced by a company and sent along to another organization.
A) stand-alone
B) legacy
C) packaged
D) custom
E) downstream
E) downstream
32) Systems that focus on the specific needs of individual departments and are not designed to communicate with other systems in the organization are referred to as ________.
A) internally focused applications
B) externally focused systems
C) stand-alone applications
D) enterprise-wide systems
E) enterprise-information systems
C) stand-alone applications
33) Stand-alone systems are also known as ________.
A) ethernet systems
B) automated business systems
C) peripheral systems
D) legacy systems
E) converter systems
D) legacy systems
34) Legacy systems can prove problematic when information from multiple departmental systems is required to support business processes and decision making. Which of the following is most similar to the above scenario?
A) Chuck's is a retail chain that has an inventory management system which is tied to an RFID system. This system notifies Chuck's managers when the inventory in its stores fall below a certain level.
B) Quick Software Solutions has an automated system to track employee absence. It also uses a non-automated system like attendance registers that employees sign everyday. This information is updated to Quick's database management system on a weekly basis.
C) Nuok Tires supplies its products to Fresto, an automobile manufacturer. Nuok Tires' factories are located close to Fresto's factories to minimize transportation costs.
D) Fender, a guitar manufacturer, allows customers to design their guitars online. Potential buyers need to send this design with the order to receive their customized guitars.
E) Jsutmi successfully pursues a just-in-time inventory system. Recently, however, it has not been able to meet demand due to labor problems.
A) Chuck's is a retail chain that has an inventory management system which is tied to an RFID system. This system notifies Chuck's managers when the inventory in its stores fall below a certain level.
35) A(n) ________ is an integrated suite of business applications for virtually every department, process, and industry, allowing companies to integrate information across operations on a company-wide basis using one large database.
A) legacy system
B) management information system
C) decision support system
D) distributed system software
E) enterprise system
E) enterprise system
36) An internally focused system helps an organization coordinate with ________.
A) its suppliers
B) its business partners
C) the government
D) its departments
E) its customers
D) its departments
37) A(n) ________ coordinates business processes with customers, suppliers, and business partners of an organization.
A) internally focused system
B) legacy system
C) stand-alone system
D) intermediary system
E) externally focused system
E) externally focused system
38) A system that communicates across organizational boundaries is sometimes referred to as a(n) ________.
A) legacy system
B) interorganizational system
C) intraorganizational system
D) internally focused system
E) stand-alone system
B) interorganizational system
39) ________ are applications written by third-party vendors for the needs of many different users and organizations.
A) Packaged software
B) Custom software
C) Bespoke software
D) Personalized software
E) Tailored software
A) Packaged software
40) Applications that are designed and developed exclusively for a specific organization are known as ________.
A) collaborative software
B) custom software
C) groupware
D) ready-made application software
E) packaged software
B) custom software
41) Customers can purchase ________ software off the shelf to help them with their personal documents and communications.
A) personalized
B) tailored
C) packaged
D) custom
E) bespoke
C) packaged
42) Packaged software is ________.
A) used for standardized, repetitive tasks
B) developed exclusively for a specific organization
C) unique to a particular business or organization
D) an application that needs to be maintained internally when changes are required
E) used to accommodate a customer's particular preferences and expectations
A) used for standardized, repetitive tasks
43) Which of the following software is very cost effective since the vendor that builds the application spreads out the development costs by selling them to a large number of users?
A) packaged software
B) bespoke software
C) adapted software
D) corrected software
E) custom software
A) packaged software
44) Which type of software is best suited for tasks that are unique to a particular business?
A) collaborative
B) custom
C) groupware
D) packaged
E) ready-made application
B) custom
45) Which of the following is true regarding packaged software and custom software?
A) Packaged software are applications that are designed and developed exclusively for a specific organization.
B) The development costs of custom software are much higher than for packaged software because of the time, money, and resources that are required to design and develop them.
C) Packaged software is well suited for tasks that are unique to a particular business.
D) Custom software is cost effective since the vendor that builds the application can spread out development costs through selling to a large number of users.
E) Custom software is highly useful for standardized, repetitive tasks, such as writing a report or preparing a presentation.
B) The development costs of custom software are much higher than for packaged software because of the time, money, and resources that are required to design and develop them.
46) The features and modules that an enterprise system comes with out of the box are referred to as the ________.
A) best-practices version
B) reengineered version
C) vanilla version
D) customized version
E) modified version
C) vanilla version
47) ________ is a systematic, structured improvement approach by all or part of an organization whereby people critically examine, rethink, and redesign business processes in order to achieve dramatic improvements in one or more performance measures, such as quality, cycle time, or cost.
A) Business process management
B) Business activity monitoring
C) Business service management
D) Application performance management
E) Application service management
A) Business process management
48) In the 1990s, business process management was known as ________.
A) business systems management
B) business process reengineering
C) business service reengineering
D) application performance management
E) application service management
B) business process reengineering
49) After deciding to focus on business process management, the management of a company has just finished developing a vision for the organization. This vision specifies the company's business objectives. Typically, what should be the management's next step?
A) They should identify the ways in which information systems can be used to improve the various business processes.
B) They should design and implement a prototype of the new processes.
C) They should manage the information technology to be used from a business transaction perspective.
D) They should identify the critical processes that are to be redesigned.
E) They should understand and measure the existing processes as a baseline for future improvements.
D) They should identify the critical processes that are to be redesigned.
50) After identifying the ways in which information systems can be used to improve the processes, which of the following is the next step in business process management?
A) identifying the critical processes that are to be redesigned
B) understanding and measuring the existing processes as a baseline for future improvements
C) reducing costs and shortening the time it takes to get products to market
D) designing and implementing a prototype of the new process
E) developing a vision for the organization that specifies the business objectives
B) understanding and measuring the existing processes as a baseline for future improvements
51) How is business process management similar to total quality management?
A) They are intended to be cross-functional approaches to improve an organization.
B) They focus on radical redesign and drastic improvement of processes.
C) They focus on incremental change of processes.
D) They focus on the activities typically occurring at the operational level of the organization.
E) They focus on providing capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive relationships while conducting a forecast.
A) They are intended to be cross-functional approaches to improve an organization.
52) Applications that integrate business activities across departmental boundaries are often referred to as ________ systems.
A) manufacturing resource planning
B) computer-integrated manufacturing
C) capacity requirement planning
D) enterprise resource planning
E) materials requirement planning
D) enterprise resource planning
53) Which of the following is true regarding enterprise resource planning (ERP)?
A) It stores data in different locations.
B) It is an older version of materials requirement planning.
C) It helped in developing the manufacturing resource planning package.
D) Stand-alone applications are a developed version of ERP.
E) It makes the process of sharing information between business activities easier.
E) It makes the process of sharing information between business activities easier.
54) ________ support the important internal activities of the organization for producing their products and services.
A) ERP focus components
B) ERP core components
C) ERP extended components
D) ERP base components
E) ERP covering components
B) ERP core components
55) Financial management, operations management, human resource management, and other important internal activities require the support of ________.
A) ERP essence components
B) ERP exterior components
C) ERP core components
D) ERP extended components
E) ERP basis components
C) ERP core components
56) ________ support the primary external activities of the organization for dealing with suppliers and customers.
A) ERP components
B) ERP aggrandized components
C) ERP abridged components
D) ERP extended components
E) ERP core components
D) ERP extended components
57) Specifically, ERP extended components focus primarily on ________.
A) customer relationship management and product lifecycle management
B) product lifecycle management and supply chain management
C) customer relationship management and human capital management
D) human capital management and supply chain management
E) customer relationship management and supply chain management
E) customer relationship management and supply chain management
58) Which of the following is true regarding the formula for success of an enterprise system?
A) Enterprise systems implementations should include personnel from different departments.
B) The success of an enterprise system depends directly on the support received from middle-management.
C) Enterprise systems are simple to understand and implement when compared to stand-alone systems.
D) Using outside consultants tends to complicate the implementation of an enterprise system.
E) Once enterprise systems go live, employees experience an immediate growth in productivity.
A) Enterprise systems implementations should include personnel from different departments.
59) In service-oriented architecture, ________.
A) business processes are broken down into individual components or services
B) business processes of an organization are standardized
C) business processes of an organization are integrated from individual components
D) business processes are shared with channel partners
E) business processes are modified to prevent illegal activities within the process
A) business processes are broken down into individual components or services
60) By breaking down business processes into individual services, organizations can react more swiftly to changing business needs. To achieve these benefits, services have to follow three main principles:
A) reusability, interoperability, and reliability
B) reusability, reliability, and componentization
C) reusability, interoperability, and componentization
D) reusability, interoperability, and accessability
E) reusability, accessability, and componentization
C) reusability, interoperability, and componentization