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AGR 504 Livestock Diseases Test #3
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Terms in this set (89)
What would be the most common cause of colic in newborn foal?
Meconium not passing.
What causes Stomatitis?
Oral trauma, contact with chemical irritants such as horses who lick their legs after being blistered, ingestion of awns of barley, foxtail, porcupine grass, and spear grass, feeding on plants infested with hairy caterpillars
What are the clinical signs of Stomatitis?
Frothy salivation, reluctance to eat, resistance to oral examination
What organ produces the digestive enzymes?
Pancreas
What are the clinical signs of Colic in horses?
lying down or constant rolling, standing stretched out, trying to urinate or defecate frequently, turning of the head towards the flank, curling the upper lip, pawing at the ground, kicking at the abdomen, refusing to eat, no gastrointestinal sounds being emitted
How could you manage to prevent Colic?
increase turn out time, maintain a regular feeding schedule, always have clean water for the animal, feed a majority of forage, never feed moldy grain or hay, do not feed or water a hot horse, a consistent exercise regime, make changes in their diet slowly
How can humans contract Salmonella?
fecal - oral contact; in eggs, drinking water, from reptiles
What is Salmonella?
acute diarrhea, fever, dehydration - very smelly; chunks of intestine in stool; bacterial infection of the intestinal tract, gram negative, non-spore forming rod, endotoxin producer
What is the #1 cause of death in calf/foal diarrhea?
Dehydration along with loss of electrolytes
How could you distinguish between an outbreak of salmonella and Potomac Horse Fever (PHF)?
Test stool with pH paper; a high pH indicates bacteria; low pH indicates a virus. Salmonella is a bacteria, Potomac Horse Fever (PHF) is a virus.
What causes Winter Dysentery in cows?
Bovine coronavirus; change in feed, housing, temperature shifts, and stress
Where would you see Johne's Disease?
In older cattle over 8-10 years of age; clinical disease develops 2-5 years after transmission.
Describe bloat in cattle.
A condition where gas cannot be expelled normally or overproduces and builds to dangerous levels in the rumen.
How do cattle contract bloat?
High grain diet causing acidosis, small roughage particle size, interruption of consumption pattern, excess grain, inadequate adaptation to diet, legume pastures, obstruction of esophagus, vagus nerve damage, irregular nerve damage, , irregular feed intake because of weather, illness, change in diet, spoiled feed, interruption of water or salt intake
What are clinical signs of bloat in cattle?
left dorsal quadrant displacement - in severe cases, right side can descend; restlessness; rumen atony; dehydration because fluid cannot get to the true stomach (abomasum) and small intestines; death many times
What are clinical signs of lumpy jaw?
Granulomatous abscesses involving the mandible, facial distortion, loose teeth, dyspnea from swelling of the nasal cavity
What are clinical signs of gastric ulcers in horses?
Lack of performance, "off", diarrhea in horses, bruxism, hypersalivation, abdominal pain, black - tarry stools
When a large animal is choking, what is the #1 most common complication?
Aspiration Pneumonia
Describe enterotoxaemia in small ruminants.
Portions of the intestinal tract may be filled with frank blood or blood tinged fecal materials with many gram + rods on the lining of the tract. Causes severe enteritis, dysentery and toexemia in young animals; less than 1 month old.
What is enterotoxaemia in small ruminants caused by?
Clostridium perfringens type C and D; animal overeating carbohydrates
What is the causative organism of TGE in pigs?
Coronavirus
What is the most important primary cause of diarrhea in pigs less than 5 days of age?
E. coli
Name 3 diarrhea causers (rule-outs) for calves; adult cattle.
Calves:
Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) -- calves 6-24 months of age
Adult Cattle:
Winter Dysentery -- adult cattle
Johne's Disease -- older cattle 8-10 years
When does brucellosis cause an abortion?
Late gestation
When would you vaccinate for brucellosis?
Female calves 4-10 months of age once with RB-51 strain subcutaneously.
What is the causative organism for Vibrosis?
Campylobacter fetus veneralis or C. fetus fetus
What are the clinical signs for Vibrosis?
Early embryonic death, infertility, irregular cycles, protracted calving season, occasionally abortion; bulls are subclinical.
What are the 4 herpes viruses that cause reproductive issues in livestock?
IBR/ IPV - Infectious Bovine Rinotracheitis / Pustular Vulvovaginitis
Pseudorabies (Pigs) - "Aujeszky's Disesae" & "Mad Itch"
Equine Herpes Type 1 - "Equine Rhinopneumonitits" & "Equine Abortion Virus"
Equine Herpes Type 3 - Equine Coital Exanthema, "Genital Horsepox", & "Equine Venereal Balatis" -- in stallions
What are the clinical signs for leptospirosis in cattle?
bloody urine, mid to late-term abortions, (abortion storms), retention of fetal membranes, fever, dyspnea, anemia; abnormal milk in older cows (thick, yellow, blood-tinged) without mammary infection; pregnancy wastage within 6 weeks of infection; jaundice; kidney failure
What are the vaccination protocols for leptospirosis in cattle?
vaccinate cattle and dogs with multivalent bacterium, management to limit contact with contaminated environments/animals; keep out of ponds
What is the causative agent for toxoplasmosis?
Protozoan -- Toxoplasma gondii
What is the definitive host for toxoplasmosis?
Cats -- where the organism reaches maturity and reproduces
What are the clinical signs for toxoplasmosis?
initially flu-like symptoms which often get better, so clinical signs non-specific
What does California Mastitis Test (CMT) measure?
measures the WBC in the milk of each quarter; Cow side test to ID subclinical cases; Staph. Aureus
Causative organism for Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)?
Taylorella (Haemorphilus) equigentitalis bacteria
What is SMEDI in pigs?
Porcine Parvovirus (PPV): Stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, infertility
Clinical signs of eclampsia are caused by what?
Decreased absorption from the intestines, increased loss of calcium from the kidneys, sweat, or milk, or inhibition to osteolysis due to alterations in parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, or vitamin D
Which intracellular parasite appears large, paired, and teardrop shaped?
B. Babesiosis
How can you vaccinate for EVA?
Perform serologic test on all intact males - maintain records because once vaccinated animal will always show positive. Vaccinate negatie males at 6 months of age or older and within 10 days of testing and 4 weeks prior to breeding. Vaccinate mares that are to be bred by a carrier stallion at least 21 days prior to breeding then isolate for 21 days.
Who can you vaccinate for EVA?
Stallions and nonpregnant mares or foals less than 6 weeks
Describe clinical signs for EIA.
febrile episodes, petechial hemorrhages, conjunctivitis, anemia, depression, weight loss, cachexia, dependent edema. Severity depends on the strain, genetic makeup and status of the immune system.
How is EIA transmitted?
Transferred by blood-feeding insects & needles.
What is the name of the EIA test?
Coggins Test
Describe hardware disease.
"Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis" occurs as a consequence of perforation of the reticulum. It is common in mature dairy cattle, occasionally seen in beef cattle, and rarely reported in other ruminants. Cattle commonly ingest foreign objects because they do not discriminate against hard materials in feed and do not completely masticate feed before swallowing. Swallowed metallic objects, such as nails or pieces of wire, fall directly into the reticulum or pass into the rumen and are subsequently carried over the ruminoreticular fold into the cranioventral part of the reticulum by ruminal contractions.
Describe mulberry heart disease.
Common to see in diets with high amounts of soybeans, cereal grains, or high- moisture corn. Associated with diets low in selenium or vitamin E. The characteristic lesions are pericardial sac grossly distended with straw-colored fluid that contains fibrin strands and extensive hemorrhage throughout the epicardium and myocardium. Microscopically, the heart shows both vascular and myocyte lesions; in addition to interstitial hemorrhage, there is usually extensive myocardial necrosis together with fibrin thrombin capillaries.
What injection must be given to baby pigs and why?
Iron injections to prevent impaired oxygen carrying ability of RBC.
What is the normal CRT?
1-3 seconds.
What does CRT indicate?
Capillary Refill Time -- The hydration & anemia status of the animal.
Describe anaplasmosis.
An intracellular blood parasite in cattle. Usually in animals 1-2 years old, cases with severe anemia. Clinical signs include, weight loss, loss of milk production, anorexia, loss of coordination, breathlessness with exertion and rapid pulse in late stages. MM are pale then yellow.
What species does anaplasmosis affect?
Cattle
Describe primary contact dermatitis.
Acids, alkalis, oils, plants
Where on the body would you normally see dermatitis?
Moisture a predisposing factor or body locations which trap moisture - Neck, head and shoulder area.
What is DTM?
Dermatophyte Test Medium
Describe the testing for a fungus using a DTM.
Take a follicle of a hair from the animal and put it in the test vial. The vial is usually bright yellow, but a fungus will grow in the vial. If it turns bright red it is a pathogenic fungus virus. Obtain epithelial cells and introduce to the medium.
What are the clinical signs of Rain Scald?
Crusted, matted, painful, crusty papules on hair/ wool; not very pruritic; seen over rump and top line
What is the diagnosis for Rain Scald?
Stained impression smears diagnostic for active bacteria.
How do you manage Rain Scald?
Moisture is a predisposing cause with poor hygiene and avoid excess moisture and provide regular grooming/ proper hygiene
What are the clinical signs for ringworm?
Not very pruritic and little alopecia on most animals; face and neck; grey, circular lesions; spread quickly
What is the diagnosis for ringworm?
Fungal culture, Wood's lamp exam, direct microscopic exam
How do you manage ringworm?
Treat with antifungals, avoid contact with lesions and other animals
What are clinical signs for Greasy Pig?
Small, dark localized areas of infection around the face or on the legs, skin along the flank and belly and btwn. the legs becomes brown gradually, skin becomes wrinkled with flaking of large areas and has greasy feel to it
What is the diagnosis for Greasy Pig?
Affects nursery pigs the most, highly contagious through abrasions on feet and legs. Sudden onset with morbidity of 10-90% and mortality of 5-90%. Chronic affects weaner pigs. Occurs in 5-60 day old pigs. Presence of clinical signs
How do you manage Greasy Pig?
Good hygiene and proper sanitation.
What are warts caused by?
Papoa virus cause in all species but goats and swine & "Papillomatosis"
What is the equine parasite that causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation?
Onchocera
What is the "rule of thumb" that we need to remember for skin cancers?
The earlier the diagnosis, the better.
How will we diagnose skin cancers?
The best plan is to biopsy.
With a total body burn of >50% on a horse, what would be the prognosis?
Poor
Name the roundworm in horses.
Ascarid - common in foals & Parascaris spp.
What causes "rat tail" in horses?
Pinworms - irritate the anus which causes the horse to rub tail bone.
What is the difference in appearance in small and large strongyles in horses?
They look the same you can't tell the difference.
Which ectoparasite is almost invisible?
Culicoides - have a powerful bite and suck blood
Which ectoparasite is known for host/site specificity?
Pendunculosis (Lice)
Which lab test can you see liver flukes the best?
Ultrasound or Sedimentation rather than flotation because the eggs sink
Which fly is responsible for the greatest economic loss in US cattle?
Horn Fly and Face Fly
Stomach bots are common in horses but where can you see them in cattle?
In the glandular portion
What is the intermediate host of the bovine tapeworm?
Pasture Mite
What is the primary cellular response to parasites?
Eosinophillia
Name 3 things that lead to infestations.
Overcrowding, young host, susceptible breed, poor nutrition, concurrent disease, use of marginal lands resistant parasite
What is the most pathogenic GI parasite in ruminants?
Ostertagia ostertagia
Where in the world can you go to escape horseflies?
Hawaii, Iceland, and Greenland
What is lice infestation called?
Pendunculosis
What are lice infestations of eggs called?
Nits
Describe the life cycle of Hypoderma.
Heel flies lay eggs early to mid-summer; young grub hatches, glued to hair and bore into skin at hair follicle; spends several months as internal parasite; lineatum migrates to esophagus, bovis to spinal cord; will create hold in spring, bore out and pupate on ground where in 1-2 months adult heel fly emerges and starts over
What are the clinical signs of Hypoderma?
"Cattle Grubs"; "Warbles"; "Wolves" affects the esophagus -- Hypodermis lineatum, affects the spinal cord -- Hypodermis bovis
How do you manage Hypoderma?
Worries cattle production losses, carcass and hide depreciation, painful Sub Q nodules each with a breathing hole.
What is the life cycle of Coccidossis?
The male fertilizes the female to produce an oocyst, which ruptures from the intestinal cell and is passed in the manure. Thousands of oocysts, each containing eight sporozoites when mature, can be passed in the manure of an infected animal.
What are the clinical signs of Coccidosis?
Causes profuse diarrhea in younger animals - 3 weeks to 1 yr; causes atrophy and destruction of villus epithelial cells; diarrhea prior to passage of oocytes; individual cattle may exhibit nervous signs (convulsions)
How do you manage Coccidosis?
Proper hygiene
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