Upgrade to remove ads
Terms in this set (16)
Mr TP takes warfarin as an anti-coagulant for the prophylaxis of chronic AF. He also suffers from moderate osteoarthritic pain which one would be most suitable for Mr TP to take?
For how many days before surgery should warfarin medication for chronic AF be withdrawn before surgery?
1. No need to stop
2. 1 day
3. 2 days
4. 5 days
5. 10 days
39yo lady suffering from essential hypertension and mild angina during exercise for which she takes 2 puffs of GTN as required. She has no history of respiratory disease. Which one of the following drugs would be best suited for this lady?
Rifampicin induces several enzymes, including CYP3A4. what effect will this have upon the ability of the enzyme to metabolise ethylestradiol, which is substrate for this isoform, with a potential outcome of unplanned pregnancy?
1. Higher Vm and higher Vmax
2. Higher Km and unchanged Vmax
3. Higher Km and lower Vmax
4. Unchanged Km ad higher Vmax
5. Unchanged Vm and unchanged Vmax
Spinal anaesthesia most commonly causes hypotension by what mechanism?
1. Blockade of alpha adrenoceptors, causing vasodilation
2. Blockade of sympathetic innervation to blood vessels, causing vasodilation
3. Direct local anaesthetic action on cardiac myocytes causing impaired cardiac function
4. Parasympathetic blockade, causing bradycardia and reduced cardiac output
5. Parasympathetic stimulation, causing vasodilation
Mr SH is diabetic. If he were given a general anaesthetic, what signs would he be likely to demonstrate under general anaesthesia
1. Drowsiness, confusion, or coma
5. No signs, so you need to monitor blood glucose regularly
Which one of the following drugs is not used for secondary prevention following a myocardial infarction?
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause hyperkalaemia?
Which one of the following drugs does not interact pharmacodynamically with the others listed to cause hypotension?
5. Isosorbide mononitrate
Which drug does not need to be used with caution In patient with renal impairment?
Volume of distribution. Which is correct?
1. Corresponds to defined anatomical compartment
2. Tends to have low value for drugs that are highly lipophilic
3. It has no influence upon the rate of elimination of a drug
4. Knowledge of it allow the calculation of a loading dose
5. Can be calculated as Vd = Cp0/dose for a drug given as a bolus inection, where Cp0 is the plasma concentration at time zero
T1/2 = 4hrs. 10mg/litre a few miniutes after rapid bolus injection. First order elimination, what't the plasma concentration of drug after 24 hrs
Hypotension with spinal anaesthetic. Management = oxygen, Iv fluid + what drug?
1. Clonidine - 2alpha adrenoceptor agonist
2. Cyclizine - H1 receptor antagonist
3. Ephedrine - alpha and beta adrenoreceptor agonist
4. Propranolol - non selective beta adrenoceptor antagonist
5. GTN - nitrate
What drugs cause hypothyroidism?
Amiodarone, lithum, PTU
Hyperthyrodism + pregnant. What drug?
Which one is a benzo antagonist?
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
NUR150: Chapter 16- AntiInflammatory, Antiarthriti…
Pharm. Exam 1
Pharmacology Final Review Packet
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
GPST stage 2 SRA Orthopaedics
GPST stage 2 SRA Gynaecology
GPST stage 2 SRA Cardiology
GPST stage 2 SRA Pharmacology
OTHER QUIZLET SETS
Theatre History Study Guide
Section 12 Multiple Choice Test