JWinn73 - FOM 3

An Emergency is a _____ which creates a _____
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An Emergency is a _____ which creates a _____
• Non-normal event
• Potential hazard to the:
•• Aircraft,
•• Passengers, or
•• Crew

[17.1.2 Emergency Definition]
When an EMERGENCY IS DECLARED during flight operations, the Captain must submit an ASR within _____
• 24 hours of returning to base

[17.1.2 Emergency Definition]
A Red Emergency means that the Captain anticipates:
• The landing _____
• An emergency _____
• ARFF equipment _____
• May cause:
•• Injury to the passengers and/or
•• Damage to the aircraft
• Evacuation is probable
• Is required

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
When a Captain declares a Red Emergency, the flight attendants will:
• Prepare the cabin for an _____
• Instruct the passengers to _____ and _____
• Anticipate an _____
• Emergency landing/ditching evacuation
• Brace for landing
• Turn off and stow all PEDs
• Evacuation after landing

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
A Yellow Emergency means that the Captain anticipates:
• The landing _____
• An emergency _____
• ARFF equipment _____
• Will be successful and not cause:
•• Injury to the passengers and/or
•• Damage to the aircraft
• Evacuation is not anticipated or the
• Evac decision will be made after landing
• May be required

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
When a Captain declares a Yellow Emergency, the flight attendants will:
• Not anticipate an _____
• Be prepared for changing _____
• Evacuation after landing
• Circumstances which may require an:
•• Evacuation after landing

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
During a Red Emergency, the Captain believes the Landing _____ injury to the passengers and/or damage to the aircraft while during a Yellow Emergency he believes the Landing _____ injury to the passengers and/or damage to the aircraft
• May cause
• Will be successful and not cause

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
During a Red Emergency, the Captain believes an emergency evacuation is _____ while during a Yellow Emergency he believes an emergency evacuation is _____ or the _____
• Probable
• Not anticipated
• Evacuation decision will be made after landing

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
During a Red Emergency, the Captain believes Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting equipment _____ while during a Yellow Emergency he believes ARFF _____
• Is required
• May be required

[17.2.2 Emergency Declaration]
The Emergency Interphone Signal is _____
• Three distinct soundings of the F/A Call System

[17.3.2.1 Emergency Cabin Signal]
During an Emergency, the Captain should brief the Purser/Flight Leader on the following items _____TTSR: • Type of emergency (red or yellow) • Time for cabin prep • Special Instructions • Repeat information back to the Captain [17.3.2.2 TTSR]During an emergency, if possible, notify the flight attendants of the emergency before _____• Making the customer PA [17.3.4 Coordination with Customers]The ARFF _____ signal to recommend a Ground Evacuation is one hand at eye level making a _____ with the other arm _____• Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting • Beckoning motion • Held down against the body [17.3.5 Hand Signals with Emergency Personnel]A Medical Event exists when a passenger or Delta crewmember appears to be _____ to a level that _____• Ill or injured • Requires medical assistance [17.4.1.1.1 Medical Event]A Medical Emergency exists when _____ determine that a Medical Event is _____ and requires an _____• STAT-MD and the Captain • Critical • Expedited landing or divert [17.4.1.1.2 Medical Emergency]For a Medical Event while taxiing, the Captain should _____• Return to the gate [17.4.2.1 Taxiing]Anytime there is a question or concern about fitness-to-fly, the Captain or _____ should contact _____• ACS • STAT-MD and Dispatch [17.4.2.1 Taxiing]Declare a Medical Emergency if a divert or expedited handling at destination is recommended by _____• STAT-MD [17.4.2.2 In Flight]During a Medical Emergency, discontinue resuscitation only if _____ or _____ advises that those efforts be discontinued• STAT-MD • Physician volunteer [17.4.2.2 In Flight]In order to contact STAT-MD, the Captain should _____• Contact Atlanta Radio [17.4.3.1 Contacting STAT-MD]Conduct the STAT-MD consult immediately if _____ is in progress, the AED has _____, the passenger has _____ or a _____• CPR • Delivered a shock • Uncontrolled heavy bleeding • Baby is being delivered [17.4.3.1 Contacting STAT-MD]"They are using the AED" is not synonymous with "the AED has _____"• Delivered a shock [17.4.3.1 Contacting STAT-MD]If a Sealed Medical Kit is opened and used: • Make a Logbook entry: •• Describing the _____ and the •• Name of the person _____ • Notify Dispatch to _____• Circumstances • Authorized to use the kit • Initiate coordination for a replacement [17.4.4 Emergency Medical Equipment]N: In the event of a Medical Event or Medical Emergency, the Captain should _____ and _____• Lock down the Cockpit • Communicate with the F/As via interphone [17.4.7 Flight Deck Lock Down]N: The Captain may terminate a Medical Emergency and Cockpit Lockdown if: • STAT-MD determines the illness is _____ • STAT-MD recommends _____ • Cabin crew is able to _____• Not life-threatening, • Continuing the flight, and the • Resume normal duties [17.4.7 Flight Deck Lock Down]Emergency Landing Preparation -- If circumstances permit, the Captain will notify the Dispatcher of _____• Time, • Place, and • Reason for intended landing [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]Emergency Landing Preparation -- Direct flight attendants to take _____• Appropriate precautions for passengers [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]Emergency Landing Preparation -- All pilots will loosen _____ and remove _____• Ties • Sharp objects from their persons [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]Emergency Landing Preparation -- If the airplane is carrying dangerous goods, the _____ should be notified of _____• Tower and Fire Department • Articles carried and their location [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]Emergency Landing Preparation -- If a forced landing appears imminent and the aircraft is below 1,000 feet AGL, announce over the PA _____• Brace for landing [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]C: The Foaming of runways for emergency landings is _____ or _____• Not recommended by Delta • Delta Air Lines' Policy (Note: FCTM 8.30 says Foaming the runway for a partial or gear-up landing is not Delta Air Lines' policy.) [17.5.1 Emergency Landing Preparation]Anytime a situation occurs that alarms the passengers, the possibility exists of a passenger-initiated evacuation -- As soon as the Captain determines that an evacuation is not required, the following PA should be made _____• This is the Captain, remain seated with your seat belt fastened [17.6.2 Evacuation Not Required]If an Emergency Evacuation is required, make the "Easy Victor, Easy Victor, Easy Victor" call when _____• Directed by the Emergency Evacuation Checklist [17.6.3 Evacuation Required]The "Easy Victor" command should be followed shortly by the _____ to allow the _____• Evacuation announcement • Flight Attendants to get to their stations [17.6.3 Evacuation Required]C: If conditions render certain exits unusable, state the direction of intended egress _____• Before announcing "evacuate" [17.6.3 Evacuation Required]Sample Evacuation Announcements _____• "This is the Captain, Evacuate, Evacuate" • "This is the captain -- Right exits only, evacuate, evacuate" • "This is the captain -- Left exits only, evacuate, evacuate" [17.6.3 Evacuation Required]N: During a Ground Evacuation, the First Officer should _____• Ensure the forward exits are open, • Exit from a forward exit and • Assist from outside the aircraft [17.6.3 Evacuation Required]N: The "Easy Victor" PA should be followed by the _____ • If there is no follow-up after _____ • The cabin crew will attempt to _____ • Without direction, the cabin crew may _____• Evacuation PA or Cancellation PA • 30 seconds • Contact the Cockpit • Initiate the evacuation [17.6.4 Flight Attendant Initiated Evacuation]FOM Minimum Fuel is _____• 3,600 lbs on the -700 and -800, and • 4,000 lbs on the -900 [17.7.1 Minimum/Emergency Fuel]FOM Emergency Fuel is _____• 3,000 lbs [17.7.1 Minimum/Emergency Fuel]FOM Final Approach Fuel is _____• 400 lbs [17.7.1 Minimum/Emergency Fuel]Go-Around and Return for Landing Fuel is _____• 1,800 lbs on the -700 and -800, and • 1,900 lbs on the -900 [17.7.1 Minimum/Emergency Fuel]FOM Final Approach Fuel is defined as the Fuel required to _____• Complete a normal approach from the FAF [17.7.1 Minimum/Emergency Fuel]FOM Minimum Fuel is enough to: • Hold at _____ • Fly _____ • Plus _____• 1,500 AFE for 30 minutes, then • One approach • Tank gauge tolerance [17.7.1.1.1 Minimum Fuel Definition]Declare Min Fuel when: • You've exhausted all available _____ • You estimate that you'll land with less than_____ • Further deviation from the _____ • Could result in an _____• Options to resolve the low fuel condition, • 3,600 lbs on the -700 and -800 or 4,000 lbs on the -900, and • Planned route of flight • Emergency fuel situation [17.7.1.1.2 Minimum Fuel Declaration]After declaring Min Fuel, include "Minimum Fuel" after the call sign _____• On initial contact following every freq change [17.7.1.1.2 Minimum Fuel Declaration]N: To land below the FOM Minimum Fuel Standards is not a violation of _____ or _____• Company policy • FARs [17.7.1.1.2 Minimum Fuel Declaration]FOM Emergency Fuel is enough to: • Initiate a missed approach at _____ • Climb to _____ and proceed _____ • Fly another approach from a point _____ • Plus _____• 200 feet AFE, then • 1,500 AFE -- Downwind, then • 10 miles from the end of the runway • Tank gauge tolerance [17.7.1.2.1 Emergency Fuel Definition]FOM Emergency Fuel is approximately _____• 30 minutes of fuel remaining [17.7.1.2.1 Emergency Fuel Definition]Declare an Emergency due to Low Fuel if the estimated fuel remaining on touchdown at the airport of intended landing will be less than _____• 3,000 lbs [17.7.1.2.1 Emergency Fuel Definition]W: Executing a missed approach with less than Emergency Fuel could result in _____• Engine flameout [17.7.1.2.1 Emergency Fuel Definition]If you have an Engine Compressor Surge or Stall on the ground, or if takeoff is rejected due to one _____• Get a Mx inspection prior to flight [17.8.1 Engine Failure/Stall Surge - Ground Operations]If one engine fails or is shut down _____• Land at the nearest suitable airport where a safe landing can be made [17.8.2 Engine Failure/Stall Surge - In Flight]If one engine is being operated at reduced power due to a malfunction _____• Land at the nearest suitable airport where a safe landing can be made [17.8.2 Engine Failure/Stall Surge - In Flight]If one engine experiences a stall/surge and climb/cruise power cannot be re-established _____• Land at the nearest suitable airport where a safe landing can be made [17.8.2 Engine Failure/Stall Surge - In Flight]If one engine experiences a stall/surge but climb/cruise power CAN be re-established _____• Coordinate with Flight Control [17.8.2 Engine Failure/Stall Surge - In Flight]The two types of Ferry Operations are ____ and _____• Maintenance • Non-maintenance [18.1.1 Ferry Operations - General]On a Non-Maintenance Ferry Flight, at the Captain's discretion, up to _____ may be carried• 19 non-rev passengers [18.3.1 Authorized Personnel/Cargo]If tagged for a Ferry Flight without Flight Attendants, refer to the FOM _____ if _____ and refer to the Volume 1 _____ to review _____ requirements• Chapter 18 • Non-revs will be carried • SP 1 • Cabin Inspection [FOM 18.3.1 and Vol I, SP.1.1]An ASR is required for GPWS Activation _____• Due to terrain [19.3.2 Mandatory ASR Submission Events]An ASR is required for the execution of a TCAS _____• RA maneuver [19.3.2 Mandatory ASR Submission Events]An ASR is required for an actual or suspected _____• Bird strike or ingestion [19.3.2 Mandatory ASR Submission Events]An ASR is required for a declaration of _____• Minimum fuel [19.3.2 Mandatory ASR Submission Events]FAR 117 Flight Duty Periods begin at _____ and end at _____• Report Time • Last flight block in [21.1.1 FAR 117 - General]N: The FAR 117 Flight Duty Period does not include _____ or _____• Post-flight duty • Trailing deadheads [21.1.1 FAR 117 - General]An FDP extension that exceeds 30 minutes must be followed by at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty before another _____ may be accepted• FDP extension greater than 30 minutes [21.1.1 FAR 117 - General]FAR 117 allows for a nine-hour maximum daily flight time limit when the acclimated time of report is between _____• 5:00 am and 7:59 pm •• (unaugmented) [21.2.3 FAR 117 - Quick Reference Guides]Depending on the Scheduled Time of Start, FAR 117 limits a 5-leg Flight Duty Period to between _____• 9 and 12.5 hours •• (unaugmented) [21.2.3 FAR 117 - Quick Reference Guides]FAR 117 limits Total Flight Time to 100 hours in _____ and 1,000 hours in _____• 672 hours (28 days) • 365 days [21.2.3 FAR 117 - Quick Reference Guides]FAR 117 limits Total FDP time to 60 hours in _____ and 190 hours in _____• 168 hours (7 days) • 672 hours (28 days) [21.2.3 FAR 117 - Quick Reference Guides]FAR 117 mandates a minimum rest of _____ hours out of _____ consecutive hours or _____ days• 30 • 168 • 7 [21.2.3 FAR 117 - Quick Reference Guides]Part 117 Flight Time Limits are hard and cannot be exceeded unless _____• Already airborne [21.4.1.2 Flight Time Limit LATT Worksheet]Pilots will not report for duty within 24 hours of: • Receiving an _____ • Donating _____ or _____ • _____ • Any _____• Immunization (flu shot okay), • Blood • Bone marrow components, • Scuba diving, or • Major medical procedure or surgery [24.2.1.3 Events Requiring 24 Hours Free of Duty Prior to Flying]Contact the hotel or ground transportation directly if hotel wait time exceeds _____ -- If not resolved to the crew's satisfaction, pay for a taxi and submit the expense through _____• 20 minutes • Concur (a link is provided in FOM 25.2.1) [25.2.1 Ground Transportation - General]N: The only Cockpit Jumpseat Riders who are not required to comply with the uniform or business-casual-attire standards are _____• Secret Service personnel traveling •• In the line of duty [26.1.3 Standards and Decorum]Dispatchers and OAL Pilots who fail a CASS verification check _____• May only sit in the cabin [26.1.4 Cockpit Access Security System]Delta Connection Pilots and OAL Pilots are not authorized to use the Cockpit Jumpseat for _____• International flights •• (they are eligible for intl flowback) [26.1.5 International]The only persons that may occupy the Cabin Jumpseat are _____, _____ and _____ in priority order• Delta Flight Attendants • Delta Pilots • Endeavor Flight Attendants [26.1.12 Cabin Jumpseat Access]The Cabin Jumpseat is not authorized for use by _____ or _____ pilots or by _____• OAL • Delta Connection Carrier • FAA Aviation Safety Inspectors [26.1.12 Cabin Jumpseat Access]In order to return an aircraft to Cat II/III Autoland status, a successful Autoland must be accomplished in _____ weather conditions• Cat I or greater [28.1.1.2 Re-Establishing Certification]Pilots may perform an Engine Maintenance Run if _____• No maintenance technicians are available [28.2.1 Engine Run for Mx - General]During an Engine Run at the gate, the Flight Crew (both pilots) must be at the controls if _____• Any passengers remain on board [28.2.2 Engine Run at the Gate (Idle Thrust)]While at the gate, no Engine Runs are authorized at greater than _____• Idle power [28.2.2 Engine Run at the Gate (Idle Thrust)]During an Engine Run for maintenance, Passengers are allowed to be on board if the Flight Crew is at the controls and the _____• Engine run is a the gate •• (off the gate they must be deplaned) [28.2.2 Engine Run at the Gate (Idle Thrust)]Flight Operations SOF Approval is required prior to any Engine Run-Up requiring _____• Greater than normal taxi thrust •• (coordinate through the Duty Pilot) [28.2.3 Engine Run-up (Greater than Idle Thrust)]At the Captain's discretion, the aircraft may be temporarily depowered for a maintenance action when at the _____ provided you first _____ and _____• Gate or on a taxiway • Pre-coordinate with the F/As • Make a PA to the customers [28.3.2 Depowering the Aircraft with Customers On Board]If the aircraft is going to be temporarily depowered for a maintenance action, emergency light activation when at the gate is _____ while off the gate with the boarding door closed it is _____• Recommended • Required [28.3.2 Depowering the Aircraft with Customers On Board]No aircraft system may be deactivated unless required by a _____ Procedure, _____ Procedure, _____ Checklist, or _____• Normal • MEL/CDL • Aircraft Non-Normal • Immediate action in an emergency situation [28.3.3 Aircraft System Deactivation]For MEL/CDL purposes, Dispatch is defined as the _____• Advancement of the Throttles for T/O [28.3.5 Minimum Equipment List and Configuration Deviation List]The Captain and Maintenance Coordinator have joint responsibility to ensure that MCO Expiration Periods are not exceeded for _____• MEL Category B, C and D items [28.3.5.1 MEL Expiration]All Dispatcher-Approval-Required MEL items must _____• Appear on the flight plan or amendment [28.3.5.2 Reconciling MEL Items]The Flight Plan (or Amendment) must contain all _____ items• Dispatcher-Approval-Required MEL [28.3.5.2 Reconciling MEL Items]Maintenance "S" SPL Items are those that _____ Special Issues that can benefit from SCEPTRE automation but are not _____• Track and manage • Found in the MEL/CDL Manual [28.3.5.3 Special (SPL) Items]Pilots are required to make an entry into the aircraft logbook for any malfunction or discrepancy which is a _____ or an exceedance of an _____• Mechanical irregularity • Aircraft limitation [28.3.6 Aircraft Logbook Entry Requirements]Pilots are required to make an entry into the aircraft logbook for any item the crew reports via ACARS that triggers a _____ Message or _____ Message• LOGBOOK-ENTRY-REQUIRED • INVALID FRC [28.3.6 Aircraft Logbook Entry Requirements]Logbook entries and placarding procedures may be postponed so as not to delay departure if the _____ and _____ and the discrepancy is _____ -- However, logbook entries and placarding procedures must be completed _____• Aircraft has departed the gate and • MEL/CDL procedures have been applied • Not Dispatcher-Approval-Required • Prior to flight termination [28.3.6 Aircraft Logbook Entry Requirements and TOPPS 40-40-05 Page 3]If the Headset or Interphone System is inop, a face-to-face briefing will be conducted which will include: • A review of all _____ • Conditions under which _____ • Prior coordination with _____ • Signal for an _____• Hand signals to be used • Pushback and Engine Start will be conducted • ATC if onto an active taxiway • Emergency stop [30.1.1 Verbal Communication]If the Captain requires an Emergency Stop during pushback, he should _____• Flash the Taxi Light repeatedly [30.1.1 Verbal Communication]The Ground Crew will notify the Captain of an Engine or Brake Fire by moving the _____ in a _____ motion from the _____ while pointing the _____• Right wand • Figure-eight fanning • Shoulder to the knee • Left wand at the fire [30.1.2 Hand Signals with Ramp Personnel]Pilots should not release Brakes to remove stuck chocks until _____• Pushback (aircraft movement) is imminent [30.2.1 Chock Removal]For Pushback, the FOM says the Tug Driver will call _____ and the Captain will respond with _____ Meanwhile the Volume I says the Tug Driver will call _____ and the Captain will respond with _____ or _____ After either of the above, the Flight Crew will accomplish the PB Procedure and Checklist then the Captain will Call _____ and the Tug Driver will respond with _____• "READY FOR PUSH" • "STANDBY" • "BRAKES SET" • "BRAKES SET" • "UNABLE TO SET BRAKES" • "BEACON ON, BRAKES RELEASED, CLEARED TO PUSH" • "ROGER, BRAKES RELEASED" [30.2.2 Pushback Sequence and Vol I NP.20.36]When Pushback is complete, the Tug Driver will call _____ at which point the Captain should _____ then call _____• "BRAKES SET" • Verify Brake Pressure normal • "BRAKES SET, CLEAR TO DISCONNECT" [30.2.2 Pushback Sequence]When Maintenance installs the Gear Pins _____• An entry must be made in the logbook •• (which must be cleared prior to release) [30.2.3 Gear Pin Removal]ACS is responsible for ensuring the Steering Bypass Pin has been removed during _____• Normal dispatch procedures [30.2.3 Gear Pin Removal]During the walkaround, Pilots should check to ensure Gear _____• Pins have been removed [30.2.3 Gear Pin Removal]If a wireless headset communication device is inadvertently left connected to the aircraft after pushback, Pilots may hear an _____ over the _____ Interphone• Audible tone • Flight • (coordinate with local ops to get it removed) [30.2.7 Disconnect]Use single-engine taxi unless an _____• Operational necessity dictates otherwise [30.2.6 Engine Start]Never enter a gate parking area unless directed by a _____ or a _____• Marshalling agent • Parking Guidance System [30.3.1 Parking Safety]The responsibility for obstacle clearance in the parking area is shared by _____ and the _____• Ramp personnel • Pilots [30.3.1 Parking Safety]The area inside the Gate Clearance Lines is called the _____• Safety Zone [30.3.1 Parking Safety]No aircraft may pull into the parking area unless all GSE and jetway wheels are parked _____ and a Marshalling Agent or Parking Guidance System is _____• Outside the clearance lines • In place to direct the aircraft •• (small items and stuff in designated areas excepted) [30.3.1 Parking Safety]Two Wing Walkers are _____ required for parking• Normally [30.3.2.1 Scheduled Operations]A Captain has the authority to taxi to the gate with less than two Wing Walkers if he has determined there is no threat to _____ and no exception noted in the _____ or _____ but must subsequently _____• Safety • Company Pages • Flight plan remarks • File an ASR [30.3.2.1 Scheduled Operations]During Shutdown, leave the Parking Brake set when wind conditions, including gusts _____ or the ramp condition is _____• Exceed 30 kts • Icy [30.3.3 Brake Release]If Passengers remain on board during Fueling, the _____• Jetway or pax steps must be at the aircraft door [30.4.1 Fueling/Defueling with Passengers on Board]Sensitive Security Information (SSI) is defined as _____• Materials and documentation related to aviation security (i.e. definitions, policies, practices and procedures) [31.1.2 Disposal of Security Sensitive Information]Anytime a customer is involuntarily removed from a flight, you must convene the _____• Security Conflict Team (SCT) [31.1.4 Security Conflict Team]Two outside crew members are always required except when someone is _____ when ______• Exiting the cockpit • Three or more people are in the cockpit [31.6.1.3 Flight Deck Entry/Exit Policy]The FAM Team Leader should be advised of all _____ and all _____ on board the aircraft• VIPs • Deportees/Prisoners [31.7.4 FAM Identity and Briefings]FAMs will not routinely _____• Introduce themselves to the crew [31.7.4 FAM Identity and Briefings]The 737 Least Risk Bomb Location is the _____• Aft Right Hand Exit Door [31.10.4 Least Risk Bomb Location]