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About Nutrition- Final Exam

12th edition
STUDY
PLAY
D
Which of the following is not a feature of malnutrition in pregnancy?
Answer

It increases the risk for delivery of a low-birth-weight infant

Around the time of conception, it increases the risk for birth defects

It increases the risk for adverse effects on the child and, if the child is a female, on her children

Around the time of conception, it prevents the uterus from developing fully but spares the placenta
B
A feature of heavy caffeine use in human pregnancy is that it may
Answer

worsen edema.

increase the risk of infant death.

increase the risk of birth defects.

increase the risk of stillborn infants.
B
According to the recommended food intake for pregnancy, which of the following food groups is the only one that is provided in sufficient amounts by this menu?
Answer

Milk

Meats

Vegetables

Bread/cereal
D
Approximately what percentage of newly pregnant women develop gestational diabetes?
Answer

1

2

3

4
C
A less severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome is known by all of the following terms except
Answer

prenatal alcohol exposure.

fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.

fetal subdevelopment syndrome.

alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder.
D
You are working as a nutrition consultant in a women's health clinic and have been advising patients to make sure they consume about 400 micrograms of folate every day. One patient is aware that folate helps prevent birth defects but she isn't sure why she should take it if she is not pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate reply?
Answer

The folate supplementation prevents pernicious anemia, which increases the risk of spina bifida

The folate supplementation is needed to ensure a large store that can be utilized by the growing fetus

As long as supplementation begins the day pregnancy is confirmed, there is no risk of defects

The neural tube develops early on in pregnancy, oftentimes before the woman realizes she is pregnant
C
What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake, in kcal, for the third trimester of pregnancy?
Answer

200

300

450

540
B
The most common forms of neural tube defects are spina bifida and
Answer

macrosomia.

anencephaly.

preeclampsia.

cesarean section.
A
An infant born with incomplete closure of the spinal cord has
Answer

spina bifida.

macrosomia.

anencephaly.

neural tube seizure.
A
Which of the following is one of the recommendations to treat pregnancy-associated heartburn?
Answer

Eat many small meals

Drink fluids only with meals

Exercise within 30 minutes after eating

Lie down within 15 minutes after eating
B
Which of the following statements describes an association between nutrient intake and lactation?
Answer

Milk production is increased by higher fluid intake

Ingestion of garlic may lead to an off-flavor of the milk

Inadequate protein intake lowers the protein concentration of the milk

The energy RDA for milk production calls for an additional 1000 kcalories per day
A
What is the minimum recommended weight gain for the obese pregnant woman?
Answer

11 lbs

18 lbs

25 lbs

35 lbs
C
What organ functions to prepare the mother's breasts for lactation?
Answer

Uterus

Ovaries

Placenta

Amniotic sac
B
What is the percentage increase in the folate RDA during pregnancy?
Answer

25

50

75

100
A
You work with a primary care physician to help newly pregnant women plan their diets. What vital information is needed to formulate a plan of weight gain?
Answer

Weight and height

Physical activity level

Number of previous pregnancies

Weight gain preference of the mother
A
As a means to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in newborn infants, grain products are fortified with what nutrient?
Answer

Folate

Thiamine

Vitamin C

Vitamin B12
B
What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for an underweight woman?
Answer

15-25

28-40

42-50

55-62
B
How many weeks is the usual duration of a full-term pregnancy?
Answer

32-36

38-42

43-45

46-49
B
What is gestational diabetes?
Answer

A severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns

Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy

Reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy

A temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy
A
What is the most reliable indicator of an infant's future health status?
Answer

Infant's birthweight

Mother's weight before pregnancy

Mother's weight gain during pregnancy

Mother's nutrition status prior to pregnancy
D
Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of
Answer

4 weeks, called quarters.

9 weeks, called quartiles.

4 months, called semesters.

3 months, called trimesters.
C
Which of the following is not a characteristic of preeclampsia?
Answer

It often diminishes fetal growth

It is a disorder of genetic predisposition

It almost always progresses slowly to eclampsia

It is much more prevalent in black women than white women
D
What is the risk of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome for a woman who is 40 years old compared with a 20 year old?
Answer

One-half as much

About the same

25 times higher

100 times higher
B
Which of the following is a feature of heavy metal intake and pregnancy?
Answer

Mercury, but not lead, can easily cross the placenta

The adverse effects of lead can be reduced by liberal intakes of calcium

Pregnant women are advised to limit consumption of shark and swordfish to no more than once per week

Pregnant women are advised to avoid shellfish around the critical period of brain development but may resume normal intake thereafter
D
All of the following are features of nonfood cravings during pregnancy except
Answer

they are especially common in African-Americans.

they are often associated with iron-deficiency anemia.

they commonly include consumption of freezer frost and clay.

they are known to lead to premature delivery and to low-birth-weight infants.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation?
Answer

Vegan diets require supplements of selenium, zinc, and manganese

Breast milk from vegetarian women is lower in protein but higher in fiber

It is possible that a vegetarian diet can support a healthy pregnancy and normal lactation

The increase in appetite during pregnancy allows a vegan pregnant woman to easily meet or exceed her energy requirements
D
Which of the following is a function of prolactin?
Answer

It reverses the effects of certain mutagens

It reverses the effects of certain teratogens

It acts on mammary glands to stimulate milk release

It acts on mammary glands to promote milk production
A
A craving for non-food substances is known as
Answer

pica.

bulimia.

toxemia.

hyperemesis.
B
Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight changes associated with pregnancy?
Answer

Weight gain is generally steady throughout pregnancy for normal-weight women

Most women are unable to lose all of the weight that was gained during pregnancy

Sudden, large weight gain in pregnancy may signal the development of hypotension

Overweight pregnant women should gain as much weight as underweight pregnant women
B
Among the following, which is not known to represent a significant risk factor for a pregnancy being affected by a neural tube defect?
Answer

Maternal obesity

Age at time of pregnancy

Low socioeconomic status

Exposure to a hot-tub during pregnancy
A
What is the most likely reason for a pregnant woman to crave pickles?
Answer

A change in hormones

A hypoglycemic episode

A physiologic need for fluid

A physiologic need for sodium
B
Preeclampsia typically develops during the
Answer

first half of pregnancy.

second half of pregnancy.

first month after delivery.

first trimester of pregnancy.
B
Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
Answer

The AI increases by over 100%

Intestinal absorption increases substantially

Supplements are required for most women due to the increased needs

Transfer of calcium from maternal stores to the fetus increases rapidly at the beginning of the second trimester and falls during the last trimester
B
Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects?
Answer

Iron

Folate

Calcium

Cobalamin
C
A newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of
Answer

6 inches.

12 inches.

20 inches.

3 feet.
C
All of the following are normal body responses to pregnancy except
Answer

breast size increases.

blood volume increases.

body water level decreases.

joint flexibility increases.
D
The common problems of pregnancy include all of the following except
Answer

nausea.

heartburn.

constipation.

low blood pressure.
D
Over the course of the entire pregnancy, approximately how much extra energy, in kcal, does the average pregnant woman need to consume?
Answer

10,500

26,000

49,000

72,000
C
The component of weight gain during pregnancy that is similar to the average weight of the infant at birth is the
Answer

placenta.

amniotic sac fluid.

maternal fat stores.

uterus and supporting muscles.
A
At what stage of pregnancy does an embryo show a beating heart and a complete central nervous system?
Answer

8 weeks

12 weeks

20 weeks

29 weeks
A
Jane is visiting with her doctor during her 2nd trimester of pregnancy and has just revealed her strange cravings. The doctor declared that Jane is experiencing pica, which is causing her intense craving for
Answer

dirt.

garlic.

pickles.

pepperoni.
B
In obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from
Answer

insufficient exercise.

poor glycemic control.

insufficient folate intake.

higher prevalence of cesarean section.
D
To help alleviate pregnancy-related nausea, all of the following actions are recommended except
Answer

eat dry toast or dry crackers.

avoid milk when feeling nauseated.

avoid orange juice when feeling nauseated.

eat large, infrequent meals so as to limit contact time with food.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes?
Answer

It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant

It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women

It leads to adult-onset diabetes in about a third of the women

It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births
A
According to many experts, what minimum level of alcohol intake increases the risk of giving birth to an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome?
Answer

1 drink/day

2 drinks/day

4 drinks/day

7 drinks/week
D
Studies report that folate supplements for women may lower the incidence of neural tube defects of infants when the vitamin is taken during the
Answer

last trimester of pregnancy.

second trimester of pregnancy.

second and third trimesters of pregnancy.

month before conception through the first trimester of pregnancy.
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of neural tube defects?
Answer

They are found in about 1,000 newborns in the United States each year

They include common disorders such as liver and kidney disease

They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamin B12

They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamins A and E
B
In pregnancy, a large weight gain over a short time is usually an indication of
Answer

excessive fat deposition.

excessive fluid retention.

abnormal fetal development.

normal pregnancy only if it occurs during the second trimester.
D
Which of the following is a feature of the WIC program?
Answer

The number of children in the program is capped at 2 million

It is strictly remedial and available chiefly to women living in the inner city

It offers assistance to all at-risk pregnant women regardless of economic means

It saves an estimated $3 in medical costs in the first two months after birth for every dollar spent
C
What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman?
Answer

10-18

19-24

25-35

38-44
C
Tobacco use in pregnancy increases the risk for all of the following except
Answer

SIDS.

fetal death.

macrosomia.

vaginal bleeding.
D
Penny is a new mom and, on the advice of her doctor, has been eating an extra whole-wheat bagel with strawberry jelly every night in addition to her nutrient-dense diet. Why did Penny receive this advice?
Answer

Bagels are a way of getting more kcalories in the diet

Bagels provide the extra protein lactating mothers need for lactose production

Babies prefer the strawberry jelly in the mother's diet as it alters the taste of the breast milk

These bagels provide the extra carbohydrates and fiber lactating mothers need for lactose production
D
What connects the umbilical cord to the fetus?
Answer

Uterus

Placenta

Caesareas

Belly button
A
All of the following are characteristics of nutrition and pregnancy except
Answer

underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility.

overweight men have low sperm counts that reduce fertility.

excess body fat in women interferes with the regular cycles of menstruation.

the woman's nutritional status is more important than the man's for the developing fetus.
B
Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
Answer

Calcium intakes usually meet the recommendations

The AI for calcium is the same as in nonpregnancy

Calcium absorption efficiency is the same as in nonpregnancy

Calcification of the fetal skeleton begins during the 14th week of pregnancy
C
It is still acceptable for a mother to breastfeed even if she has
Answer

abused alcohol.

a drug addiction.

an ordinary cold.

a communicable disease.
D
What is WIC?
Answer

A serious neural tube defect

The World Intervention and Conception program of the United Nations

An environmental contaminant that may interfere with breast milk production

A food and nutrition services program for pregnant women, children, and infants
B
In what period of pregnancy would most damage from alcohol consumption occur?
Answer

Before conception

First trimester

Second trimester

Third trimester
A
What is the term given to the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth?
Answer

Fetus

Ovum

Zygote

Embryo
A
Which of the following is the standard classification for a very-low-birthweight infant?
Answer

3 1/2 lbs or less

4 1/2 lbs or lesS

5 1/2 lbs or less

6 1/2 lbs or less
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of maternal smoking and breast milk production?
Answer

The milk produced by mothers who smoke contains nicotine

Cigarette smoking reduces the quality but not the quantity of breast milk

Infants of breastfeeding mothers who smoke gain excessive weight consisting mainly of abdominal adipose tissue

The smell and flavors of breast milk from mothers who smoke do not alter volume consumed until the infant reaches 3 months of age
D
Which of the following describes the findings from studies of lactating women who exercised intensely compared with sedentary lactating women?
Answer

They had similar energy intakes

Their milk was more nutrient-dense

They had a slightly greater amount of body fat

Their milk contained more lactate, which altered the milk's taste
C
All of the following are normal body responses to pregnancy except
Answer

breast size increases.

blood volume increases.

body water level decreases.

joint flexibility increases.
A
Which of the following is an effect of alcohol intake in the mother who breastfeeds?
Answer

It alters the flavor

It stimulates lactation

It passes into the breast milk and stimulates the infant's acceptance

It first appears in the breast milk approximately 12 hours after ingestion
A
For the normal-weight woman who becomes pregnant, what is the ideal weekly weight gain from the start of the second trimester and onward?
Answer

1 lb

2 lbs

3 lbs

4 lbs
B
All of the following are features of gestational diabetes except
Answer

Asian ancestry is a risk factor.

infant birthweights are typically low.

it usually develops during the second half of pregnancy.

the most common consequences include labor and delivery complications.
A
Which of the following is not a characteristic of caffeine use in physical activity?
Answer

It slows depletion of muscle glycogen

It often induces stomach upset and diarrhea

It acts as a physiological and psychological stimulant

It is permitted in moderation by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)
C
The optimal carbohydrate concentration of sports drinks for the endurance athlete is
Answer

1-2%.

5%.

6-8%.

15-20%.
C
The components of fitness include all of the following except
Answer

strength.

flexibility.

bone fragility.

cardiovascular endurance.
A
A person engaging in exercise at a moderate level should walk at a speed of one mile per
Answer

quarter hour.

half hour.

hour.

hour and a half.
C
Which of the following diets promotes superior physical performance in athletes?
Answer

High-fat diet

High-protein diet

High-carbohydrate diet

Normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements
A
Mary is 15 years old and has just joined her high school swim team. After the first three months of training and competing, her coach sends the team for mandatory physical examinations and routine blood tests. When Mary got home, she told her mom that she has sports anemia. Why shouldn't Mary begin taking iron supplements as a way to treat this condition?
Answer

The anemia is not correctible by extra iron intake

The anemia is most likely the result of folate deficiency

The iron will interfere with creatine phosphate synthesis

The iron will not be absorbed well because of the intense work-outs
B
What percentage of U.S. adults lives a completely sedentary lifestyle?
Answer

5

20

45

60
B
Why should fiber-rich foods be avoided in an athlete's pregame meal?
Answer

The fiber delays absorption of fat

The fiber interferes with glycolysis

The meal crowds out more energy-dense foods

The fiber retains water in the GI tract that would otherwise be absorbed
A
In the endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be
Answer

fluids.

protein.

glycogen.

electrolytes.
C
Athletes can safely add muscle tissue by
Answer

tripling protein intake.

taking hormones duplicating those of puberty.

putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder.

relying on protein for muscle fuel and decreasing intake of carbohydrates.
D
In training to run in your state marathon this summer, you want to determine how much fluid to drink during training sessions. Your weight at the beginning of every training session is 150 pounds. At the end of every training session you weigh 146 pounds. How many cups of fluid are necessary replenish these losses?
Answer

2

4

6

8
A
Which of the following describes an effect of caffeine use in the athlete?
Answer

It stimulates fatty acid release

It enhances performance for almost all athletes

It raises blood pH to counteract the buildup of lactate

It promotes absorption of electrolytes from the intestinal tract
D
Which of the following are features of physical activity and exercise?
Answer

Neither involves mandatory body movement

Neither involves enhanced energy expenditure

Physical activity, but not exercise, involves muscle contractions

Exercise, but not physical activity, is thought to be vigorous, structured, and planned
C
All of the following are acceptable definitions of the term fitness except
Answer

the ability of the body to resist stress.

the ability of the body to perform physical activity without undue stress.

the ability to maintain a normal body composition and remain free of injury while performing strenuous physical tasks.

the ability to meet normal physical and emotional demands while maintaining an energy reserve sufficient to overcome an immediate challenge.
B
Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in athletes?
Answer

Iron in sweat represents the major route of iron loss from the body

Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells

Iron deficiency affects a higher percentage of male athletes than female athletes

Sports anemia is successfully treated by increasing dietary iron to levels 2-3 times the RDA
C
Which of the following diets promotes superior physical performance in athletes?
Answer

High-fat diet

High-protein diet

High-carbohydrate diet

Normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements
B
Which of the following is a feature of physical activity recommendations?
Answer

The minimum daily amount of exercise for health's sake is 10 minutes

The same level of effectiveness can be achieved by dividing the activity in shorter sessions throughout the day

To maintain a healthy body weight, a minimum of 75 minutes per day of vigorous (intensive) exercise is necessary

Walking each day as the only physical activity is not enough to meet the guidelines for quantity and quality of physical activity
C
Chris has been competing all day in a track competition and is now ready for the 100-meter dash. Although he feels tired, which of the following high-energy muscle compounds can he rely on for quick energy in this event?
Answer

Fat

Lactate

Creatine phosphate

Adenosine diphosphate
C
In the average person, the amount of stored glycogen represents how many kcal?
Answer

500

1000

2000

4000
C
What is the chief adverse effect from drinking a carbonated beverage before engaging in athletic activity?
Answer

The carbonic acid inhibits fluid absorption

The bubbles induce chronic burping and so inhibit performance

The bubbles induce feelings of fullness quickly and so limit fluid intake

The carbonic acid promotes gastroesophageal reflux leading to upper GI discomfort
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of sodium in athletes?
Answer

There is a direct correlation between heat-induced cramps and the amount of sodium lost in the sweat

Sports drinks that contain sodium polymers can more quickly replace sodium losses from severe sweating

The sodium lost through heavy sweating can be easily replaced by consuming any of the common sports drinks

Hyponatremia is more likely to develop when water intake during intense exercise in hot weather is withheld and salted snacks are consumed
C
What should be the composition of the last (pregame) meal before an athletic event?
Answer

High-protein, providing 30 kcal per kg body weight

Vegetable and fruit juices, providing 100 to 200 kcal

High-carbohydrate, low-fiber, providing 300 to 800 kcal

High-fiber, providing 200 to 300 kcal and liberal amounts of fluid, which is beneficially retained by the fiber in the GI tract
B
Sports drinks begin to provide an advantage over plain water for athletes when their exercise periods first exceed
Answer

15 minutes.

60 minutes.

1 hours.

3 hours.
C
Your friend Bob, who engages in endurance exercise throughout the week, is concerned that his protein intake is inadequate and asks what type of protein supplement he should take. You assure him that
Answer

all high-quality protein drinks are equivalent despite the price differences.

the extra protein he needs should be high-quality lean sources of poultry and fish.

he most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity.

no sports authority organizations recommend protein intakes greater than the RDA for endurance athletes.
B
During physical performance, what is the role of creatine phosphate?
Answer

Removal of lactic acid

Transfer of energy to make ATP

Removal of nitrogen waste products

Transfer of phosphate to muscle fiber
B
About how many kcal are supplied by 8 oz of the typical sports drink?
Answer

5-10

50-100

250-500

500-1,000
C
What dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations?
Answer

Fats

Proteins

Carbohydrates

Chromium and iron
D
If a person's maximum heart rate is 220 beats/min, what is the safe maximum heart rate during vigorous exercise?
Answer

110

142

165

198
B
Which of the following is a characteristic of sports anemia?
Answer

It requires prolonged treatment

It is a temporary condition requiring no treatment

It responds to treatment only with high doses of iron

It is due primarily to increased iron loss via perspiration
C
Which of the following is a feature of caffeine use in physical activity?
Answer

Caffeine is widely abused by endurance athletes because it cannot be detected by blood or urine tests

Caffeine enhances performance by stimulating glycogen breakdown and increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells

College and national competitions prohibit the use of caffeine in amounts greater than that present in 5 cups of coffee when consumed within a few hours before testing

The usual side effects of caffeine use such as irritability, headaches, and diarrhea are delayed or diminished in endurance athletes because of their high metabolic rates during competition
C
Which of the following is a feature of creatine supplementation in athletes?
Answer

It may enhance performance of endurance athletes

Long-term use adversely affects liver and kidney function

It may enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters

It induces short-term weight loss consisting primarily of lean tissue
C
During a physical activity, what hormone signals the fat cells to begin releasing their fatty acids?
Answer

Leptin

Glucagon

Epinephrine

Neuropeptide-Y
D
How can water loss from the body be quickly estimated at the end of a physical activity?
Answer

Multiply body weight (kg) by 1% to determine liters of water loss

Multiply duration of activity (min) by body weight (kg) to determine mL of water loss

Subtract air temperature (°F) from body weight (lbs) and then multiply by 5 to determine mL of water loss

Take the difference in body weight (lbs) before and after the event and multiply by 2 to determine cups of water loss
B
For optimal performance, the athlete's precompetition meal may include all of the following except
Answer

pasta.

beans.

breads.

potatoes.
B
What is the minimum amount of fluid that an athlete should drink for each pound of body weight lost during an activity?
Answer

1/4 liter

1/2 liter

1 liter

2 liters
C
Substantial health benefits may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least
Answer

10 minutes/day.

20 minutes/day.

2.5 hours/week.

5 hours/week.
D
Which of the following is a feature of chromium in physical performance?
Answer

Chromium from ginseng shows high bioavailability

Athletes may obtain sufficient chromium from green leafy vegetables and legumes

Supplements of chromium chloride enhance free fatty acid release but inhibit fatty acid oxidation

Most recent studies on chromium picolinate supplementation show no favorable effects on strength or lean body mass
A
Which of the following best exemplifies an activity that promotes flexibility?
Answer

Yoga

Pilates

Weight lifting

Jumping rope
B
What nutrient becomes depleted most rapidly during physical exercise?
Answer

Iron

Water

Glucose

Glycogen
C
When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted?
Answer

Water

Protein

Glucose

Fatty acids
B
The duration of exercise warm-up and cool-down periods should be
Answer

1-2 minutes each.

5-10 minutes each.

15 minutes each.

2 minutes warm-up and 4 minutes cool-down.
A
All of the following are characteristics of heat stroke except
Answer

it is rarely fatal.

it is due, in part, to dehydration.

it is caused by heat buildup in the body.

its symptoms include headache, nausea, and mental changes.
B
A person engaged in physically active work in hot, humid weather and who wears a rubber suit to promote weight loss is at high risk of experiencing
Answer

ketosis.

heat stroke.

hypothermia.

overhydration.
C
The recommended amount of dietary carbohydrate (g/kg body weight) for an athlete training for a marathon is approximately
Answer

2.

4.

8.

12.
D
In weight training, muscle endurance can best be emphasized by combining a
Answer

low number of repetitions with heavy weight.

low number of repetitions with lighter weight.

high number of repetitions with heavy weight.

high number of repetitions with lighter weight.
D
In the immediate postexercise period, what type of diet enhances muscle protein synthesis?
Answer

Protein alone

Carbohydrate alone

Carbohydrate plus fat

Carbohydrate plus protein
A
In weight training, muscle strength can best be emphasized by combining a
Answer

low number of repetitions with heavy weight.

low number of repetitions with lighter weight.

high number of repetitions with heavy weight.

high number of repetitions with lighter weight.
B
For most physically active people, all of the following are valid reasons for consuming sports drinks except
Answer

they may provide a psychological advantage.

they are better than water at preventing sodium depletion.

they contain a source of fuel, which may enhance performance in endurance events.

they have a good taste, which encourages their consumption and ensures adequate hydration.
A
Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition in physical activity?
Answer

Protein is not a major fuel for physical activity

Body protein synthesis rates increase about 10% during physical activity

Protein contributes 30% more to total fuel used for physical activity than during rest

Body protein synthesis rates decline about 30% for several hours after physical activity
C
For optimal performance of endurance athletes, sports nutritionists recommend approximately how much dietary fat energy?
Answer

5-10%

10-15%

20-35%

35-45%
D
What type of meal and time of its ingestion promote the most rapid repletion of glycogen stores after physical activity?
Answer

Mixed meal taken within 4 hours

Mixed meal taken within 30 minutes

High-carbohydrate meal taken within 2 hours

High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes
C
Which of the following is a feature of creatine supplementation in athletes?
Answer

It may enhance performance of endurance athletes

Long-term use adversely affects liver and kidney function

It may enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters

It induces short-term weight loss consisting primarily of lean tissue
C
Which of the following would be the best choice for physically active people who need to rehydrate?
Answer

"Sweat" replacers

Salt tablets and tap water

Diluted juice or cool water

Water warmed to body temperature
D
All of the following are categorized as fitness strength activities except
Answer

pilates.

pull-ups.

push-ups.

kickboxing.
A
Which of the following describes an effect of caffeine use in the athlete?
Answer

It stimulates fatty acid release

It enhances performance for almost all athletes

It raises blood pH to counteract the buildup of lactate

It promotes absorption of electrolytes from the intestinal tract
A
The first sign of dehydration is typically
Answer

fatigue.

dizziness.

intense thirst.

intense sweating.
A
What nutrient is important in the transport of oxygen in blood and in muscle tissue and in energy transformation reactions?
Answer

Iron

Calcium

Thiamin

Vitamin C
C
Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes?
Answer

Salt tablets

Protein powders

Nutrient-dense foods

Vitamin and mineral supplements
B
Pat has gained about 20 pounds in the past 5 years and has come to you for help with a diet and exercise regimen. In order to promote optimal fat loss through exercise, in which of the following activities should Pat participate?
Answer

Wearing an electrical impulse belt throughout the day

Low- to moderate-intensity aerobic exercise like hiking

High-intensity aerobic activity like cycling, swimming, or running

Very high-intensity anaerobic activity like mile run at maximal speed
A
What is the predominant fuel used by muscle cells during low- or moderate-intensity activity?
Answer

Fat

Protein

Glycogen

Blood glucose
D
What is the recommended composition of the postgame meal of the athlete?
Answer

Low-protein

High-protein

Low-carbohydrate

High-carbohydrate
B
Which of the following is a role for diet in physical activity?
Answer

Diets high in fat lead to a fall in amino acid utilization for fuel

Diets lacking in carbohydrates lead to increased amino acid utilization for fuel

Deficiencies of vitamins have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate

Deficiencies of minerals have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate
Nutrition
The science of foods and the nutrients and other substances they conain, and their actions within the body
Diet
The foods and beverages a person eats and drinks
Personal Preference
Choosing food due to taste or flavors. Ex. Sugar and Salt
Habit
Choosing foods without making decisions which can be comforting.
Ethnic Heritage
Among the strongest influences on food choices.
Social Interaction
Choosing food that allows you to enjoy companionship
Availability, Convenience, and Economy
Choosing foods that are quick to prepare or cheap
Positive and Negative Associations
Choosing food based emotions that you have experienced with them.
Emotions
Choosing foods when you are happy, depressed or upset.
Values
Choosing foods based on your beliefs (Religious, Political, or Environmental).
Body Weight and Image
Choosing foods based on how they will affect your vanity
Nutrition and Health Benefits
Choosing food based on how they will affect your life.
60%
Percent of water in the body
13-21%
% of Fat in Mens bodies
23-31%
% of fat in Womens bodies
Inorganic Compounds
Nutrients that do not contain Carbon
Minerals
Simplest of Nutrients, Inorganic
Water
Second most simple nutrient. Contains two elements, Inorganic
Water and Minerals
The two inorganic nutrients
Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, vitamins
4 Nutrients that are Organic
Carbon
Element found in all living things.
Carbohydrate, Fat, Protein
3 Nutrients that provide energy.
Essential Nutrients
Nutrients required by the body that the body cannot produce
Vitamins, Minerals, Water
Three nutrients that do not provide energy.
Calories
Energy released from carbohydrates, fats and proteins
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins required in large amounts by the body.
Micronutrients
Vitamins and Minerals that are required in small amounts by the body.
Energy Density
Amount of energy released per gram of food/nutrients
Metabolism
The processes by which nutrients are broken down to yield energy or used to make body structures.
Alcohol
Not a nutrient but does yield energy.
Vitamins
Organic nutrients that do not provide energy but facilitate the release of energy from fats, carbohydrates and proteins. Participates in various activities throughout the body
Minerals
Inorganic Nutrients found in body structures. Does not yield energy. Indestructible
Water
Provides the environment in which nearly all the body's activities are conducted. Inorganic.
Protein
The only nutrient containing Nitrogen
Nutritional Genomics
The science of how nutrients affect the activites of genes and how genes affect the interactions of between diet and disease.
Hypothesis
An unproven statement that tentatively explains the relationships between two or more variables
Observation
Identifying a problem. Part of the scientific method
Experiment
A study- conduct research to collect relevant data
Subjects
The people or animals participating in a research project
Placebo
A harmless medication given to provide comfort and hope; a sham treatment used in controlled research studies.
Placebo effect
A change that occurs in response to expectations about the effectiveness of a treatment that actually has no pharmaceutical effects.
Randomization
A process of choosing the members of the experimental and control groups without bias
Blind Experiment
An experiment in which the subjects do not know whether they are members of the experimental group or control group
Double Blind Experiment
An experiment in which neither the subjects nor the researchers know which subjects are members of the control or experimental groups until it is over.
Experimental group
A group of individuals similar in all possible respects to the control group except for the treatment.
Correlation
The simultaneous increase, decrease, or change in two variables. If A&B increase at the same time it is positive.
Control Group
Group of individuals similar in all possible respects to the experimental group except for the treatment.
Replication
Repeating an experiment and getting the same results
Theory
A tentative explanation that integrates many and diverse findings to further the understanding of a defined topic
Validity
Having the quality of being founded on fact or evidence
Variables
Factors that change.
Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI)
A set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the US and Canada.
EAR
Estimated Average Requirements
RDA
Recommended Dietary Allowances
AI
Adequate Intakes
UL
Tolerable Upper Intake Levels
Requirement of a Nutrient
How much of a nutrient is needed in a diet
Estimated Average Requirement
The average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific biochemical or physiological function in half the healthy people of a given age or gender group.
Recommended Dietary Allowance
The average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people; a goal for dietary intake by individuals
Deficient
The amount of a nutrient below which almost all healthy people can be expected over time to experience negative symptoms
Adequate Intake
The average daily amount of a nutrient that appears sufficient to maintain a specified criterion; guide used when RDA cannot be determined
Estimated Energy Requirement
The average dietary energy intake that maintains energy balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height and level of physical activity
Tolerable Upper Intake Level
The maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people and beyond which there is an increased risk of adverse health effects
Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges
Ranges of intakes for the energy nutrients that provide adequate energy and nutrients and reduce the risk of chronic disease.
Malnutrition
Any condition caused by excess or deficient food energy or nutrient intake or by an inbalance of nutrients
Undernutrition
Deficient energy or nutrients
Overnutrition
Excess energy or nutrients
Nutrition Assessment
A comprehensive analysis of a person's nutrition status that uses healthy, socioeconomic, drug and diet histories; anthropometic measurements; physical examinations; and laboratory tests.
Anthropometic
Relating to measurement of the physical characteristics of the body such as height and weight
Overt
Out in the open, easy to observe
Primary Deficiency
A nutrient deficiency caused by inadequate dietary intake of a nutrient
Secondary Deficiency
A nutrient deficiency cause by something other than an inadequate intake such as a disease condition or drug interaction that reduces absorption , accelerates use, hastens excretion of destroys the nutrient
Subclinical deficiency
A deficiency in the early stages before the outward signs have appeared
Covert
Hidden as if under covers
Chronic diseases
Diseases characterized by a slow progression and long duration. Heart disease, cancer, and diabetes
Risk Factor
A condition or behavior associated with elevated frequency of a disease but not proved to be causal.
6 Diet Planning Principles
Adequacy, Balance, kCalorie, Nutrient Density, Moderation, Variety
Adequacy
Providing all the essential nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health.
Balance
Providing foods in proprtion to one another and in proportion to the body's needs
kCalorie
Management of food energy intake
Nutrient Density
A measure of the nutrients a food provides relative to the energy it provides. The more nutrients and the fewer kcalories, the higher the nutrient density
empty-kCalorie foods
A popular term used to denote foods that contribute energy but lack protein, vitamins and minerals
Nutrient Profiling
Ranking foods based on their nutrient composition
Moderation
Providing enough but not too much of a substance
Variety
Eating a wide selection of foods within and among the major food groups.
5 Food Groups
Fruits, Vegetables, Grains, Meat and Legumes, Milk
Food Group Plans
Diet planning tools that sort foods into groups based on nutrient content and then specify that people should eat certain amounts of foods from each group.
Legumes
Plants of the bean and pea family, with seeds that are rich in protein compared with other plant derived foods.
Phytochemicals
Are the nonnutrient compounds found in plant-derived foods that have biological activity in the body.
Discretionary kCalorie Allowance
The kCalories remaining in a person's energy allowance after consuming enough nutrient dense foots to meet all nutrient needs for a day.
Exchange List
Diet planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat and protein. Foods on any single list can be used interchageably.
Processed foods
Foods that have been treated to change their physical, chemical, microbiological, or sensory properties
Fortified
The addition to a food of nutrients that were either not originally present or present in insignificant amounts.
Refined
The process by which the coarse parts of a food are removed.
Enriched
The addition to a food of nutrients that were lost during processing so that the food will meet a specified standard
Whole Grain
A grain that maintains the same relative proportions of starchy endosperm, germ, and bran as the original.
Grain enrichment nutrients
Iron, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Niacin, Folate
Imitation Foods
Foods that substitute for and resemble another food, but are nutritionally inferior to it with respect to vitamin, mineral, or protein content.
Food Substitutes
Foods that are designed to replace other foods
Functional Foods
Contain physiologically active compounds that provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition.
Daily Values
Reference values developed by the FDA specifically for use on food labels
Percent Daily Value
The percentage of a daily value recommendation found in a specified serving of food for key nutrients based on a 2000 kcalorie diet.
High or excellent Source Nutrients
Greater than or equal to 20% nutrients
Good Source of Nutrients
10-19% nutrients content
Low Source of Nutrients
5% Nutrient Content
Nutrient Claims
Statements that characterize the quantity of a nutrient in a food
Health Claims
Statements that characterize the relationship between a nutrient or other substance in a food and a disease or health-related condition
Free
Nutritionally trivial and unlikely to have a physiological consequence.
Good Source Of
The product provides between 10 and 19 percent of the Daily Value for a given nutrient per serving
Healthy
A food that is low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, and sodium and that contains at least 10 percent of the Daily Values for Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Iron, Calcium, Protein or fiber.
High
20 Percent or more of the Daily Value for a given nutrient or kcalories than the comparison food.
Less
At least 25% less of a given nutrient or kcalories than the comparison food
Light or Lite
One-third fewer kcalories than the comparison food; 50% or less of the fat or sodium than the comparison food.
Low
An amount that would allow frequent consumption of a food without exceeding the Daily Value for the nutrient.
More
At least 10% more of the daily value for a given nutrient than the comparison food.
Organic
On food labels, that at least 95% of the products ingredients have been grown and processed according to the USDA's regulations defining the use of fertilizers, herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, preservatives, and other chemical ingredients.
Kcalorie-free
Fewer than 5 kcalories per serving
low kcalorie
40 kcalories or less per serving
reduced kcalorie
at least 25% fewer kcalories per serving than the comparison food
Percent fat-free
May be used only if the product meets the definition of low fat or fat free and must reflect the amount of fat in 100 grams.
fat-free
Less than 0.5 gram of fat per serving.
Low Fat
3 grams of fat or less per serving
Less Fat
25% or less fat than the comparison food.
Saturated Fat Free
Less than .5 gram of saturated fat and .5 gram of trans fat per serving
Low Saturated Fat
1 Gram or less saturated fat and less than .5 gram of trans fat per serving
Less Saturated Fat
25% or less saturated fat and trans fat combined than the comparison food
Trans Fat Free
Less than .5 gram of trans fat and less than .5 gram of saturated fat per serving.
Cholesterol free
Less than 2 milligrams cholesterol per serving and 2 grams or less saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving
Low Cholesterol
20 Milligrams or less cholesterolper serving and 2 grams or less saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving
Less Cholesterol
25% percent or less cholesterol than the comparison food and 2 grams or less saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving
Extra Lean
Less than 5 grams of fat, 2 grams of saturated fat and trans fat combined adn 95 milligrams of cholererol per serving and per 100 grams of meat, poultry and seafood.
Lean
Less than 10 grams of fat, 4.5 grams of saturated fat and trans fat combined and 95 milligrams of cholesterol per serving and per 100 grams of meat, poultry and seafood.
High Fiber
5 Grams or more of fiber per serving
Sugar Free
Less than .5 gram of sugar per serving
Sodium free/salt free
Less than 5 milligrams of sodium per serving
Low Sodium
140 milligrams or less per serving
Very low sodium
35 milligrams or less per serving
Structure function claims
Statements that characterize the relationship between a nutrient or other substance in a food and its role in the body.
3 Classifications of Carbohydrates
monosaccharides, disaccharide, polysaccharide
Fiber
what complex carb is indigestible
Grains
what is the main food source of carbohydrates
why is fiber so important in the diet
soluble (pectin) lowers chol,
insoluble (whole grain) roughage
where is starch stored in plant grains
endosperm
what is glycogen
animal polysaccharide made of glucose
where do carbohydrates begin to digest ___ as ____ _____
mouth salivary amylase
why is there no digestion of starch in the stomach
too acidic stops amylase
what ph inactivates amylase
high acidity 7
what is the function of mucus in the stomach lining
prevent acid from eating the stomach lining
Name digestive enzymes of carbs in s. intestine
maltase,sucrase,lactase
what are dextrins
short chains of glucose left when starch breaks down
what are the small projections from the wall of the intestines and the function
villi, transport, absorb nutrients.
what nutrients enter the lymph
Fats and fat soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K
monosaccharides have how many carbon rings in a ring shape
one
what is the sweetest monosaccharide
fructose
What is the common structure in monosaccharides and disaccharides
glucose
what chemical reaction links molecules
condensation
what is milk sugar called? inability of digest this is called?
lactose / lactose intolerance
which organ converts fructose and galactose to glucose for the body
liver
what is the role of insulin in the body
lower blood glucose into cell
where is insulin produced
pancreas
define hyper
high blood glucose
what are the 3 pathways that blood glucose can take
cell - for energy
storage as glycogen
storage as fat
name the artificial sweetners
Sweet and Low (oldest)
Equal
Splenda
examples of fiber forms
soluble -pectin (lowers cholesterol)
insoluble- fast like roughage/cellulose such as whole grain
where is glycogen made and stored
liver and muscles as glucose.
characteristic of sweet and low
saccharin not absorbed. artificial fructose.liver cannot convert to glucose
characteristic of splenda
sucralose is added chlorine ion. excreted quickly, better to use
characteristic of equal
Aspertame absorbed aa but builds toxins (PKU)
who am I : glucose + glucose
maltase = breaks maltose
who am I : 1 glucose + 1 fructose
sucrase = breaks sucrose
who am I = 1 glucose + 1 galactose
Lactase = breaks lactose
hypoglycemia
low blood sugar
what chemical reaction separates molecules
hydrolysis
Simple Carbohydrates
Monosaccharides & Disaccharides
Complex Carbohydrates
Polysaccharides
Hexoses
Sugars with 6 atoms of Carbon and the formula C6H12O6.
Sugars
Monosaccharides and Disaccharides in common form.
Glucose
A monosaccharide known as Blood sugar or dextrose. Serves as an essential energy source of all the body's activities.
Fructose
A monosaccharide known as fruit sugar or levelose. Sweetest form of all sugars.
B
What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol?
A-Brain
B-Liver
C-Pancreas
D-Digestive tract
B OR C
Which of the following dietary components cannot be used to synthesize and store glycogen?
A-Lactose
B-Animal fats
C-Wheat starch
D-Plant protein
C
Approximately what percentage of alcohol in the body is eliminated via the urine and breath?
A-1
B-2
C-10
D-25
D
Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of

A-ketones.
B-fructose.
C-pyruvate.
D-acetyl CoA.
D
What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?
A-Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
B-Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
C-Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
D-Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis
A-
Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
A-It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
B-It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
C-It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
D-It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight
B
Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of
A-Liver fat.
B-liver glucose.
C-ketone bodies.
D-acetyl CoA molecules.
C
All of the following are among the functions of the liver except
A-synthesis of urea.
B-synthesis of glycogen.
C-production of red blood cells.
D-conversion of fructose to glucose.
C
Which of the following is the body's first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate?
A-Catabolism of body fat
B-Catabolism of glycogen
C-Synthesis and storage of glycogen
D-Synthesis and storage of triglycerides
A
During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?
A-Protein
B-Ketones
C-Glycogen
D-Triglycerides
D
Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving?
A-Low-fat milk
B-Cottage cheese
C-Chocolate milk
D-Cheddar cheese
B
Which of the following would least likely be connected with the development of lactose intolerance?
A-Medicines
B-Milk allergy
C-Prolonged diarrhea
D-Inherited lactase deficiency
D
What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal?
A-Diabetes index
B-Glycemic index
C-Diabetes potential
D-Glycemic response
A
What is another name for lactose?
A-Milk sugar
B-Fruit sugar
C-Table sugar
D-Artificial sugar
D
Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of
A-amino acids from glucose.
B-lactose from a source of sucrose.
C-fat from excess carbohydrate intake.
D-glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance.
D
The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the
A-mouth.
B-stomach.
C-pancreas.
D-small intestine.
A
In which of the following are ample amounts of carbohydrates almost always found?
A-Plant foods
B-Health foods
C-Animal products
D-Protein-rich foods
B
For most of the world's population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase?
A-Declines by 30-40%
B-Declines by 90-95%
C-Increases by 30-40%
D-Increases by 90-95%
D
All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame except
A-aspartic acid.
B-methyl group.
C-phenylalanine.
D-methanol group.
D
When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration?
A-Insulin
B-Secretin
C-Glucogen
D-Epinephrine
C
Important factors in the selection of a margarine product include all of the following except
A-it should be trans fat free.
B-it should be soft instead of hard.
C-it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids.
D-it should list liquid vegetable oil as the first ingredient.
B
Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
A-amino acids.
B-double bonds.
C-saccharide units.
D-peptide linkages.
C
Major sources of cholesterol include all of the following except
A-Meat
B-Shrimp
C-Avocados
D-Hamburger
A
Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to
A-lower blood pressure.
B-higher blood cholesterol.
C-greater tendency of the blood to clot.
D-decreased storage of omega-3 fatty acids.
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition?
A-Consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
B-The omega-3 fatty acid content of eggs is increased by feeding hens more coconut oil
C-The amount of cholesterol in one egg is about the same as in one serving of ice cream
D-The cholesterol is found in approximately equal amounts in the yolk and the white (albumin)
B
Which of the following substances cannot be absorbed directly into the blood?
A-Glycerol
B-Long-chain fatty acids
C-Short-chain fatty acids
D-Medium-chain fatty acids
C
Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?
A-Saturated
B-Hydrogenated
C-Monounsaturated
D-Polyunsaturated
D
Which of the following characteristics is shared by olive oil and canola oil?
A-Neither is liquid at room temperature
B-Neither contains saturated fatty acids
C-Both contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids
D-Both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids
D
Which of the following is a drawback of olestra consumption?
A-It yields 9 kcalories per gram
B-It imparts off-flavors to foods
C-It raises blood glucose levels
D-It inhibits absorption of vitamin E
C
A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
A-EPA.
B-DHA.
C-mercury.
D-cadmium.
D
The body's amino acid pool consists of
A-essential amino acids only.
B-endogenous amino acids only.
C-nonessential amino acids only.
D-both essential and nonessential amino acids.
B
After a hamburger is eaten, in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated?
A-Mouth
B-Stomach
C-Small intestine
D-Large intestine
D
The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of
A-lactose.
B-omega-3 fats.
C-soy polysaccharides.
D-a certain amino acid.
C
All of the following are characteristics of protein-energy malnutrition except
A-it is found in hospitalized adults.
B-it is found in elderly living alone.
C-it almost always exhibits overt signs.
D-it is common in people with anorexia nervosa.
D
Alberta is a 20 year old who has been a vegetarian for 3 years. She comes to you for advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is: ". . . vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals." How should Alberta be advised?

A-She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency
B-he should avoid the "limiting" amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status
C-Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency
D-Although many foods don't provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs
D
What is the chief function of pepsin?

A-Emulsifies dietary proteins
B-Activates hydrochloric acid
C-Activates pancreatic proteases
D-Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides
B
What is the range of daily protein intake, in g/kg, recommended for athletes?
A-0.8-1.1
B-1.2-1.7
C-1.8-2.4
D-2.5-3.0
C
What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?
A-Number of side chains in the protein
B-Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
C-Order of amino acids in the peptide chain
D-Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein
C
Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake?
A-Decreased excretion of calcium
B-Decreased size of the liver and kidneys
C-Increased production and excretion of urea
D-Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys
B
What is the fate of excess dietary protein?
A-After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids
B-After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded
C-Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60%, resulting in less absorption
D-After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal
D
Which of the following is a main criticism of the use of the MyPyramid?
A-It lacks a personalized approach
B-The five food groups are not clearly identified
C-There is no encouragement of physical activity
D-Not enough information is readily available because there is no text
C
Which of the following is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels?
A-They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA
B-They are expressed on a "per 1000-kcalorie intake" basis
C-They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient
D-They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake
C
Which of the following is not a feature of a food group plan?
A-Defines serving equivalents
B-Considered a tool for diet planning
C-Sorts foods of similar water content
D-Specifies the number of servings from each group
A
Which of the following is an expression of the nutrient density of a food?
A-0.01 mg iron per kcalorie
B-110 kcalories per cup
C-0.5 mg iron per serving
D-110 kcalories per serving
A
What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process?
A-Iron
B-Iodine
C-Calcium
D-Magnesium
C
The most common causes of death today in the United States include all of the following except
A-cancer.
B-diabetes.
C-tuberculosis.
D-heart disease.
A
Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?
A-Protein
B-Calcium
C-Vitamin C
D-Vitamin D
B
What is the chief reason people choose the foods they eat?
A-Cost
B-Taste
C-Convenience
D-Nutritional value
D
How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings?
A-5
B-8
C-10
D-13
B
Which of the following is used to determine the presence of abnormal functions inside the body due to a nutrient deficiency?
A-Diet history
B-Laboratory tests
C-Body weight loss
D-Physical examination
B
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of
milk.

red meat.

fresh fruits.

yellow vegetables.
A
What nutrient deficiency during pregnancy may give rise to a child with cretinism?
Answer

Iodine

Copper

Chromium

Molybdenum
C
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
Answer

Hemolytic

Megaloblastic

Microcytic hypochromic

Macrocytic hyperchromic
B
Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior?
Answer

The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption

Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia

The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral changes

Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than children
B
Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency?
Answer

Gout

Goiter

Anemia

Hypertension
B
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition?
Answer

It participates in the functioning of insulin

Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China

Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables

It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is only 2-3 mg/day
B
Which of the following is an important function of selenium?
Answer

Helps blood to clot

Inhibits the formation of free radicals

Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer

Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen
A
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth?
Answer

Excessive fluoride in the water

Insufficient fluoride in the water

Excessive intake of simple sugars

Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
C
Zinc is highest in foods that also contain a high amount of
Answer

fat.

fiber.

protein.

carbohydrate.
B
Flaxseed is a rich source of
Answer

lutein.

lignans.

sulforaphane.

organosulfur compounds.
B
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal?
Answer

It activates transferrin

It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form

It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach

It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
A
Your aunt Thelma has been anemic for some time and was recently shown to be deficient in copper. Which of the following explains the association of copper and anemia?
Answer

Copper is required for hemoglobin synthesis

Copper plays a role in wound healing, which prevents excessive blood loss

Anemia affects synthesis of protoporphyrin, which interferes with iron absorption

Copper is known to protect against free radical formation, which prevents excess damage of red blood cells
B
Chromium deficiency is characterized by
Answer

hypertension.

hyperglycemia.

enlargement of the liver.

enlargement of the thyroid gland.
A
What is the most reliable source of dietary fluoride?
Answer

Public water

Dark green vegetables

Milk and milk products

Meats and whole-grain cereals
C
Which of the following foods should be especially limited in the diet of individuals with hemochromatosis?
Answer

Dairy products

Fluoridated water

Iron-fortified cereals

Carbonated beverages
B
Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition?
Answer

Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron

It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing

Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet

Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries
A
What is the response of the thyroid gland to an iodine deficiency?
Answer

Increase in its size to trap more iodine

Increase in its size to trap more thyroxine

Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone

Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
Answer

Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected

Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity

Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis

Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
C
Commercially available zinc-containing lozenges are advertised to be effective against
Answer

fatigue.

vitamin A toxicity.

the common cold.

slowing of the BMR.
B
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with
Answer

tea.

meat.

milk.

whole-grain bread.
C
Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development?
Answer

Tin

Cobalt

Silicon

Barium
B
Conditions associated with zinc deficiency include all of the following except
Answer

altered taste.

kidney failure.

abnormal night vision.

poor healing of wounds.
C
All of the following are characteristics of copper in nutrition except
Answer

deficiency is rare.

legumes are a rich source.

absorption from foods is poor.

absorption is reduced by ingestion of zinc supplements.
C
Your cousin Emily is a vegetarian. Since you have just learned in your nutrition class that nonheme iron is absorbed less efficiently than heme iron, you want to make sure Emily is getting enough iron. What should you recommend Emily do to maximize her iron absorption?
Answer

Choose spinach as her main source of iron

Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of milk

Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of orange juice

Refrain from any major activity after eating to aid digestion/absorption of iron
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition?
Answer

A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism

Supplements are known to be helpful

Whole grains represent an excellent source

In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
B
A person's highest bone density is achieved by around age (years)
Answer

18.

30.

55.

70.
D
All of the following are characteristics of phosphorus in nutrition except
Answer

high dietary intakes have no adverse effects.

about 85% of the body's phosphorus is located in bones and teeth.

the phosphoric acid in cola drinks has little effect on bone content.

the ratio of phosphorus to calcium in the diet is important for bone maintenance.
B
All of the following are common participants in the regulation of body fluid pH except
Answer

proteins.

oxalic acid.

bicarbonate.

carbonic acid.
B
What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated?
Answer

Buffer action

Osmotic pressure

Permeable selectivity

Electrolyte imbalance
B
Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following except
Answer

obesity.

female gender.

moderate alcohol intake.

having African American heritage.
D
Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk?
Answer

Rickets

Arthritis

Low blood pressure

High blood pressure
B
Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of
Answer

fiber.

lactose.

phytic acid.

oxalic acid.
B
The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person's
Answer

sex.

age.

calcium intake.

blood estrogen level.
B
Which of the following is a major function of chloride?
Answer

Participates in wound healing

Helps maintain gastric acidity

Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte

Protects bone structures against degeneration
D
All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for osteoporosis except
Answer

being thin.

being female.

having anorexia nervosa.

consuming a high-protein diet.
B
What is the major source of dietary sulfur?
Answer

Fats

Protein

Mineral salts

Carbohydrates
C
Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium?
Answer

Milk

Spinach

Broccoli

Pinto beans
C
Certain green leafy vegetables have a very low calcium bioavailability due to the presence of
Answer

low calcium content.

low vitamin D content.

naturally occurring binders.

high magnesium content, which lowers calcium absorption.
D
The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent
Answer

dehydration.

constipation.

osteoporosis.

hypertension.
B
Which of the following ages (years) is typically associated with people having the densest bone?
Answer

15

28

35

46
A
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?
Answer

Processed foods

Unprocessed foods

Natural salt content of foods

Salt added during cooking and at the table
A
All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except
Answer

processed foods are a major source.

high intakes may protect against stroke.

per serving size, legumes are a rich source.

per serving size, bananas are a rich source.
D
On a per kcalorie basis, which of the following are the best sources of calcium?
Answer

Meats

Fruits

Breads

Vegetables
C
Which of the following is a feature of physical activity and bone health?
Answer

Dancing is not an effective activity for helping maintain bone density

Weight training improves bone density in young but not older women

Working the muscles places stress on bones which promotes bone density

Weight-bearing activities are effective in maintaining bone mass in adults but not in adolescents
C
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
Answer

34

65

80

105
C
Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?
Answer

Participates in wound healing

Helps maintain gastric acidity

Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte

Protects bone structures against degeneration
C
Which of the following is a major function of magnesium?
Answer

Transport of oxygen

Prevention of anemia

Catalyst in energy metabolism

Production of thyroid hormone
A
When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity?
Answer

Sodium and chloride

Bicarbonate and sulfate

Calcium and magnesium

Potassium and phosphate
B
Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?
Answer

It is most common in men over 45 years of age

It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels

It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium

It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin
B
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
Answer

Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans

High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion

High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people

Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure
B
What is the body's most indispensable nutrient?
Answer

Fat

Water

Protein

Glucose
A
Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity?
Answer

They can induce dehydration

They suppress the thirst mechanisms

They may lead to complete kidney failure

They reduce blood glucose concentration
B
Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as
Answer

hypertension.

hyponatremia.

hyperkalemia.

water intoxication.
B
What percentage of a person's total sodium intake derives from naturally occurring food sodium?
Answer

0

10

50

80
D
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
Answer

Fruits

Breads

Enriched grains

Certain green vegetables
A
In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?
Answer

Fourth

Fifth

Sixth

Seventh
B
What is another term for hypertension?
Answer

High blood sodium

High blood pressure

Excessive mental stress

Excessive muscular contraction
D
All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except
Answer

deficiencies are extremely rare.

intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.

it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.

the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight.
C
Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?
Answer

High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany

Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor

Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness

Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults
C
How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g?
Answer

100 mg

125 mg

1,000 mg

2,500 mg
A
Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found?
Answer

Bones

Teeth

Fatty tissue

Cells of soft tissue
B
Which of the following minerals would a bulimia nervosa patient be likely to lose in the greatest amount?
Answer

Calcium

Chloride

Potassium

Phosphorus
A
At what age do adults normally begin to lose bone mass?
Answer

30-40 yrs

40-50 yrs

50-60 yrs

60-70 yrs
A
Sam has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure. His doctor recommended adopting the DASH diet plan. Along with including more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, he was also advised to reduce daily sodium intake to no more than 2000 mg. How much salt (g) would be allowed under Sam's restriction?
Answer

5

6.5

8

9.5
B
Your uncle Carlos has survived two heart attacks, and recently asked if he might be deficient in selenium, which he had just heard is essential to heart health. You are aware of his food habits and explain that his condition could not be the result of a dietary deficiency of selenium because
Answer

tap water is a source of selenium.

selenium is prevalent in most food groups.

he consumes legumes, a rich source of selenium.

he drinks fluoridated water, which increases bioavailability of selenium.
C
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per serving?
Answer

Yogurt

Skim milk

Pinto beans

American cheese
B
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
Answer

Chicken

Shellfish

Beefsteak

Hamburger
C
When eaten in the same meal, which of the following foods enhances the absorption of iron in legumes?
Answer

Nuts

Fiber

Oranges

Whole-grain breads
C
The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except
Answer

size of red blood cells.

number of red blood cells.

DNA content of red blood cells.

hemoglobin content of red blood cells.
C
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
Answer

tea.

coffee.

sugars.

phytates.
B
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of
Answer

milk.

red meat.

fresh fruits.

yellow vegetables.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency?
Answer

Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin levels decline as anemia worsens

Iron supplements are not as effective at treating anemia as is proper nutrition

People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves

The concave nails of iron-deficiency anemia result from abnormal ferritin levels
A
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called
Answer

thyroxine.

goitrogen.

thiostimulating hormone.

tissue stimulating hormone.
D
Zinc is known to play an important role in all of the following functions except
Answer

wound healing.

synthesis of retinal.

production of sperm.

oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
Answer

Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected

Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity

Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis

Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
C
Which of the following has been shown to improve absorption of iron from iron supplements?
Answer

Taking then with milk

Taking them with orange juice

Taking them on an empty stomach rather than with meals

Taking them in the form of the ferric salt rather than the ferrous salt
B
Which of the following individuals would most likely not need an iron supplement?
Answer

Two-year-old

Elderly female

Pregnant female

Adolescent female
D
Which of the following would most likely result from an excessive intake of iodine?
Answer

Diarrhea

Skin rashes

Dehydration

Thyroid gland enlargement
A
What population group is at the highest risk for iron overload?
Answer

Adult men

Adult women

Pregnant women

Adolescents
C
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells?
Answer

Two weeks

One month

Four months

Six months
D
Which of the following fruits are known to contain substances that inhibit the functioning of the thyroid gland?
Answer

Apples and pears

Lemons and limes

Avocados and mangos

Peaches and strawberries
B
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
Answer

phytates.

MFP factor.

soybean protein.

tannic acid in tea.
B
Keshan disease results from a deficiency of
Answer

copper.

selenium.

manganese.

molybdenum.
A
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
Answer

insufficient intake of iodine from foods.

overconsumption of other trace elements.

overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.

pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
A
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except
Answer

anemia.

altered taste acuity.

impaired vision in dim light.

increased susceptibility to infection.
C
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form?
Answer

Rice

Spinach

Chicken

Orange juice
D
All of the following factors are known to enhance the absorption of iron except
Answer

MFP factor.

organic acids.

ascorbic acid.

calcium from milk.
C
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption?
Answer

Tea

Coffee

Foods containing vitamin C

Foods containing vitamin E
B
What is the major cause of iron deficiency?
Answer

Blood loss

Poor nutrition

Hereditary defect

Parasitic infections of the GI tract
B
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be expected among the children of Smalltownville?
Answer

Goiter

Dental caries

GI infections

Hemochromatosis
A
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency?
Answer

Excess zinc

Excess protein

Insufficient iodine

Insufficient calcium
C
What organ is the chief regulator of the body's acid-base balance?
Answer

Skin

Liver

Kidneys

Stomach
A
After age, what is the next strongest risk factor for osteoporosis?
Answer

Sex

Tobacco use

Calcium intake

Physical activity level
A
All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except
Answer

spinach.

almonds.

corn tortillas.

sesame seeds.
B
Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to
Answer

provide energy for cells.

provide rigidity for the bones and teeth.

regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.

maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits.
C
Which of the following does not serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body?
Answer

Sodium

Chloride

Calcium

Potassium
D
What component of soy is thought to account for most of its beneficial effects on bone health?
Answer

Fiber

Protein

Calcium

Phytochemicals
D
Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except
Answer

blood clotting.

muscle contraction.

prevention of dental caries.

production of red blood cells.
D
Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in anyone's diet?
Answer

Iron

Calcium

Chromium

Phosphorus
D
All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for osteoporosis except
Answer

being thin.

being female.

having anorexia nervosa.

consuming a high-protein diet.
C
Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?
Answer

A

E

K

D
C
The risk for vitamin D deficiency increases with advancing age for all of the following reasons except reduced
Answer

exposure to sunlight.

milk intake of older people.

absorption of dietary vitamin D.

activation of vitamin D by the kidneys.
A
In what chief capacity does vitamin K function?
Answer

Blood clotting

Energy metabolism

Calcium utilization

Epithelial tissue renewal
D
Greg says that he usually eats 1 medium carrot every day to ensure that he's consuming enough vitamin A. Today he said he didn't eat any carrots and is worried that there is not enough vitamin A in his system. What would you say to Greg to allay his fear?
Answer

"Take a vitamin A supplement as soon as you can!"

"As long as you eat some chicken tonight you will not develop chicken eyes."

"Well, there isn't any vitamin A in carrots so you probably haven't consumed vitamin A for some time now."

"Don't worry; fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the body. It takes a lot longer than one day to develop any adverse effects."
C
The main function of vitamin E in the body is to act as a(n)
Answer

peroxide.

coenzyme.

antioxidant.

free radical.
B
Which of the following is the most reliable source of vitamin D in the diet?
Answer

Meat

Fortified milk

Fruits and vegetables

Enriched breads and cereals
A
Which of the following is a naturally occurring food source of vitamin D?
Answer

Egg yolks

Red meats

Tomato juice

Whole-wheat bread
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin C and vitamin E?
Answer

Both protect against LDL oxidation

Neither reduces arterial inflammation

Neither participates in regulating blood clotting

Both act as prooxidants at physiological intakes
D
Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
Answer

Retinol

Tocopherol

Phylloquinone

Cyanocobalamin
A
Which of the following symptoms would indicate a vitamin D deficiency?
Answer

Bowed legs

Rupture of red blood cells

Frequent respiratory infections

Abnormally high blood calcium level
C
Which of the following is associated with the condition known as xerosis?
Answer

Toxicity of vitamin A

Toxicity of beta-carotene

Deficiency of vitamin A

Deficiency of vitamin D
D
What is a free radical?
Answer

An antioxidant substance that prevents accumulation of cell-damaging oxides

A substance in food that interacts with nutrients to decrease their utilization

A nutrient in excess of body needs that the body is free to degrade with no consequence

A molecule that is unstable and highly reactive because it contains unpaired electrons
B
Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A?
Answer

Corn

Pumpkin pie

Baked potato

Whole-grain bread
D
Question 14

Vitamin A supplements are helpful in treating which of the following conditions?
Answer

Acne

Rickets

Osteomalacia

Night blindness
B
All of the following are other names for vitamin D except
Answer

calciferol.

calcitonin.

cholecalciferol.

dihydroxy vitamin D.
A
What population group is most vulnerable to vitamin A toxicity?
Answer

Children

Adolescents

Adults

Elderly
C
Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet?
Answer

Meats

Citrus fruits

Vegetable oils

Milk and dairy products
C
Why shouldn't a 7-month pregnant woman be prescribed Accutane?
Answer

It may aggravate existing edema

It may lead to prolongation of labor

It is a teratogen and can be harmful to the baby

It contains high concentrations of vitamin D that can cause birth defects
C
What population group is at highest risk for osteomalacia?
Answer

Infants

Elderly men

Adult women

Children ages 2-12 years
D
Which of the following is a feature of Accutane?
Answer

It is effective in treating rickets

It is less toxic than pure vitamin A

It is known to be effective in treating mild but not severe acne

It is known to cause birth defects when used by pregnant women
C
In which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur?
Answer

Adolescent women

Overweight adults

Those taking vitamin A supplements

Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily
C
Which of the following is a property of the fat-soluble vitamins?
Answer

Most of them are synthesized by intestinal bacteria

Intestinal transport occurs by way of the portal circulation

Deficiency symptoms may take years to develop on a poor diet

Toxicity risk is higher for vitamins E and K than for other fat-soluble vitamins
D
Among the following, which contains the highest concentration of vitamin E?
Answer

Butter

Carrots

Milk fat

Corn oil
D
What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D?
Answer

Promotes secretion of calcitonin

Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol

Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone
D
Which of the following can the body use to synthesize vitamin D?
Answer

Bone

Carotene

Tryptophan

Exposure to sunlight
C
What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Answer

Inadequate intake

Increased excretion

Inadequate absorption

Increased losses in food preparation
B
John is looking to increase his dietary sources of vitamin C. However, he expresses a strong dislike for all citrus fruits. Which of the following shopping lists would you recommend?
Answer

Liver, yogurt, milk

Brussels sprouts, broccoli, strawberries

Banana, peanut butter, canned tuna fish

Whole grains, pork, fortified corn flakes
A
Which of the following is an essential nutrient for human beings?
Answer

Folate

Inositol

Methoxatin

Lipoic acid
B
What vitamin deficiency disease appeared in people who had subsisted on a diet high in corn and low in protein?
Answer

Scurvy

Pellagra

Wet beriberi

Pernicious anemia
B
In what capacity does vitamin C function?
Answer

Coenzyme for energy release

Cofactor in collagen formation

Cofactor with calcium in blood coagulation

Coenzyme in the formation of red blood cells
C
What is a precursor?
Answer

A conditionally essential vitamin

A sign or symptom of a vitamin deficiency disorder

A substance that is used to synthesize another compound

A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines
C
All of the following are characteristic of thiamin nutrition except
Answer

severe deficiency may lead to edema.

severe deficiency may occur without edema.

recommended intakes are stated in "equivalents."

recommended intakes are based primarily on participation in enzyme activity.
D
What is a chief function of the B vitamins?
Answer

Antioxidation

Anticoagulation

Antibody stabilization

Coenzyme participation
A
The appearance of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may be delayed due to high intake of supplements of
Answer

folate.

niacin.

vitamin C.

vitamin B6.
A
Which of the following nutrients functions to prevent the appearance of a bilateral, symmetrical dermatitis, primarily on areas exposed to the sun?
Answer

Niacin

Choline

Inositol

Riboflavin
B
What type of container is best for protecting the riboflavin content of milk?
Answer

Airtight

Cardboard

Transparent glass

Translucent plastic
C
Milk and milk products provide liberal amounts of which of the following vitamins?
Answer

Folate

Biotin

Riboflavin

Pantothenic acid
D
Which of the following food groups ordinarily contains the highest amount of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie?
Answer

Dairy

Meats

Fruits

Vegetables
C
Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of
Answer

folate.

selenium.

vitamin B12.

iron and copper.
C
Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect the vitamin content of
Answer

folate.

thiamin.

vitamin A.

riboflavin.
D
Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C?
Answer

Tofu

Yogurt

Legumes

Broccoli
A
Which of the following is a common treatment for pernicious anemia caused by inadequate absorption?
Answer

Injection of cobalamin

Topical administration of liver extract

Oral supplements of B-vitamin complex

A diet high in liver and green, leafy vegetables
D
Your brother Bob is a competitive body builder. His trainer suggested that he consume 4 egg white omelets per day. Bob remembers a warning about a possible vitamin deficiency from consuming too many egg whites and asks if he should follow the prescribed diet. Your reply to Bob is that he should not
Answer

be concerned as long as he consumes both the yolk and whites of the eggs.

follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to niacin and prevent its absorption.

follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to biotin and prevent its absorption.

be concerned, because, when the eggs are cooked, the avidin protein is denatured, and thus does not pose a problem for deficiency disease.
B
Beriberi results from a deficiency of
Answer

niacin.

thiamin.

vitamin C.

vitamin B12.
C
Which of the following is required for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12?
Answer

Bile

Lipase

Intrinsic factor

Carboxypeptidase
B
Folate deficiency has been reported in infants fed
Answer

soy milk.

goat's milk.

chicken liver.

infant formula.
C
What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism?
Answer

Biotin

Vitamin A

Vitamin B6

Riboflavin
A
What food makes a significant contribution to vitamin C intakes in the U.S. population despite the modest vitamin C concentration?
Answer

Potatoes

Organ meats

Breaded fish

Whole-grain cereals
A
Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake?
Answer

Milk

Potatoes

Orange juice

Peanut butter
D
Which of the following is a type of neural tube defect?
Answer

Scurvy

Beriberi

Pellagra

Spina bifida
D
A child with bowed legs is likely deficient in vitamin
Answer

A.

K.

E.

D.
D
Which of the following features are shared by Retin-A and Accutane?
Answer

They are teratogenic

They are highly toxic

They are usually taken orally

They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A
B
All of the following are characteristics of excess consumption of beta-carotene except
Answer

overconsumption from foods is harmless.

overconsumption from supplements is harmless.

drinking alcohol worsens the adverse effects of supplements.

smoking cigarettes aggravates the detrimental effects of supplements.
C
What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation?
Answer

Albumin

Cholesterol

Chylomicrons

Liposoluble binding proteins
B
Your old friend from high school has just moved to Northern Canada to do full-time research on bats in caves. She typically works in the caves during the day when the bats are there and leaves at sundown when the bats are active. Since your friend only purchases organic and all natural foods, which of the following would you most likely advise she buy regularly at the grocery store?
Answer

Whole-grain bread

Vitamin D-fortified milk

Vitamin A-fortified carrot juice

Omega-3 fatty acid-fortified milk
B
Jennifer has just had a baby. When she brings Thomas home, she regales you with the details of her hospital stay. She mentions that shortly after the birth, Thomas received an intramuscular injection of vitamin K, and she wondered why this was done, as it made him cry. You explained that it
Answer

was needed to prevent eye disease.

prevented possible bleeding events.

protected the baby from lipid oxidation.

was needed to promote good bone growth.
B
Recently, there has been a lot of news about the importance of antioxidants in the diet. Which of the following vitamins has been noted as preventing the oxidation of low-density lipoproteins?
Answer

A

E

K

D
B
A person seeking good sources of vitamin A would select all of the following except
Answer

liver.

bananas.

apricots.

sweet potatoes.
A
Which of the following conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a deficiency of the same nutrient?
Answer

Osteomalacia and rickets

Xerophthalmia and breath pentane release

Kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease

Hemolytic anemia and large-cell type anemia
C
Keratinization is the result of
Answer

toxicity of vitamin A.

toxicity of vitamin D.

deficiency of vitamin A.

deficiency of vitamin D.
B
What is the name of the vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults?
Answer

Rickets

Osteomalacia

Keratomalacia

Hyperkeratosis
C
Which of the following is responsible for transporting vitamin A from the liver to other tissues?
Answer

Albumin

Rhodopsin

Retinol-binding protein

Transcarotenoid protein
D
What type of foods should be controlled in individuals taking anticoagulant medicines?
Answer

Cold water fish

Processed soups

Enriched breads

Green leafy vegetables
C
The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually
Answer

xerosis.

xerophthalmia.

night blindness.

corneal keratinization.
D
The known dangers of taking vitamin supplements include all of the following except
Answer

vitamin toxicity.

the taker may ignore warning signs of a disease.

the taker may feel a false sense of security and consume a poor diet.

pathogenic bacterial overgrowth of the large intestines leading to increased risk of infection.
B
Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?
Answer

Folate

Biotin

Cyanocobalamin

Pantothenic acid
D
Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to
Answer

heat.

acid.

alkali.

ultraviolet light.
B
What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food?
Answer

The total amount available from plant and animal food

The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body

The amount that escapes destruction from food processing

The number of different chemical forms of the same vitamin
A
Among the following compounds that serve as coenzymes in metabolism, which is considered a vitamin for human beings?
Answer

Biotin

Inositol

Lipoic acid

Orotic acid
A
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in accumulation of homocysteine in the blood?
Answer

Folate

Biotin

Niacin

Vitamin K
A
hich of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?
Answer

Ham

Squash

Whole milk

Whole-grain breads
D
A person who shuns dairy and spends most of her time indoors would likely benefit from a supplement of
Answer

vitamin A.

vitamin B6.

vitamin C.

vitamin D.
D
Which of the following is a general function of vitamin C?
Answer

Antiviral agent

Antifungal agent

Anticancer agent

Antioxidant agent
A
When taken in large doses, which of the following vitamins is associated with liver injury and peptic ulcers?
Answer

Niacin

Thiamin

Vitamin B6

Vitamin B12
C
Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C?
Answer

Milk group

Meat group

Fruit group

Bread-cereal group
C
Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C?
Answer

Milk group

Meat group

Fruit group

Bread-cereal group
A
Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?
Answer

Bleeding gums

Pernicious anemia

Appearance of a cold

Hysteria and depression
D
Which of the following is not among the common signs of pellagra?
Answer

Diarrhea

Dementia

Dermatitis

Desiccation
B
Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin B12?
Answer

Pecans

Hot dog

Cauliflower

Whole-grain bread
A
General characteristics of the water-soluble vitamins include all of the following except
Answer

they must be consumed daily.

toxic levels in the body are rarely found.

they are absorbed directly into the blood.

excesses are eliminated from the kidneys.
B
Which of the following vitamins would be removed in the production of skim milk?
Answer

Thiamin

Vitamin A

Riboflavin

Vitamin B12
B
What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins?
Answer

Bile

Kidney

Intestine

Perspiration
D
In a person who loses the ability to absorb vitamin B12, approximately what period of time could elapse before deficiency signs develop?
Answer

One month

Six months

One year

Three years
B
Which of the following is not known to be a vitamin for human beings?
Answer

Cobalamin

Ubiquinone

Pyridoxine

Pantothenic acid
B
Of the following, which would most readily induce a vitamin K deficiency?
Answer

Achlorhydria

Antibiotic therapy

Presence of oxalic acid in food

Insufficient intake of green leafy vegetables
D
All of the following are forms of vitamin A except
Answer

retinol.

retinal.

retinoic acid.

retinoquinone.
D
All of the following are features of vitamin K in nutrition except
Answer

infants frequently require a supplement at birth.

good food sources are plants of the cabbage family.

risk of deficiency is increased in people taking antibiotics for prolonged periods.

gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs of most healthy adults.
D
The major function of vitamin E is to inhibit the destruction of
Answer

lysosomes.

free radicals.

mucopolysaccharides.

polyunsaturated fatty acids.
A
Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night blindness. Which of the following foods should she recommend be incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations from developing this condition?
Answer

Sweet potato

Orange juice

Peanut butter

Powdered skim milk
C
Which of the following is most likely to occur from a prolonged dietary deficiency of vitamin A?
Answer

Osteomalacia

Osteoporosis

Xerophthalmia

Prolonged blood-clotting time
C
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
Answer

Bone pain

Dermatitis

Skin yellowing

Vitamin A toxicity
C
Which vitamin is routinely given as a single dose to newborns?
Answer

Vitamin A

Vitamin E

Vitamin K

Vitamin B12
D
Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy?
Answer

B vitamins are a source of kilocalories

Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased

Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells

Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts
A
Which of the following is probably required in the diet of human beings?
Answer

Choline

Inositol

Lipoic acid

Pangamic acid
A
Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi?
Answer

High intakes of white rice

Low intakes of whole grains

High intakes of unrefined rice

Low intakes of enriched grains
A
Which of these meals is lowest in vitamin C?
Answer

Roast beef, carrots, noodles, and tea

Hot dog, cabbage, french fries, and milk

Roast beef, broccoli, noodles, and coffee

Spaghetti with tomato sauce, meatball, garlic bread, and red wine
B
A general niacin deficiency is known to be manifested in abnormalities of all of the following organs/systems except
Answer

skin.

skeletal system.

nervous system.

gastrointestinal tract.
B
Which of the following is a property of thiamin nutrition?
Answer

Participates in activation of prothrombin

Poor sources include seafood and cheeses

Significant amounts are found in leafy vegetables

Deficiency results in cheilosis and marked dermatitis
C
Tryptophan can be used in the body to synthesize
Answer

FAD.

biotin.

niacin.

inositol.
D
Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses during processing of food?
Answer

Biotin

Niacin

Vitamin B12

Pantothenic acid
D
Riboflavin needs are more difficult to meet when the diet is low in
Answer

meats.

grains.

vegetables.

dairy foods.
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
a. 34
b. 65
c. 80
d. 105
c
b
What is the body's most indispensable nutrient?
a. Fat
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Glucose
d
What fraction of lean tissue represents the water content?
a. 1/10
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 3/4
b
Which of the following is not a function of water in the body?
a. Lubricant
b. Source of energy
c. Maintains protein structure
d. Participant in chemical reactions
b
Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body?
a. Iron
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Calcium
b
Among the following groups, which has the highest percentage of body water?
a. Elderly
b. Children
c. Obese people
d. Female adolescents
b
In the body, water that resides between cells is known as
a. diuretic fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. edematous fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.
d
All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except
a. thirst.
b. fatigue.
c. weakness.
d. spastic muscles
d
Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebellum
c. Optic nerve
d. Hypothalamus
b
Where is interstitial water found?
a. Within cells
b. Between cells
c. Within the lungs
d. Within blood vessels
a
Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition?
a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium
b
What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's physical performance?
a. 1-2%
b. 3-4%
c. 5-9%
d. 10-15%
a
What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue, weakness, and loss of appetite?
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 7-8
b
Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as
a. hypertension.
b. hyponatremia.
c. hyperkalemia.
d. water intoxication
c
The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately
a. 0 to 0.5 liters.
b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters.
c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters.
d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters.
c
What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as urine in order to carry away the body's waste products?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 1,000
What is the minimum water intake for a 65-kg adult with an energy expenditure of 2,500 kcalories?
a. 250 mL
b. 650 mL
c. 1,250 mL
d. 2,500 mL
d
Approximately how much water is in a loaf of bread?
a. 2% of the loaf
b. 5% of the loaf
c. 20% of the loaf
d. 35% of the loaf
d
The minimum amount of water that must be excreted by the body to dispose of its wastes is termed
a. life supporting fluid loss.
b. mandatory water fraction.
c. obligatory water excretion.
d. minimum daily water requirement.
c
The approximate percentage of water in pizza is
a. 5.
b. 15.
c. 30.
d. 45.
d
Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 750
b
Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Phosphorus
a
c
Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate
a. scurvy.
b. diabetes.
c. hypertension.
d. megaloblastic anemia
d
Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water balance?
a. Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract
b. Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or tea
c. Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of the interstitial fluid volume
d. Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages
Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by
a. stimulating estrogen release.
b. enhancing osteoblast activity.
c. stimulating calcium absorption.
d. reducing renal calcium excretion.
b
Estrogen therapy for osteoporosis is often rejected because it may increase risk for
a. cancer.
b. heart disease.
c. hypertension.
d. diverticulosis
a
Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis in men?
a. High BMI
b. Alcohol abuse
c. Corticosteroid use
d. Low testosterone levels
a
The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for osteoporosis is related to
a. greater kidney retention of calcium.
b. the presence of bioavailable calcium.
c. more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation.
d. the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals
d
What component of soy is thought to account for most of its beneficial effects on bone health?
a. Fiber
b. Protein
c. Calcium
d. Phytochemicals
d
Among the following ethnic groups, which has the highest bone density?
a. Japanese
b. Caucasian
c. African-American
d. South American Hispanic
c
What is the incidence of bone fractures in African American women in comparison with Caucasian women?
a. Same
b. One-half as much
c. Twice as much
d. Three times as much
b
Which of the following is a feature of physical activity and bone health?
a. Dancing is not an effective activity for helping maintain bone density
b. Weight training improves bone density in young but not older women
c. Working the muscles places stress on bones which promotes bone density
d. Weight-bearing activities are effective in maintaining bone mass in adults but not in adolescents
c
Which of the following best explains why Asians from Japan and China show fewer bone fractures than do Caucasians and Hispanic people?
a. They have denser bones
b. They have small, compact, hips
c. They have higher calcium intakes
d. They use less tobacco and alcohol
b
Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?
a. Weight loss adversely affects bone density
b. Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
c. A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight people
d. People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with BMIs around 25
c
Common side effects of taking a high-dose calcium supplement include all of the following except
a. constipation.
b. excessive gas.
c. intestinal bloating.
d. increased iron absorption
d
Among the following calcium supplements, which contains the lowest percentage of calcium?
a. Calcium citrate
b. Calcium lactate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium gluconate
d
How many mg of calcium are present in a 500-mg tablet of calcium carbonate?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 350
d. 500
b
To minimize the risk of calcium toxicity, total daily intakes should be held to a maximum of
a. 500 mg.
b. 1,000 mg.
c. 2,500 mg.
d. 5,000 mg
c
What is most likely to occur when a calcium supplement and an iron supplement are taken simultaneously?
a. Absorption of iron is reduced
b. Absorption of iron is improved
c. Excretion of iron in the urine is reduced
d. Excretion of iron in the urine is enhanced
a
Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals?
a. A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis
b. The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition
c. Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
d. The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams
b
A measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed
a. net utilization.
b. bioavailability.
c. biological value.
d. utilization efficiency
b
Which of the following is not a general feature of the trace minerals?
a. Mild deficiencies are easy to overlook
b. They are rarely found in dietary supplements
c. Most are toxic at only 2½-7 times the requirements
d. The amounts contained in supplements are free from regulation by the FDA
b
What is the ionic state of ferrous iron?
a. -2
b. -1
c. +1
d. +2
d
What is the ionic state of ferric iron?
a. +3
b. +2
c. -2
d. -3
a
What iron-containing compound carries oxygen in the bloodstream?
a. Ferritin
b. Myoglobin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
d
What is the oxygen-carrying protein of muscle cells?
a. Transferrin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Cytochrome
b
If a person's body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be found in the hemoglobin?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
d
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron transport?
a. Albumin is the major iron transport protein in the blood
b. Transferrin in the blood carries iron to the bone marrow
c. Hemochromatosis results from inability to absorb and transport iron
d. Ferritin functions by transporting iron from the spleen to the bone marrow
b
Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the circulation to the tissues?
a. Albumin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Metallothionein
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption?
a. MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
b. Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
c. Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
d. Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from mucosal cells
c
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron?
a. Ferritin
b. Myoglobin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
a
All of the following are body proteins directly involved in iron metabolism except
a. ferritin.
b. transferrin.
c. hemosiderin.
d. metallothionein
d
All of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc except
a. absorption is inhibited by fiber.
b. absorption is inhibited by cow's milk.
c. transport in the blood is primarily by albumin.
d. absorption rises with increased needs of the body
c
Which of the following characteristics is shared by zinc and iron?
a. Good food sources include dairy products
b. Proteins in the blood are needed for their transport
c. Severe deficiencies lead to delay in the onset of puberty
d. Doses of 10 times the RDA may cause death in children
b
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal?
a. It activates transferrin
b. It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
c. It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach
d. It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
b
What fraction of the total iron content of a normal diet is heme iron?
a. 1/100
b. 1/10
c. 1/3
d. 1/2
b
What percentage of the iron in a hamburger is nonheme iron?
a. 0
b. 20
c. 40
d. 60
d
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form?
a. Rice
b. Spinach
c. Chicken
d. Orange juice
c
Which of the following is a feature of iron absorption?
a. It is lower in people with iron toxicity
b. It is higher in people with iron deficiency
c. It is lower when iron is in the form of heme rather than non-heme
d. It is higher in adults than children due to more mature intestinal function
b
Your cousin Emily is a vegetarian. Since you have just learned in your nutrition class that nonheme iron is absorbed less efficiently than heme iron, you want to make sure Emily is getting enough iron. What should you recommend Emily do to maximize her iron absorption?
a. Choose spinach as her main source of iron
b. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of milk
c. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of orange juice
d. Refrain from any major activity after eating to aid digestion/absorption of iron
c
Among the following, which does not contain the MFP factor?
a. Tuna
b. Spinach
c. Hamburger
d. Chicken leg
b
What is the function of MFP factor?
a. Enhances iron absorption
b. Acts as an iron enrichment nutrient
c. Simulates metallothionein synthesis
d. Acts as chelating agent for iron toxicity treatment
a
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all of the following factors are of major importance except
a. EDTA content.
b. phytate content.
c. vitamin C content.
d. MFP factor content
a
Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract?
a. Biotin
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin C
d
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with
a. tea.
b. meat.
c. milk.
d. whole-grain bread
b
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption?
a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Foods containing vitamin C
d. Foods containing vitamin E
c
All of the following factors are known to enhance the absorption of iron except
a. MFP factor.
b. organic acids.
c. ascorbic acid.
d. calcium from milk
d
Which of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc?
a. Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose
b. Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to the pancreas
c. Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to metallothionein for transport first to the liver
d. Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes
d
Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed?
a. 10
b. 18
c. 33
d. 60
b
Which of the following is not known to affect iron bioavailability from complete meals?
a. Caffeine
b. Phytates
c. Vitamin C
d. MFP factor
a
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
a. tea.
b. coffee.
c. sugars.
d. phytates
c
How would the body typically respond to loss of blood from hemorrhage?
a. More transferrin is produced to allow absorption and transport of more iron
b. The average life of the red blood cell is increased in order to allow better tissue oxygenation
c. Fewer iron storage proteins are produced, which increases the amount of iron available for synthesis of new red blood cells
d. The liver and muscles release their supply of stored red blood cells, which compensates, in part, for the decrease in red blood cell concentration of the circulation
a
All of the following are chief storage sites for surplus iron except the
a. liver.
b. spleen.
c. muscle.
d. bone marrow
c
Which of the following is known as an iron-overload protein?
a. Transferrin
b. Hemosiderin
c. Marrowferritin
d. Metallothionein
b
A person with high blood levels of hepcidin responds by
a. decreasing iron absorption.
b. increasing iron absorption.
c. decreasing zinc absorption.
d. increasing zinc absorption
a
What is hepcidin?
a. A factor in meats that enhances iron absorption
b. An intestinal mucosa protein that assists in iron turnover
c. A substance in legumes that interferes with iron absorption
d. A liver-derived hormone that helps regulate iron absorption and transport
d
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization?
a. Most of the body's iron is recycled
b. The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium
c. Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods
d. Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources
a
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells?
a. Two weeks
b. One month
c. Four months
d. Six months
c
Approximately how many people worldwide are thought to be affected by iron-deficiency anemia?
a. 1 million
b. 100 million
c. 1.6 billion
d. 3.5 billion
c
About how much iron is absorbed from a vegetarian diet compared with an omnivorous diet?
a. The same
b. One-half as much
c. Twice as much
d. Three times as much
b
What is the chief function of hemosiderin?
a. Stores excess body iron
b. Inhibits hemoglobin synthesis
c. Enhances heme iron absorption
d. Enhances nonheme iron absorption
a
Approximately how much iron is lost daily by adults from urine, sweat, and shed skin?
a. 1 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 12 mg
d. 18 mg
a
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
a. phytates.
b. MFP factor.
c. soybean protein.
d. tannic acid in tea
b
Which of the following population groups is least susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Older infants
b. Children 2-10 years of age
c. Women of childbearing age
d. Men 20-45 years of age
d
Which of the following is found in the first stage of iron deficiency?
a. Iron stores decline, as assessed by serum ferritin
b. Hemoglobin levels fall, as assessed by complete blood count
c. Red blood cell count falls, as assessed by hematocrit count
d. Hemoglobin synthesis declines, as assessed by erythrocyte protoporphyrin
a
Which of the following represents the order of the stages of iron deficiency?
a. Iron stores decline - iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls
b. Hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline
c. Iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron stores decline
d. Iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline - hemoglobin synthesis falls
a
What is the major cause of iron deficiency?
a. Blood loss
b. Poor nutrition
c. Hereditary defect
d. Parasitic infections of the GI tract
b
Iron deficiency in children is likely to result from a diet that overemphasizes
a. milk.
b. cereals.
c. vegetables.
d. dried beans
a
Taking into account the efficiency of intestinal absorption of iron, approximately how much dietary iron must be consumed to account for the iron lost by donating a pint of blood?
a. 5 mg
b. 15 mg
c. 50 mg
d. 100 mg
b
Which of the following individuals would most likely not need an iron supplement?
a. Two-year-old
b. Elderly female
c. Pregnant female
d. Adolescent female
b
What is erythrocyte protoporphyrin?
a. Iron chelating drug
b. Hemoglobin precursor
c. Indicator of iron toxicity
d. Inherited iron-deficiency disease
b
The erythrocyte protoporphyrin level is used as an indicator of
a. late iron toxicity.
b. early iron toxicity.
c. late iron deficiency.
d. early iron deficiency.
c
The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except
a. size of red blood cells.
b. number of red blood cells.
c. DNA content of red blood cells.
d. hemoglobin content of red blood cells.
c
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
a. Hemolytic
b. Megaloblastic
c. Microcytic hypochromic
d. Macrocytic hyperchromic
c
Low levels of blood hemoglobin most likely indicate a deficiency of
a. zinc.
b. iron.
c. copper.
d. manganese
b
Which of the following symptoms would ordinarily not be found in individuals with iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Fatigue
b. Headaches
c. Concave nails
d. Diminished sense of smell
d
Why are hemoglobin and hematocrit tests of limited usefulness in the assessment of iron status?
a. They are expensive to perform
b. They are notoriously inaccurate
c. They are late indicators of iron deficiency
d. The range of normal value is usually wide
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency?
a. Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin levels decline as anemia worsens
b. Iron supplements are not as effective at treating anemia as is proper nutrition
c. People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves
d. The concave nails of iron-deficiency anemia result from abnormal ferritin levels
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
a. Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected
b. Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity
c. Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis
d. Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
c
Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior?
a. The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption
b. Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia
c. The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral changes
d. Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than children
b
Iron overload is also known as
a. ferrocyanosis.
b. hemoglobinemia.
c. hemochromatosis.
d. metalloferrothionosis
c
What is the name given to the ingestion of nonnutritive substances?
a. Pica
b. Goiter
c. Tetany
d. Hemosiderosis
a
Common terms that describe the body's accumulation of excess iron include all of the following except
a. iron overload.
b. hemosiderosis.
c. hemoglobinemia.
d. hemochromatosis
c
Which of the following foods should be especially limited in the diet of individuals with hemochromatosis?
a. Dairy products
b. Fluoridated water
c. Iron-fortified cereals
d. Carbonated beverages
c
Why are people with iron overload at increased risk for infections?
a. Excess tissue iron destroys vitamin C
b. Iron-rich blood favors growth of bacteria
c. Iron-rich blood impairs the immune system
d. Excess tissue iron interferes with antibiotic function
b
Which of the following is a feature of the disorder hereditary hemochromatosis?
a. It is characterized by acrodermatitis
b. It is found primarily in women of child-bearing age
c. It is associated with defects of copper and zinc absorption
d. It is the most common genetic disorder in the United States
d
Which of the following disorders may be linked with the presence of high blood iron?
a. Dermatitis
b. Diverticulosis
c. Heart disease
d. Neural tube defects
c
Which of the following describes one aspect of iron toxicity?
a. Among men in the United States, it is twice as common as iron-deficiency anemia
b. In adults, the consumption of alcohol is somewhat protective against absorption of excess iron
c. In most people with this disorder, infections are rare because bacteria are killed by excess iron in the blood
d. It is usually caused by a virus that attacks the intestinal mucosal cells leading to unregulated and excessive iron absorption
a
The most common cause of iron overload is
a. an injury to the GI tract.
b. a genetic predisposition.
c. excessive use of iron cookware.
d. excessive use of iron supplements
b
What population group is at the highest risk for iron overload?
a. Adult men
b. Adult women
c. Pregnant women
d. Adolescents
a
For every 10 adult males with iron deficiency, how many have iron overload?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
c
Signs of iron toxicity include all of the following except
a. apathy.
b. fatigue.
c. hypochromic anemia.
d. increases in infections
c
What percent of the RDA for iron is consumed by the typical woman?
a. 33
b. 67
c. 100
d. 130
b
Approximately how much iron would be provided by a balanced diet supplying 2000 kcalories?
a. 3 mg
b. 6 mg
c. 12 mg
d. 30 mg
c
When eaten in the same meal, which of the following foods enhances the absorption of iron in legumes?
a. Nuts
b. Fiber
c. Oranges
d. Whole-grain breads
c
Approximately how much higher is the RDA for iron for a vegetarian woman of childbearing age compared with her nonvegetarian counterpart?
a. 33%
b. 80%
c. 150%
d. 200%
b
Which of the following is the most effective and least costly strategy for preventing an iron deficiency?
a. Consume iron supplements at a level 2-3 times the RDA
b. Switch to iron cooking utensils and eat 4 servings of red meat daily
c. Eat small amounts of citrus products and increase intake of low-fat milk
d. Eat small quantities of meat, fish, and poultry frequently together with liberal amounts of vegetables and legumes
d
Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition?
a. Iron plays an important role in the synthesis of thyroxine
b. On average, people absorb about 50-60% of dietary iron
c. On average, women do not eat enough iron-containing foods
d. Iron deficiency represents the second most common mineral deficiency in the United States
c
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per serving?
a. Yogurt
b. Skim milk
c. Pinto beans
d. American cheese
c
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron?
a. 45 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 120 mg
d. Twice the RDA
a
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of
a. milk.
b. red meat.
c. fresh fruits.
d. yellow vegetables
b
In the United States, iron is currently added to which of the following foods?
a. Milk and cheese
b. Breads and cereals
c. Peanut butter and jellies
d. Orange juice and tomato juice
b
If a normal, healthy young adult woman loses an average of 2 mg/day of iron from the body, approximately what minimum amount (mg/day) should she consume from the diet to prevent negative iron balance?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 11
d. 19
c
Which of the following would represent a source of possible iron contamination?
a. An iron frypan
b. An iron chelate
c. A ferric iron supplement
d. A ferrous iron supplement
a
Which of the following is a common example of iron contamination in the diet?
a. Using an iron skillet to scramble eggs can triple their iron content
b. Cooking acidic foods in a copper pot can extract chelate iron from the pot
c. Simmering acidic foods in glass dishes leads to leaching of iron salts from the glass
d. Cooking leafy vegetables in a galvanized pot leads to a six-fold increase in iron content
a
Which of the following has been shown to improve absorption of iron from iron supplements?
a. Taking then with milk
b. Taking them with orange juice
c. Taking them on an empty stomach rather than with meals
d. Taking them in the form of the ferric salt rather than the ferrous salt
c
Why is taking vitamin C ineffective at enhancing iron absorption from standard iron supplements?
a. The iron in the supplement is in a chelated form
b. The iron in the supplement is already in the ferrous form
c. The iron in the supplement binds irreversibly with vitamin C
d. The iron supplement already contains MFP to enhance absorption
b
Which of the following is a common side effect from taking iron supplements?
a. Itching
b. Diarrhea
c. Constipation
d. Black tongue
c
What is the RDA for iron for females 19-50 years old?
a. 8 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 18 mg
d. 32 mg
c
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is classified as a(n)
a. metalloenzyme.
b. oxidoreductase.
c. cytochromidase.
d. metallothionase
a
Which of the following defines an association between a protein and a function of zinc?
a. Thyroxine: zinc transporter
b. Globulin: transports zinc into cells
c. Transferrin: essential to zinc excretion
d. Metallothionein: promotes zinc homeostasis
d
Which of the following is a major binding protein for zinc?
a. Ligand
b. Ferritin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Metallothionein
d
Which of the following is a feature of zinc in nutrition?
a. Pancreatic enzymes are rich in zinc
b. The body's primary excretory route is urine
c. Good food sources are whole-grain products
d. Toxicity symptoms include constipation and low body temperature
a
Which of the following is known to regulate the absorption of zinc?
a. Metallothionein in the intestinal cells
b. Zinc-releasing enzymes in the intestinal mucosa
c. Pancreatic juice containing zinc-absorption enhancers
d. Bile acids which form a complex with zinc to promote its absorption
a
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc?
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 15-40%
d. 50-60%
c
Which of the following minerals undergoes enteropancreatic circulation during normal metabolism?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Fluoride
b
Zinc is known to play an important role in all of the following functions except
a. wound healing.
b. synthesis of retinal.
c. production of sperm.
d. oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
d
What is the chief transport substance for zinc in the circulation?
a. Albumin
b. Metallothionein
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. High-density lipoproteins
a
What dietary ratio of iron to zinc inhibits zinc absorption?
a. 0.5 to 1
b. 1 to 1
c. Less than 2 to 1
d. Greater than 2 to 1
d
Which of the following would be the minimum amount of dietary iron known to impair zinc absorption in an individual with a zinc intake of 15 mg?
a. 5 mg
b. 15 mg
c. 30 mg
d. 60 mg
c
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency?
a. Excess zinc
b. Excess protein
c. Insufficient iodine
d. Insufficient calcium
a
Which of the following is a known side effect of prolonged ingestion of excessive amounts of zinc supplements?
a. Iron toxicity due to increased ferritin synthesis
b. Zinc salt deposits in soft tissues such as the heart and kidneys
c. Copper deficiency due to interference with copper absorption
d. Mineral-binding protein deficiency due to a decrease in metallothionein production
c
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for zinc?
a. 20 mg
b. 40 mg
c. 80 mg
d. 120 mg
b
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded growth and sexual development in children?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Chromium
b
Conditions associated with zinc deficiency include all of the following except
a. altered taste.
b. kidney failure.
c. abnormal night vision.
d. poor healing of wounds
b
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except
a. anemia.
b. altered taste acuity.
c. impaired vision in dim light.
d. increased susceptibility to infection
a
Which of the following represents the most reliable dietary source of zinc?
a. Nuts and oils
b. Milk and yogurt
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
d
Zinc is highest in foods that also contain a high amount of
a. fat.
b. fiber.
c. protein.
d. carbohydrate
c
All of the following are known to result from excessive zinc intake except
a. inhibition of iron absorption.
b. galvanized liver and kidneys.
c. inhibition of copper absorption.
d. decreases in high-density lipoproteins
b
Under which of the following conditions are certain supplements of zinc reported to be beneficial?
a. In the treatment of colds
b. In the treatment of Menkes syndrome
c. In the treatment of toxicity from certain other metals
d. In the treatment of slow growth syndrome in U.S. children
a
What formulation of zinc has been found effective in treating the symptoms of the common cold?
a. Zinc chelator
b. Zinc gluconate
c. Zinc plus ferrous iron
d. Zinc plus copper salt
b
Commercially available zinc-containing lozenges are advertised to be effective against
a. fatigue.
b. vitamin A toxicity.
c. the common cold.
d. slowing of the BMR
c
Which of the following is not a feature of zinc supplements?
a. They induce nausea and bad taste reactions when administered in zinc lozenges
b. They reduce the incidence of goiter in developing countries
c. They reduce the incidence of diarrhea-related deaths in children
d. They reduce the incidence of pneumonia-related deaths in the elderly
b
Goiter is caused primarily by a deficiency of
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. iodine.
d. selenium
c
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine?
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Iodine
d. Magnesium
c
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called
a. thyroxine.
b. goitrogen.
c. thiostimulating hormone.
d. tissue stimulating hormone
a
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
a. Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
b. Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
c. Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
d. Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
c
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
a. insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
b. overconsumption of other trace elements.
c. overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.
d. pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone
a
What is the response of the thyroid gland to an iodine deficiency?
a. Increase in its size to trap more iodine
b. Increase in its size to trap more thyroxine
c. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
d. Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
a
Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency?
a. Gout
b. Goiter
c. Anemia
d. Hypertension
b
c
A woman with a severe iodine deficiency during pregnancy may give birth to a child with
a. anemia.
b. rickets.
c. cretinism.
d. allergies
a
What nutrient deficiency during pregnancy may give rise to a child with cretinism?
a. Iodine
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
c
What is a goitrogen?
a. One of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland
b. A substance that enhances absorption of dietary iodide
c. A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland
d. A compound used to supplement salt as a way to increase iodide intake
b
A person ingesting large amounts of thyroid antagonist substances is at high risk of developing
a. cretinism.
b. simple goiter.
c. high blood T3 levels.
d. high blood thyroxine levels
c
Which of the following foods are known to contain goitrogens?
a. Shellfish
b. Whole grains
c. Cauliflower and broccoli
d. Blueberries and raspberries
d
Which of the following fruits are known to contain substances that inhibit the functioning of the thyroid gland?
a. Apples and pears
b. Lemons and limes
c. Avocados and mangos
d. Peaches and strawberries
d
Which of the following is a prominent feature of mild iodine deficiency in children?
a. Demineralization
b. Growth retardation
c. Discoloration of teeth
d. Poor performance in school
a
What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet?
a. Naturally occurring
b. Food industry additives
c. Excessive use of fortified salt
d. Hydrogenation of certain minerals
a
You have just been hired by the World Health Organization to promote nutrition education and policies in a small country in Asia, whose population has a high prevalence of goiter. Which of the following policies would be the best to implement with respect to iodine status, cost, and efficiency?
a. Fortify the salt with iodine
b. Promote free iodine supplements for all who want them
c. Educate the population to avoid all goitrogens in their diet
d. Educate the population to spend more time at the beach as seawater, sea mist, and seafood are sources of iodine
Which of the following is a feature of iodide utilization?
a. It is an integral part of pituitary thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. Ingestion of plants of the cabbage family stimulates iodide uptake
c. A deficiency or a toxicity leads to enlargement of the thyroid gland
d. The amount in foods is unrelated to the amount of iodine present in the soil
c
Which of the following is a feature of iodine in nutrition?
a. Excessive intakes shrink the thyroid gland
b. Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt
c. Iodization of salt is mandatory in the United States but not in Canada
d. Worldwide, the prevalence of iodine deficiency and iodine toxicity are approximately the same
b
Which of the following is the richest source of iodine?
a. Corn
b. Seafood
c. Orange juice
d. Cruciferous vegetables
b
If cow's milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is the most likely explanation?
a. Storage of milk in galvanized tanks
b. Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils
c. Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant
d. Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
d
Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not exceed the RDA for iodine?
a. 1 mg
b. ½ teaspoon
c. 1 teaspoon
d. 1 tablespoon
b
What is the adult RDA for iodine?
a. 45 µg
b. 100 µg
c. 150 µg
d. 225 µg
c
Which of the following would most likely result from an excessive intake of iodine?
a. Diarrhea
b. Skin rashes
c. Dehydration
d. Thyroid gland enlargement
d
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iodine?
a. 200 µg
b. 450 µg
c. 1100 µg
d. 2000 µg
c
Which of the following would be the most appropriate food source of iodide for a person who lives inland?
a. Fresh-water fish
b. Iodized table salt
c. Locally grown produce
d. Plants of the cabbage family
b
Your uncle Carlos has survived two heart attacks, and recently asked if he might be deficient in selenium, which he had just heard is essential to heart health. You are aware of his food habits and explain that his condition could not be the result of a dietary deficiency of selenium because
a. tap water is a source of selenium.
b. selenium is prevalent in most food groups.
c. he consumes legumes, a rich source of selenium.
d. he drinks fluoridated water, which increases bioavailability of selenium
b
Which of the following is an important function of selenium?
a. Helps blood to clot
b. Inhibits the formation of free radicals
c. Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer
d. Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen
b
Keshan disease results from a deficiency of
a. copper.
b. selenium.
c. manganese.
d. molybdenum
b
What trace element is part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Selenium
d. Chromium
c
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition?
a. It participates in the functioning of insulin
b. Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China
c. Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables
d. It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is only 2-3 μg/day
b
Which of the following nutrients has functions similar to those of vitamin E?
a. Iron
b. Selenium
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
b
Which of the following minerals functions primarily in reactions that consume oxygen?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Molybdenum
b
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for copper?
a. 1 mg
b. 2.5 mg
c. 7.5 mg
d. 10 mg
d
Your aunt Thelma has been anemic for some time and was recently shown to be deficient in copper. Which of the following explains the association of copper and anemia?
a. Copper is required for hemoglobin synthesis
b. Copper plays a role in wound healing, which prevents excessive blood loss
c. Anemia affects synthesis of protoporphyrin, which interferes with iron absorption
d. Copper is known to protect against free radical formation, which prevents excess damage of red blood cells
a
All of the following are characteristics of copper in nutrition except
a. deficiency is rare.
b. legumes are a rich source.
c. absorption from foods is poor.
d. absorption is reduced by ingestion of zinc supplements
c
The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from abnormal utilization of
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. copper.
d. manganese
c
Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition?
a. Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron
b. It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing
c. Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet
d. Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries
b
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
a. Chicken
b. Shellfish
c. Beefsteak
d. Hamburger
b
Which of the following minerals is a cofactor in the formation of hemoglobin?
a. Iodine
b. Copper
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
b
Characteristics of manganese in nutrition include all of the following except
a. plant foods are good sources.
b. deficiencies are seen primarily in the elderly.
c. absorption is inhibited by calcium supplements.
d. toxicity is more common from environmental contamination than from the diet
b
Which of the following represents the most likely cause of manganese toxicity?
a. Consumption of supplements
b. Increased absorption due to genetic defect
c. Inhalation of dust contaminated with manganese
d. Consumption of foods grown on manganese-rich soils
c
Which of the following characteristics are shared by copper and fluoride?
a. Both may be obtained from drinking tap water
b. Both serve as cofactors for a number of enzymes
c. Neither is involved in the integrity of bones and teeth
d. Neither is known to be toxic at intakes of 10 times the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake
a
What is the primary mechanism associated with the role of fluoride in prevention of dental caries?
a. Fluoride increases calcium absorption, which increases crystal formation of teeth
b. Decay is inhibited due to neutralization of organic acids produced by bacteria on the teeth
c. Decay is reduced due to the inhibitory effects of fluoride on growth of bacteria on the teeth
d. Fluoride becomes incorporated into the crystalline structure of teeth, making them less susceptible to decay
d
Which of the following mechanisms explains why fluoride is effective in controlling tooth decay?
a. It helps regulate calcium levels in saliva
b. It helps form decay-resistant fluorapatite
c. It inhibits growth of decay-producing bacteria
d. It changes the pH of the mouth, inhibiting bacterial growth
b
What percent of the U.S. population is not exposed to a fluoridated public water supply?
a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 90
b
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be expected among the children of Smalltownville?
a. Goiter
b. Dental caries
c. GI infections
d. Hemochromatosis
b
a
What is the most reliable source of dietary fluoride?
a. Public water
b. Dark green vegetables
c. Milk and milk products
d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
d
Which of the following is a feature of fluoride in nutrition?
a. Most bottled waters are fluoridated
b. A severe deficiency is known as fluorosis
c. Fluorapatite refers to an increase in the desire to eat fluoride-rich foods
d. A deficiency contributes to the most widespread health problem in the United States
a
Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to
a. dental decay.
b. osteoporosis.
c. discoloration of teeth.
d. nutritional muscular dystrophy
a
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for fluoride?
a. 10 mg
b. 25 mg
c. 60 mg
d. 100 mg
c
Naturally occurring food sources of fluoride include all of the following except
a. teas.
b. tuna.
c. milk.
d. shrimp
d
Which of the following does not have an RDA?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Fluoride
What is the optimal fluoride concentration in community water supplies?
a. 1 ppm
b. 2 ppm
c. 2.5 ppm
d. 4 ppm
a
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth?
a. Excessive fluoride in the water
b. Insufficient fluoride in the water
c. Excessive intake of simple sugars
d. Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
a
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of
a. iron.
b. proteins.
c. carbohydrates.
d. metallothionein
c
As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity?
a. Renin
b. Gastrin
c. Insulin
d. Antidiurectic hormone
c
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition?
a. A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism
b. Supplements are known to be helpful
c. Whole grains represent an excellent source
d. In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
c
What is a glucose tolerance factor?
a. A protein that stimulates glycolysis
b. A mineral cofactor for a specific enzyme
c. A hormone that enhances pancreatic function
d. A small organic compound that promotes the action of insulin
d
Chromium deficiency is characterized by
a. hypertension.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. enlargement of the liver.
d. enlargement of the thyroid gland
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of the mineral molybdenum?
a. Enhances the activity of insulin
b. Deficiency symptoms in people are unknown
c. Unusually poor food sources are legumes and cereal grains
d. Toxicity symptoms in human beings include damage to red blood cells
b
Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development?
a. Tin
b. Cobalt
c. Silicon
d. Barium
c
Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals except
a. boron.
b. silver.
c. silicon.
d. vanadium
b
What mineral is part of vitamin B12?
a. Copper
b. Cobalt
c. Nickel
d. Vanadium
b
a
All of the following are considered heavy metals except
a. iron.
b. lead.
c. mercury.
d. cadmium
d
In the body, lead is known to significantly interfere with utilization of all of the following minerals except
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. calcium.
d. selenium
a
To serve its function in oxygen delivery to body tissues, iron must interact closely with
a. copper and vitamin C.
b. selenium and iodine.
c. zinc and vitamin A.
d. chromium and calcium
c
What term designates foods that contain nonnutrient substances which may provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition?
a. Health foods
b. Organic foods
c. Functional foods
d. Disease preventative foods
b
Which of the following is a rich source of phytoestrogens?
a. Potatoes
b. Soybeans
c. Cold-water fish
d. Green, leafy vegetables
b
Lycopene is classified as a(n)
a. lignan.
b. carotenoid.
c. phytoestrogen.
d. enzyme cofactor
c
All of the following are classified as phytonutrients except
a. lutein.
b. lignans.
c. hepcidin.
d. phytosterols
b
Flaxseed is a rich source of
a. lutein.
b. lignans.
c. sulforaphane.
d. organosulfur compounds.
A
The yearly death toll in the United States from obesity-related diseases is estimated at
Answer

300,000.

1 million.

10 million.

20 million.
D
Approximately what percentage of weight loss during starvation is lean body mass?
Answer

0

20

35

50
C
Ben is worried that his family history of heart disease and his BMI of 28 are putting him at very high risk for developing cardiovascular disease. What would a clinician advise Ben to help lower his risk?
Answer

Take steps to raise the LDL and lower the HDL

Consider liposuction surgery for removing extra abdominal fat

Lose weight as it can lower both blood cholesterol and blood pressure

Obtain genetic testing to determine the exact percent chance of developing cardiovascular disease
C
What fraction of the day's energy expenditure of the average person is represented by the basal metabolism?
Answer

About 1/10

Up to 1/2

About 2/3

Over 9/10
D
If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has
Answer

more body fat.

stronger bones.

stronger muscles.

more muscle mass.
A
What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 5'5" and 125 lbs?
Answer

21

26

31

36
A
The feeling of satisfaction resulting from consumption of a meal is termed
Answer

satiety.

appetite.

postabsorptive hunger.

resting postabsorptive increment.
A
Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?
Answer

Apples

Peanuts

Doughnuts

Potato chips
C
Among people with anorexia nervosa, approximately what percentage are males?
Answer

5

15

25

50
C
Waist circumference can best be used to assess
Answer

BMI.

total body water.

abdominal fat stores.

subcutaneous fat stores.
A
For people who wish to lose weight, most experts might advise them to
Answer

consider eating more vegetarian protein sources.

stay at the top of the Food Guide Pyramid for food choices.

focus on the middle of the Food Guide Pyramid for choices.

eat only plant-based proteins, completely eliminating meat.
A
A person who exhibits a physiological need to eat is most likely experiencing the sensation of
Answer

hunger.

appetite.

stress eating.

neuropeptide Y suppression.
A
Which of the following does not decrease the metabolic rate?
Answer

Fever

Fasting

Sleeping

Malnutrition
C
About how long does it take for a meal to be completely eliminated from the stomach?
Answer

30 minutes

1.5 hours

4 hours

8 hours
C
The major cause of insulin resistance is related to
Answer

low-protein diets.

high-protein diets.

excess body weight.

prolonged excess carbohydrate intake.
D
All of the following are an association between type 2 diabetes and body fat except
Answer

people with the disease often have central obesity rather than lower-body obesity.

a woman who has gained 12 pounds since age 18 has doubled her risk of developing the disease.

an obese person is 3 times more likely to develop the disease than is a nonobese individual.

overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance.
A
What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?
Answer

Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder

Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa

More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders

Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa
A
An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called
Answer

body mass index.

height to weight index.

ideal body weight index.

desirable body weight index.
C
After consuming a very large meal, the desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake is an example of behavior known as
Answer

satiety.

hunger.

appetite.

pigging out.
D
What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcalories daily for one month?
Answer

0.5 lb

2 lbs

3 lbs

4 lbs
C
Jacki, who has a sedentary lifestyle, is 5'5" tall and weighs 165 lbs. She calculated her BMI to be 27.5. She recognizes that her body weight is unhealthy and vows to improve her eating habits and begin a regular program of physical fitness. Her goal is to achieve a BMI of 22. Approximately how much weight (lbs) must she lose?
B
You are planning a diet for a hospitalized patient who cannot participate in physical activity because both of his legs are broken and he will be bedridden for 6 weeks. Which of the following would best assess the patient's energy expenditure?
Answer

Body composition

Basal metabolic rate

Physical activity level

Adaptive thermogenesis
D
Reasons why people choose to become vegetarians include
Answer

ethical issues surrounding animal rights.

personal health reasons.

weight loss.

any of the above.
B
In what region of the body is the storage of excess body fat associated with the highest risks for cardiovascular disease and diabetes?
Answer

Neck

Abdomen

Hips and thighs

Arms and shoulders
C
In an adult who gains 20 pounds of excess body weight, about how much of this is lean tissue?
Answer

0 lbs

2 lbs

5 lbs

10 lbs
A
Among the following, which is the most important strategy for an underweight person who wishes to achieve a healthy body weight?
Answer

A high-kcalorie diet plus regular exercise

A high-kcalorie diet and minimal exercise

A high-protein diet plus regular exercise

Total elimination of alcohol and exercise
D
In the quest for achieving desirable body weight, adults have control over all of the following except
Answer

diet.

behavior.

physical activity.

adipocyte number.
C
All of the following are characteristics of food portion sizes except
Answer

they are both high in fat and large in size at restaurants.

they have increased in general and this change parallels the increasing prevalence of obesity.

reducing portion size has a bigger impact than reducing energy density as a means of lowering total energy intake.

they have increased most notably at fast-food restaurants compared with conventional eating establishments.
B
A person who weighs 150 lbs. and walks at a pace of 3 miles/hr expends about how many kcalories in that hour?
Answer

115

270

410

850
B
Which of the following is a feature of physical inactivity and energy balance?
Answer

There is a strong genetic component to reduced physical activity of overweight people

Differences in the time obese and lean people spend lying, sitting, standing, and moving account for about 350 kcalories per day

Although watching television correlates with weight gain, playing video games does not, presumably due to the heightened excitement engendered by action games

Extraordinarily inactive people who lower their food intakes below that of their lean counterparts activate brown adipose tissue uncoupling proteins that stimulate hyperthermic weight loss
A
Clinically severe obesity is also known as
Answer

morbid obesity.

metabolic syndrome.

leptin-resistant obesity.

psychological-resistant syndrome.
D
All of the following are behavior modifications for losing weight except
Answer

shopping only when not hungry.

eating only in one place and in one room.

participating in activities such as television viewing only when not eating.

taking smaller portions of food but always eating everything on the plate quickly.
A
What is a safe rate of weight loss on a long-term basis for most overweight people?
Answer

0.5-2 lbs/week

3-4 lbs/week

5% body weight/month

10% body weight/month
C
What is the chief reason that health-care professionals advise people to engage only in low-to-moderate intensity activities for prolonged duration rather than more intense, shorter routines?
Answer

Cost is lower

Boredom is reduced

Compliance is better

Monitoring time is diminished
B
Which of the following would be most effective at lowering energy intake in a person on a weight reduction program?
Answer

Decrease portion size

Select less energy-dense foods

Restrict fiber intake as a means to reduce excess water retention

Consume a small high-fat snack before each meal to reduce appetite
D
Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, because
Answer

they dictate the correct distribution of energy among the macronutrients.

they prevent rapid spikes and declines in one's blood glucose level.

they don't require people to count kcal, and are thus easier to stick to.

they are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.
C
Television watching contributes to obesity for all of the following reasons except
Answer

it promotes inactivity.

it promotes between-meal snacking.

it replaces time that could be spent eating.

it gives high exposure to energy-dense foods featured in the commercial advertisements.
B
An important aid in any weight-loss diet program is to
Answer

decrease water intake.

increase physical activity.

speed up thyroid activity with metabolic enhancers.

develop ketosis by keeping carbohydrate intake as low as possible.
B
As a new assistant in a weight-loss research laboratory, you are given a tour of the mouse laboratory. Why is the leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart?
Answer

Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin

Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure

Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake

Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage
D
What is the best approach to weight loss?
Answer

Avoid foods containing carbohydrates

Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake

Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss

Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
B
Which of the following is a feature of the body's response to engaging in physical activity?
Answer

After an intense and vigorous workout, metabolism remains elevated for several hours

Lower body fat is more readily lost from vigorous exercises that work primarily the hip and leg muscles

Blood glucose and fatty acid levels are low immediately after working out, but thereafter recover on their own

After an intense workout, most people immediately feel the urge to eat a large carbohydrate meal to replace glycogen stores
D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of obese people?
Answer

Obese people often have feelings of rejection

Most obese people do not maintain their weight losses

In many cultures, obesity is viewed as a sign of robust health

Most weight-loss programs that use state-of-the-art techniques allow for long-term weight loss
B
What is the classification of a person who is 6 feet 4 inches tall and 202 lbs?
Answer

Underweight

Healthy weight

Overweight

Obese
D
Which of the following does not represent a common environmental influence on eating behaviors?
Answer

Eating while viewing television promotes overconsumption

Socializing with strangers during a meal often leads to reduced food intake

The mere sight of food can signal a person to commence eating, regardless of hunger

Being in a pleasant atmosphere often lengthens the time of the meal but not the amount of food eaten
B
Approximately how many kcalories are expended per kilogram body weight when walking a mile at a moderate pace?
Answer

0.1

1

2.5

5
A
Tom was overweight when he was 13. During puberty he continued to gain weight steadily until at age 23, when he decided to lose weight. Tom successfully lost 50 pounds. Which of the following most likely happened to Tom's fat cells?
Answer

They shrank in size but did not decrease in number

They melted away when he burned all the excess fat

They decreased in number but did not decrease in size

They changed very little since fat cells shrink only with a weight loss greater than 100 pounds
D
What is the chief factor that determines a person's susceptibility to obesity?
Answer

Heredity only

Environment only

Fat content of diet

Heredity and environment
D
Over-the-counter products labeled as "dieter's tea" are reported to lead to
Answer

leptin resistance.

ketone poisoning.

cravings for protein.

nausea and diarrhea.
A
All of the following are associations between the environment and food intake except
Answer

distractions generally appear to reduce food intake.

the greater the number of foods at a meal, the more likely people will overeat.

the mere sight or smell of food prompts people to commence eating even if they are not hungry.

small portions of food on large plates lead people to underestimate the amount of food eaten.
C
In a weight reduction regimen, the most realistic time frame for losing 10% of initial body weight is
Answer

6 weeks.

3 months.

6 months.

1 year.
D
Which of the following is a feature of weight gain and genetics?
Answer

Obese people can change their genome but not their epigenome

Even mild exercise can minimize the genetic influence on weight gain

Genetics is the overwhelming factor that determines a person's risk for weight gain

Identical twins are twice as likely to weigh the same compared with fraternal twins
B
Jody is taking a nutrition class, and has been assigned to evaluate a popular diet plan. She finds a description of a plan for her assignment in a magazine at the grocery store. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet?
Answer

"Keep fresh fruit or carrot sticks in the fridge at work so you won't be tempted to raid the vending machine for a snack."

"Once you complete this 6-month plan, you'll never have to diet again."

"Starting an aerobic exercise plan may seem daunting, but you can start out with shorter, easier sessions and then build up to 3 or more hours a week."

"On this plan, you can lose up to 2 pounds per week!"
D
All of the following are features of the effect of food accessibility on food intake except
Answer

keeping food out of sight is an effective way to eat less.

people underestimate the amount of a snack eaten when it is a short distance away.

people eat more of a snack when it is on their desk than when situated only 6 feet away.

people at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers.
A
What is a safe rate of weight loss on a long-term basis for most overweight people?
Answer

0.5-2 lbs/week

3-4 lbs/week

5% body weight/month

10% body weight/month
B
When consumed in high doses, which of the following is associated with modest weight loss in people?
Answer

Chitosan

Pyruvate

Yohimbine

Conjugated linoleic acid
B
Approximately how many kcalories are expended per kilogram body weight when walking a mile at a moderate pace?
Answer

0.1

1

2.5

5
A
Which of the following is the best evidence that environment must play a role in obesity?
Answer

The rate of obesity has been rising while the gene pool has remained relatively constant

The recognition that identical twins reared apart have body weights similar to their biological parents

The development of precise body composition methodologies that define adipose storage sites based on gender

The discovery of uncoupling proteins that explain the variations in energy metabolism among lean and overweight people
C
Question 8

What is the chief reason that health-care professionals advise people to engage only in low-to-moderate intensity activities for prolonged duration rather than more intense, shorter routines?
Answer

Cost is lower

Boredom is reduced

Compliance is better

Monitoring time is diminished
B
An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to
Answer

feel guilty after you overeat.

keep a record of your eating habits.

always clean your plate when you eat.

have someone watch you to prevent overeating.
B
The most likely explanation for why women readily store fat around the hips whereas men readily store fat around the abdomen is gender differences in
Answer

blood insulin levels.

the activity of lipoprotein lipase.

circulating lipid transport proteins.

the activity of lipoprotein synthetase.
A
Among the following, which is the most important strategy for an underweight person who wishes to achieve a healthy body weight?
Answer

A high-kcalorie diet plus regular exercise

A high-kcalorie diet and minimal exercise

A high-protein diet plus regular exercise

Total elimination of alcohol and exercise
C
What is the rationale for the fat cell theory of obesity?
Answer

Fat cell number increases dramatically after puberty

Fat cell number in an adult can decrease only by fasting

Fat cell number increases most readily in late childhood and early puberty

Weight gain from overeating in adults takes place primarily by increasing the number of fat cells
D
What is the best approach to weight loss?
Answer

Avoid foods containing carbohydrates

Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake

Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss

Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
A
To help maximize the long-term success of a person's weight-loss program, which of the following personal attitudes should be encouraged in the individual?
Answer

Strongly believing that weight can be lost

Viewing the body realistically as being fat rather than thin

Refraining from expressing overconfidence in ability to lose weight

Accepting that little or no exercise is a part of the lifestyle of most overweight people
D
Which of the following does not represent a common environmental influence on eating behaviors?
Answer

Eating while viewing television promotes overconsumption

Socializing with strangers during a meal often leads to reduced food intake

The mere sight of food can signal a person to commence eating, regardless of hunger

Being in a pleasant atmosphere often lengthens the time of the meal but not the amount of food eaten
D
Which of the following defines the body's set point?
Answer

Minimum weight of a person

Maximum weight of a person

Point at which a person's weight plateaus before dropping again quickly

Point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight
B
A person who weighs 150 lbs. and walks at a pace of 3 miles/hr expends about how many kcalories in that hour?
Answer

115

270

410

850
B
Which of the following would be most effective at lowering energy intake in a person on a weight reduction program?
Answer

Decrease portion size

Select less energy-dense foods

Restrict fiber intake as a means to reduce excess water retention

Consume a small high-fat snack before each meal to reduce appetite
D
The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best achieved by diets rich in
Answer

fat.

short-chain fats.

simple carbohydrates.

complex carbohydrates.
A
Clinically severe obesity is also known as
Answer

morbid obesity.

metabolic syndrome.

leptin-resistant obesity.

psychological-resistant syndrome.
D
Over-the-counter products labeled as "dieter's tea" are reported to lead to
Answer

leptin resistance.

ketone poisoning.

cravings for protein.

nausea and diarrhea.
A
Approximately how many kcalories per week should be expended in physical activity in order to maintain a weight loss?
Answer

2000

4000

6000

9000
A
Tom was overweight when he was 13. During puberty he continued to gain weight steadily until at age 23, when he decided to lose weight. Tom successfully lost 50 pounds. Which of the following most likely happened to Tom's fat cells?
Answer

They shrank in size but did not decrease in number

They melted away when he burned all the excess fat

They decreased in number but did not decrease in size

They changed very little since fat cells shrink only with a weight loss greater than 100 pounds
A
Obesity resulting from an increase in the number of fat cells is termed
Answer

hyperplastic obesity.

hypertrophic obesity.

idiopenthic leptinemia.

anaplastic hypometabolism.
B
What is the classification of a person who is 6 feet 4 inches tall and 202 lbs?
Answer

Underweight

Healthy weight

Overweight

Obese
D
Question 26

If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has
Answer

more body fat.

stronger bones.

stronger muscles.

more muscle mass.
C
Waist circumference can best be used to assess
Answer

BMI.

total body water.

abdominal fat stores.

subcutaneous fat stores.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of excess intra-abdominal fat?
Answer

It is more common in women than men

It is not as good an indicator of degenerative diseases as the BMI

It is found in smokers more often than nonsmokers even though smokers have a lower BMI

It is associated with increased risk for heart disease and diabetes in men but not in women
C
Jacki, who has a sedentary lifestyle, is 5'5" tall and weighs 165 lbs. She calculated her BMI to be 27.5. She recognizes that her body weight is unhealthy and vows to improve her eating habits and begin a regular program of physical fitness. Her goal is to achieve a BMI of 22. Approximately how much weight (lbs) must she lose?
Answer

21

27

33

41
D
People who consume a diet in which meat is the primary source of protein are
Answer

at less risk for cancer than vegetarians.

thought to be at greater risk for cancer than vegetarians.

more likely to develop heart disease than vegetarians.

b and c.
D
Which of the following factors has the most influence on the body's metabolic rate?
Answer

Age

Gender

Amount of fat tissue

Amount of lean body tissue
A
Which of the following does not decrease the metabolic rate?
Answer

Fever

Fasting

Sleeping

Malnutrition
A
For people who wish to lose weight, most experts might advise them to
Answer

consider eating more vegetarian protein sources.

stay at the top of the Food Guide Pyramid for food choices.

focus on the middle of the Food Guide Pyramid for choices.

eat only plant-based proteins, completely eliminating meat.
C
About how long does it take for a meal to be completely eliminated from the stomach?
Answer

30 minutes

1.5 hours

4 hours

8 hours
A
Protein intakes may increase as a result of illness as well as
Answer

when women are lactating.

during moderate anaerobic activity.

during times of optimal health.

any of the above.
A
A person who exhibits a physiological need to eat is most likely experiencing the sensation of
Answer

hunger.

appetite.

stress eating.

neuropeptide Y suppression.
A
Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?
Answer

Apples

Peanuts

Doughnuts

Potato chips
A
Which of the following is a feature of the body mass index?
Answer

It correlates with disease risks

It decreases by 1 unit for every 10 years of life

It provides an estimate of the fat level of the body

It is defined as the person's height divided by the square of the weight
B
For every decade beyond the age of 30, what is the percentage decrease in the need for total kcalories?
Answer

2

5

10

15
C
Question 40

The major cause of insulin resistance is related to
Answer

low-protein diets.

high-protein diets.

excess body weight.

prolonged excess carbohydrate intake.
C
Question 41

Ben is worried that his family history of heart disease and his BMI of 28 are putting him at very high risk for developing cardiovascular disease. What would a clinician advise Ben to help lower his risk?
Answer

Take steps to raise the LDL and lower the HDL

Consider liposuction surgery for removing extra abdominal fat

Lose weight as it can lower both blood cholesterol and blood pressure

Obtain genetic testing to determine the exact percent chance of developing cardiovascular disease
D
Question 42

Reasons why people choose to become vegetarians include
Answer

ethical issues surrounding animal rights.

personal health reasons.

weight loss.

any of the above.
B
External cues that may cause an obese person to respond to food typically include all of the following except
Answer

TV commercials.

outdoor exercises.

availability of food.

"time of day" patterns.
C
All of the following are characteristics related to the fat content in food except
Answer

high-fat foods are energy dense.

fat has a weak effect on satiation.

eating high-fat foods typically leads to underconsumption of kcalories.

in the small intestine fat triggers release of a hormone that inhibits food intake.
A
An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called
Answer

body mass index.

height to weight index.

ideal body weight index.

desirable body weight index.
C
Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?
Answer

Most are aware of their condition and seek treatment

Fewer than 200 women die each year from the disease

Among those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns

During initial treatment, metabolism slows and appetite increases but thereafter subsides
C
Which of the following is a feature of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
Answer

Fever decreases the BMR

Fasting increases the BMR

Pregnancy increases the BMR

Females have a higher BMR than males on a body weight basis
A
What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 5'5" and 125 lbs?
Answer

21

26

31

36
B
In what region of the body is the storage of excess body fat associated with the highest risks for cardiovascular disease and diabetes?
Answer

Neck

Abdomen

Hips and thighs

Arms and shoulders
D
How can people reduce the amount of animal protein they eat daily?
Answer

Eat meat less often and in smaller portions.

Choose meat alternates as protein sources.

Select plant-based protein sources occasionally.

Any of the above.
B
Which of the following describes a trend of worldwide obesity?
Answer

Nowadays, obesity is not seen in developing countries

Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years

The cut-off figure of the BMI for obesity varies from country to country

The obesity in other countries does not seem to increase risks for chronic diseases
C
Compared with non-obese people, obese people have a lower
Answer

basal metabolic rate.

thermic effect of food.

physical activity level.

metabolic response to exercise.
D
Jim is a 45 year old who eats fast food at least 3 times a week and smokes a pack of cigarettes each day. He just had a physical examination and was told that his body mass index is 24. In what category would Jim's BMI be classified?
Answer

Obesity

Overweight

Underweight

Healthy weight
D
The risks for dying prematurely are doubled when the body mass index first rises above
Answer

27.

30.

32.

35.
C
What is the typical protein intake for adults living in the U.S.?
Answer

100% of the RDA for protein

Between 80-120 grams/day

Two to three times the RDA for protein

b and c
A
The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include
Answer

confusion and depression.

muscle cramps and stiffness.

profound fatigue and anemia.

hyperactivity and shortness of breath.