Terms in this set (539)
Bomb detonation is controlled by the action of a what?
Which type of device causes the detonation of an explosive charge at the proper time after certain conditions are met?
What is the amount of time or vane revolutions needed for the firing train to be aligned after the bomb is released or from time of release until the bomb is fully armed defined as?
A delay occurs when the functioning time of a fuze is longer than what time frame?
What is the time required for a fuze to detonate after impact or a preset time known as?
A fuze is said to be Instantaneous when the functioning time is less than how many seconds?
Which action causes a fuze to detonate before impact when any substantial object is detected at a predetermined distance from the fuze?
Which two general classes are fuzes normally divided into?
Mechanical and Electrical
Detonator-safe, shear-safe, along with what else make up the most important fuze safety features?
The functional delays for both the primary and option modes of the Mk 339 Mod 1 fuze can be adjusted from 1.2 to how many seconds?
The cases of General Purpose (GP) bombs are aerodynamically designed, relatively light, and approximately what percent of their weight is made of explosives?
Thermally-protected bombs are identified by two bands of which color?
Suspension lugs are used to attach the weapon to the aircraft bomb racks and are spaced how many inches apart, depending on the size of the bomb?
14 or 30 inches
What are the two basic nose plugs used in GP bombs?
solid and ogive
Maintaining ordnance components in a safe condition until actual release of the bomb from the aircraft is the primary function of what?
Arming wire assemblies
What provide stability to a GP bomb causing the bomb to fall in a smooth, definite curve to the target?
Which type of fin is used for the non-retard mode of delivery?
The typical BSU-33/conical fin assembly is steel, conical in shape, and has how many fins to provide stability?
How many modes of delivery are available for the fin assembly?
What is the most frequently used mode for fin assembly delivery?
In-flight selection (pilot option)
The BLU-109A/B must not be missing more than 20 square inches of thermal coating in a single area or more than how many square inches total?
How many pounds is the Mk 62 mine?
Which type of weapons dispense smaller weapons over a large area?
Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs)
Which section of the Mk 7 bomb dispenser is the main structure of the weapon and contains the bombs/bomblets?
When the Mk 339 Mod 1 primary fuze arming wire is pulled, the fuze will function how many seconds after the arming wire has been extracted?
What term means that a practice bomb is much smaller in size and weight than the service bomb it simulates?
There are two types of sub-caliber practice bombs—the Mk 76 Mod 5 and what else
Which color are the Mk 80 (series) inert GP bombs painted?
Which type of pallets are bombs shipped on?
The history of rockets covers a span of eight centuries, but their use in aircraft armament began during what conflict?
World War II
What are radio-frequency electromagnetic fields of sufficient intensity to produce harmful biological effects in humans, cause spark ignition of volatile combustibles, or actuate electro-explosive devices?
How many rocket types are currently used by the Navy?
What is a misfire that later fires from delayed ignition known as?
What is the result called when a rocket does not fire when the firing circuit is energized
Which type of weapon is propelled by the sustained reaction of a discharging jet of gas against the container of gas?
Which term is applied when internal parts react to the acceleration of the rocket and is a safety feature designed into those fuzes that use a gear timing device?
What is the force exerted by the gases produced by the burning of the rocket motor propellant known as?
Which three major components does a complete round of service rocket ammunition consist of?
Motor, warhead, and fuze
What are used to restrict or control burning on the propellant surface?
Which type of warheads are used against personnel and light material targets, such as trucks and parked aircraft?
What is the only type of AT/APERS warhead currently in use?
Mk 32 Mod 0
Which type of warhead is a compromise between the armor-piercing and the fragmentation designs?
Which type of warheads contain a large number of small arrow-shaped projectiles and are used against personnel and light armored targets?
Which type of warhead is used to illuminate tactical operations?
Which type of fuzes are impact firing fuzes known as when they are located in the warhead nose?
What is the only type of mechanical time rocket fuze currently in use?
Mk 193 Mod 0
What is the only type of acceleration-deceleration fuze currently in use by the Navy?
Which type of operations are proximity fuzes primarily used in where air bursts above the target are desired?
Air to ground
Aircraft rocket launchers are classified as either 2.75-inch or which other size?
What are made of an impregnated molded fiber designed with a waffle- or grenade- type structure that shatters readily upon rocket impact or from a blast?
Which safe-arm device prevents loaded rockets from firing?
Smoking is not permitted in the loading area within how many feet of ammunition?
Fuzes and/or warheads dropped how many feet or more onto a hard surface, and rockets that have been accidentally released from aircraft launchers upon aircraft landing, must be disposed of according to current directives?
Guided missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission, and what else?
How is the speed capability of guided missiles expressed?
What is the ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of sound in the medium through which the object is moving?
Under standard atmospheric conditions, sonic speed is about how many miles per hour?
What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 0.8 classified as?
What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 classified as?
What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 1.2 to Mach 5.0 classified as?
What is a guided missile traveling at speeds above Mach 5.0 classified as?
How many different types are guided missiles divided into?
Which type of missiles are fully operational and fully explosive loaded rounds, designed for service use in combat?
The external surfaces of all Navy guided missiles, except radome and antenna surfaces, are painted white or which other color?
Which three significant color codes are used on guided missiles and their components?
Yellow, brown, and blue
Which section is the brain of the missile which directs its maneuvers and causes the maneuvers to be executed by the control section?
In which type of homing system does the missile gets its target illumination from an external source, such as a transmitter carried in the launching aircraft?
Which element or part of the missile that does what a particular missile is launched to do?
There are two general types of fuzes used in guided missiles—proximity fuzes and which other type?
What are electronic detecting devices similar to the detecting systems in VT fuzes that detect the presence of a target and determine the moment of firing?
There are three types of atmospheric jet propulsion systems—the turbojet, pulsejet, and what else?
Which type of rocket motor does the majority of air-launched guided missiles used by the Navy use?
Which type of missile is the AIM-7M/P missile?
Which type of missile has a low-level cruise trajectory with over-the-horizon range that makes it less susceptible to radar detection?
Which type of guided missiles are supersonic, air-to-air weapons with weapons with passive infrared target detection, proportional navigation guidance, and torque-balance control systems?
What provides AIM-9X flight control and connects to the aft end of the rocket motor?
Which type of missile is designed as a highly accurate, reliable, low maintenance air-to-ground hardened target weapon compatible with a variety of airborne platforms in the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps inventories?
Which type of supersonic, air-to-ground, rail-launched guided missile that has the capability of discriminating a single target from a number of emitters in the environment?
Which type of missile is an anti-armor terminal homing weapon that uses a variety of warhead configurations, including shaped charge, blast fragmentation, and thermobaric, to defeat individual hard point targets with minimal exposure to enemy fire by the delivery platform?
The Hellfire missiles may be launched in day or night operation in three launch modes and in how many different firing modes?
Which family of low-cost, air-to-ground weapons employ a GPS-aided inertial guidance system and a kinematically efficient airframe that satisfies the stand-off requirements for attacking interdiction targets from outside enemy point defenses during day, night, and adverse weather conditions?
Which type of missile is a small, light, precision-guided, small yield weapon used for light fortified structures and soft targets which is designed as a highly accurate and reliable air-to-ground weapon with low maintenance requirements?
How many cockpit selectable fuzing options for controlled lethality and minimizing collateral damage does the Griffin missile have?
Which type of guided missile launcher is a reusable launcher that provides a complete launching system for use with the AIM-9 Sidewinder and AGM-122 SIDEARM missiles?
What series guided missile launcher is designed to carry and launch the AIM-9 SIDEWINDER and AIM-120 AMRAAM missiles?
The TOW Missile Launcher (TML) supports how many BGM-71A (TOW) missiles and provides electrical interface with the TOW Missile System (TMS)?
What series missile launcher adapter is used to adapt the LAU-7 missile launcher, providing Sidewinder missile capabilities?
What concept has improved the reliability, availability, and logistics support of current guided missiles used by fleet activities?
The service life or Serviceable in Service Time (SIST) of an AUR missile begins at a NAVWEPSTA or where else?
Under the AUR concept, missiles are received aboard ship in containers completely assembled except for which parts?
Wings and fins
What should be used when testing for leaks in a gas container?
Long-range guided missiles are usually capable of traveling a distance of at least how many miles?
Which items produce their effect by burning, and are consumed in the process?
Which type of devices are used to establish reference points on the surface of the water?
The Mk 124 signal emits an orange smoke or red flare for approximately how many seconds?
The Mk 108 Mod 1 Illumination Signal Kit produce a single green star display at a minimum altitude of 250 feet for a minimum time of how many seconds?
Approximately how many pounds does the LUU-2B/B flare weigh?
The Mk 25 Mods 2 and 3 marine location markers (MLM) are suitable for any type of sea-surface reference-point marking that calls for both smoke and flame for a period of how many minutes?
Currently, there are two methods of launching the Mk 25 marker—by hand or by which other method?
The Mk 58 Mod 1 MLM produces a yellow flame and white smoke for a minimum of 40 minutes and a maximum of 60 minutes which is visible for at least how many miles under normal operating conditions?
The MJU-57A/B Decoy Flare consists of two major elements: the rocket motor assembly and which other type of assembly?
What are aluminum-coated glass fibers which are dispensed by aircraft to mask or screen other aircraft or to cause tracking radar to break lock?
The chaff in the RR-129 is cut into three lengths, which resonate at which frequencies?
2.85, 5.062, and 9.294 GHz
The chaff in the RR-144/AL (Figure 4-25) is cut into a single length, which resonate at which frequency?
he chaff in the RR-144A/AL (Figure 4-25) is cut into three lengths, which resonate at which frequencies?
7.00, 9.32, and 15.06 GHz
What is a good visibility day-time use, fire-free signal cartridge designed for use with practice bombs?
Which type of ammunition is one of the most widely used in Naval aviation
Many pyrotechnic mixtures, particularly illuminating flare compositions, burn with intense heat (up to what temperature)?
Under no circumstances, other than an extreme emergency, should ammunition, explosives, or other related hazardous materials be dumped at sea by a Navy vessel, aircraft, or activity without prior approval of whom?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
The M61A1and M61A2 (M61A1/2) is a six-barrel, rotary-action, automatic gun based on the machine-gun design of whom?
Richard J. Gatling
The M61A1/2 automatic gun is hydraulically driven, electrically controlled, and can fire M50 and PGU series ammunition at how many rounds per minute?
4,000 to 6,000
Which two distinct cycles is the operation of the M61A1/2 gun divided into?
Firing and Clearing
The ammunition handling system holds a maximum of how many rounds of ammunition in the F/A-18 M61A1/2 gun system?
The maintenance and testing responsibilities of M61A1/2 gun installations are distributed evenly between the organizational and which other maintenance level?
If you want additional copies of a publication what form would you use to order it on?
DD Form 1348
Which type of maintenance includes servicing (loading and unloading), preflight, post flight, minor periodic maintenance, malfunction troubleshooting, and removal and installation of components on the aircraft?
Which type of maintenance responsibilities are tasks associated with repair or replacement of unserviceable or damaged assemblies, components, or parts of the gun installation that do not require the special maintenance facilities of an overhaul depot?
When the M61A1/2 gun reaches a round interval of how many rounds fired or requires major repair or alteration, it is sent to a depot-level maintenance activity?
Scheduled M61A1/2 gun maintenance begins at how many rounds?
The GAU-21 is capable of firing at a rapid rate of how many rounds per minute?
The GAU-21 has a barrel life of how many rounds?
The GAU-21 has a depot maintenance cycle of how many rounds?
The GAU-21 has a burst limit of how many rounds?
What is the muzzle velocity of the GAU-21?
The GAU-21 weapon system is capable of being mounted on what aircraft?
The GAU-16 has a depot maintenance cycle of how many rounds
What is the performance rate of fire for the GAU-16?
750 to 850 RPM
What is the muzzle velocity in fps of the GAU-17?
What is the rate of fire of the GAU-17?
The M240D is an air-cooled, gas-operated, automatic machine gun and fires the standard 7.62 mm North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) cartridge from the open bolt position at firing rates of how many rounds per minute
What is the maximum range of the M240D?
What is the maximum effective range of the M240D?
what standard subject identification code is assigned to ordnance?
Aviation armament and ordnance accessories are detailed in what series of NAVIAR manuals?
What NAVAIR major category/series designation number is assigned to ordnance manuals?
What NAVAIR major category/series designation number is assigned to electronics manuals?
what technical manual provides information on materials and procedures to prevent, control, and repair corrosion damage to aircraft on land or at sea?
NA 01-1A-509 Volume II
If you find corrosion on a LAU-7 guided missile launcher power supply and wanted to treat it what publication would you go to?
NA 01-1A-509 Volume III
The treatment of corrosion on avionics components is contained in what publication?
NA 01-1A-509 Volume III
what is the purpose of Volume IV NA-01-1A-509 cleaning and corrosion Control manual?
To provide ordering information for consumable materials and equipment used to prevent, control, and repair, corrosion damage to aircraft and avionics
What type of publication describes mandatory changes or modifications to a specific item or armament equipment
AAAC (Aircrafts Armament Change)
What NAVAIR major category/ series designation number is assigned to ground support equipment manuals?
What publication lists manuals stocked at the Naval publications and forms center?
A list of all navy technical manuals, forms, and NAVAIR Technical Directives Is contained in what publications and forms center?
What technical manual provides ordering information for consumable materials and equipment used to prevent, control, and repair corrosion damage to avionics?
NA 01-1A-509 Volume V
To determine requirements for control of corrosion in SE, instructions are provided in what NAVAIR manual
What publication provides information on HERO
NA 16-1-529 and NAVSEA OP 3565
What publication prescribes the requirements and regulation for ammunition afloat?
NAVSEA OP 4
what publication prescribes the requirements and regulations for ammunition ashore?
NAVSEA OP 5
An IPB for specific aircraft is identified by which of the following NAVAIR numbers- 01-6JKD-503, 01-85ADF-4, 01-245FDA-1, or 01-85SGG-509
For information on the corrosion control program and corrosion theory you would look in what technical manual?
NA 01-1A-509 Volume I
What volume of the OP 5 provides information about the safe handling and storage of ammunition and explosives at advanced naval bases?
What publication provides Navy traffic
managers/supervisors with information on the
regulations and procedures that govern the
transportation and safe handling of hazardous
materials and explosives?
What publication provides information on the
general loading and unloading procedures for
motor vehicles and rail cars?
For a complete list and description of approved handling equipment for ordnance, refer to what publication? (NAVSEA and NAVAIR publication number)
NAVSEA OP 2173 Volume 1 & 2
NA 19-100-1.1 & 1.2
What publication has a monthly update that lists the most current publications in use?
All DON personnel that handle or physically
interact with ammunition and explosives must be
qualified according to what publication?
OPNAVINST 8020.14 / MCO P8020.11
According to OPM standards, civilian personnel
over age 60 should have medical exams at what
Who initiates, monitors and maintains the
ordnance certification program?
Commanding Officer or Officer In Charge (OIC)
What condition code is used for suspended in
Condition Code J - Ammunition that requires
investigation, technical evaluation or analysis
as a prerequisite to true condition
determination and classification.
The Commanding Officer designates in writing,
what person as the ordnance certification board
Department Head, in a squadron normally the
What instruction governs the explosives handling QUAL/CERT Program?
What is the minimum rank of an ordnance
certification board member (without a waiver)?
To conduct a post load inspection, an
Ordnanceman must be qualified and certified at
what minimum level?
What is the minimum level of certification you
must be to work without supervision?
Newly assigned personnel are never permitted to
work alone (unsupervised) until they have met
Are either certified at the level of Individual
or Team Leader
Qualification/certification board members must
be appointed in writing by what individual?
Ordnance used for classroom training should be
which of the following types - expended,
certified inert, expired or live?
Military personnel must meet the standards of
NAVMED P117 every five years until they reach
Who will monitor the Ordnance Programs and Policies Branch and provide guidance for the Navy's QUAL/CERT Program?
Who provides assistance to activities with the implementation of the OPNAV 8023.24B and assesses the command's QUAL/CERT Program for compliance and effectiveness during periodic ESI's and COSR's?
Who ensures a command's/activity's explosives handling personnel QUAL/CERT program is in full compliance with the policy, guidance, and direction contained in the OPNAV 8023.24B?
What report is used to ensure that all personnel involved in operations involving AA&E are screened annually to ensure they are mature, stable and show a willingness and capability to perform assigned tasks dependably?
Who shall conduct a self-assessment of the command's QUAL/CERT program annually using the QUAL/CERT self assessment guide?
QUAL/CERT Board Chair
What form is the OPNAV 5530/1 (7/2007)?
Arms, Ammunition and Explosive Screening
Certification and recertification, unless revoked for cause, shall be valid for what amount of time?
The last day of the 12th month following certification/recertification
What form is the DD FORM 2760?
Qualification to possess firearms or ammunition
What is Work Task Code 1?
What governs the explosives handling QUAL/CERT program for the USMC?
What is Work Task Code 2?
How often shall a AA&E screening be completed for a ordnance qualified individual
What is Work Task Code 3?
Who certifies a board member?
What is Work Task Code 4?
What is Work Task Code 5?
Who is responsible for the decertification and/or revocation of individual certification?
A lapsed medical qualification will invalidate an individual's certification; however, this is not applicable if the individual has a medical examination scheduled within how many days of the date the QUAL/CERT is due to expire?
Does the QUAL/CERT board chair need QUAL/CERT?
No. However, the board chair is not exempt from ensuring the required standards of explosive safety are in place and provided that the board chair does not handle AE or perform in the capacity of QA, SO or TL.
Referring to informal training and OJT, the person who observed the training must be certified to what certification level?
Equivalent or higher
Are personnel who are receiving OJT for Team Member (TM/IT) authorized to use live ordnance for training purposes?
No; unless authorized in writing by TYCOM or REGCOM
What is Work Task Code 6?
What is Work Task Code 7?
What are the Qualification / Certification Levels?
IT- In Training
TM- Team Member
TL- Team Leader
QA- Quality Assurance
SO- Safety Observer
QA/SO- Quality Assurance/Safety Observer
What are the 3 forms of training and what do they stand for?
A- On the Job
C- Proficiency Demonstration
Are personnel who are receiving OJT for Team Member (TM/IT) authorized to use live ordnance for training purposes?
No; unless authorized in writing by TYCOM or REGCOM
How long shall the written approval for use of live ammunition or AE for training be retained in the individuals training record?
If Mark and Mod number designations identify an item, what command controls it?
What is support equipment that is required on the ground?
What are the three subcategories of AWSE?
ASE, WSE, and LSE
What includes all equipment whose primary function is to support the installed aircraft systems and is used primarily by an aircraft intermediate maintenance department or squadron?
What includes all equipment whose primary function is to support explosive ordnance components or weapons?
WSE is divided into two categories, weapons handling equipment and what else?
Weapons test equipment
What consists of equipment used for packaging, bulk handling storage, or stowage and transportation of weapons and weapon components within the weapon logistics cycle?
What includes specially designed mechanical equipment used for assembling, disassembling, handling, transporting, lifting, positioning, rotating, or containing conventional weapons, ammunition, explosives and related components? (Page 9- 4)
What is a wood or metal platform used to stack material for movement from one area to another?
Which type of pallets must be used when live ammunition and explosives are involved?
What is the standard four-way pallet safe working load (SWL)?
What is the Mk 3 Mod 0 pallet SWL?
How many different sizes does the ammunition pallet crate come in?
Projectiles, cartridges, and powder tanks up to how many inches in diameter, boxed ammunition, and various inert loads are typical of the items handled with the ammunition pallet crate?
What can be used to quickly and safely attach a crane cable or other hoisting device to ammunition for movement from one area to another?
What is the SWL of the Mk 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier?
What is the SWL of the Mk 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier?
What are metal frameworks that are used to support a weapon that is being assembled or maintained?
The A/F 32K-1A bomb assembly stand consists of three interchangeable and interlocking sections of what length?
What are used for carrying, lifting, and handling weapons?
The HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar is used to manually lift Mk 80/BLU 100 (series) general-purpose bombs that weigh up to how many pounds during aircraft loading/unloading operations?
Which lift beam is used with an overhead crane or hoist to lift the Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM) and the Harpoon air-launched missile?
Mk 37 Mod 1
What are lifting devices used to handle weapons?
The Mk 85, Mk 86, Mk 87, and Mk 100 pallet slings are wire rope basket slings that are adjustable for load height. These slings accommodate a full range of load heights (how many inches)?
16 to 70
The Mk 105 Mod 0 hoisting sling is a braided nylon rope that consists of a pendant and a leg assembly. Legs are rated at 4,000 pounds; with two or more legs, the assembly is rated at a how many-pound capacity?
The Mk 109 Mod 1 container-lifting sling permit adjustment of sling-leg width within the range of 25 inches to how many inches?
Which mechanism provides a mechanical advantage when raising or lowering heavy loads, such as bombs, mines, and torpedoes?
Which type of single adapter is the HLU-288/E bomb hoist used with to load various weapons onto a variety of aircraft?
Which type of bomb-hoisting unit is a lightweight, portable unit designed to load various weapons/stores on naval aircraft?
Skids and weapons transporters cannot be used without what?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the AERO 12C skid?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 9C bomb skid adapter?
The Aero 39C bomb skid adapter has an SWL of how many nitrogen bottles?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of each Aero 64B adapter?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of one set of Aero 58A skid adapters?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of two pairs (total four) of the ADU- 483/E skid adapters?
When the skid adapter assemblies are installed, the Aero 58A skid adapter is limited to weapons with a maximum diameter of how many inches?
The ADU-496A/E is used to support the AGM-88 HARM missile and how many-inch diameter and larger stores?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of each Aero 64A soft-belt adapters?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 83A?
The ADU-511A/E adapter is used in support of the AIM-7, AIM-120 AMRAAM, AGM-88, and what other missiles for transporting and loading operations?
The ADU-514A/E small missile adapter is used on a variety of weapon skids, transporters, and trailers for transporting up to how many for each of the following missiles: AIM-7 series, AIM-120 series AMRAAM, AIM-9 series, and AGM-114 series?
How many sonobuoys in launch containers can the ADU-699A/E with four sonobuoy transport adapters ADU-834/E hold and or transport up to?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the ADU-400/E adapter?
What is a mobile four-wheel or three-wheel unit that lets one person pick up, transport, and lift the load to different heights?
Which adapter hook converts a forklift truck tine assembly into a fork/boom assembly, for lifting and transporting various loads?
Mk 91 Mod 0
Diesel engine forklift trucks used throughout the Navy range from a 4,000- pound capacity to a how many-pound capacity?
The 4,000-pound hand pallet truck has a two-tine fork that supports a palletized load. The tines are raised or lowered by a hydraulic or mechanical lift mechanism. The height of lift differs from model to model but is generally in the range of how many inches?
2 to 4
The Mk 45 Mod 2 is intended for use in lifting and maneuvering long, heavy containers and cradles within the weight capacity of two trucks (how many pounds)?
Trailers may be divided into three categories—weapon trailers, weight handling trailers, and which other category of trailers?
What is the recommended maximum towing speed for single or multiple MHU-126A/M munitions trailers being towed in a train?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the MHU-126A/M?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the A/M 32K-4A?
What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 51D?
Equipment, such as slings, bands, beams, strongbacks, and spreader bars, is static tested at 200 percent to what percent of the SWL?
What are aircraft bombs, torpedoes, mines, or other stores suspended internally or externally from the aircraft by?
The Aero 1A (Forward)/1B (Aft) adapter assemblies are used on the forward and aft ends of the BRU-14/A or BRU-15/A bomb racks which enable them to load and carry weapons/stores that have suspension lugs spaced 30 inches apart and weigh up to how many pounds?
The BRU-12/A and BRU-12A/A bomb racks are designed for fixed mounting in a bomb bay of the P-3 aircraft and can be used to carry, arm, and release a weapon/store weighing up to how many pounds?
The BRU-14/A bomb rack provides suspension and release of conventional and special weapons/stores up to 2,200 pounds with how many-inch suspensions?
The BRU-32 (series) ejector unit rack assembly is a non-jettisonable single carriage rack used for carrying weapons or other external stores on what aircraft?
The BRU-32A/A can carry weapons/stores of between 10 and 28 inches in diameter weighing up to 2,600 pounds, while the BRU-32B/A can carry weapons/stores of the same diameter weighing up to how many pounds?
The BRU-55 allows carriage of how many smart weapons (up to 1,000-pound class) on a single aircraft station?
How many rocket adapter harness assemblies are provided to electrically couple rocket stores to the BRU-41/A or BRU-42/A?
The SUU-25F/A has a cylindrically shaped, all-metal body. It has four aluminum tubes that will hold how many LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flares?
The AN/ALE-39 countermeasures dispensing system ejects expendable payloads consisting of chaff, flares, or radio frequency (RF) jammers singly or in groups from two how many-round dispenser magazines?
What provides the aircrew with a "smart" CMDS, allowing the aircrew to optimize the countermeasures employed against anti-aircraft threats?
Ensure decoy devices that have been dropped or roughly handled are disposed of by what personnel?
The Navy Personnel Ammunition and Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification (QUAL/CERT) Program was established by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) as a result of the catastrophic MK-24 parachute flare accident on the USS ORISKANY in what year that led to significant loss of life and major ship damage?
Which type of training is needed by an individual but has not been identified as a formal training requirement?
What will ensure that personnel being trained achieve and maintain the level of expertise necessary to ensure an accident-free explosives safety program?
Which form should be used to document informal training, including OJT?
The TYCOM or REGCOM, as appropriate, must provide written approval for the break out and use of live AE for training to achieve qualification. How many years should this written approval be retained as part of the individual training record?
Who is responsible for the command's QUAL/CERT program?
QUAL/CERT board members should be in which grade or higher (or civilian equivalent) and designated by name, in writing by individual letter, by the CO/OIC?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is the physical act of breaking out, unpacking, inspecting, counting (inventory control), lifting, transporting, repositioning, or packaging of AE by hand or with the use of powered/pneumatic equipment?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is the physical act of stowing explosive/explosive devices in designated and approved locations, such as holding areas, explosive magazines, and ready service lockers?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is used when assembly/disassembly is authorized in applicable weapons assembly manuals, technical manuals, SOPs, and checklists?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is the physical act of mating an AUR with its launching device to include racks/launchers, fixed gun systems, automatic loading systems, torpedo tubes, etc., from which delivery/initiation can be accomplished?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) applies to those procedures contained in the arm/dearm section of the applicable governing technical manuals, checklists, and MRCs that place an explosive/explosive device or system in an armed or safe condition?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is the physical act of installing/removing explosive devices, such as aircraft egress systems, cable cutters, fire extinguisher cartridges, and non-aircraft support cartridges/CADs?
Which Work Task Code (WTC) is the physical act of conducting a test on components? Built-in-test (BIT), programming, reprogramming, and presetting are included in this WTC.
At which Qualification Standards and Certification level is the person aware of basic safety precautions for the task and AE concerned, has received either formal or informal training and/or OJT, and has been recommended by their immediate supervisor?
Which person is responsible for the safety assurance at each individual handling evolution location?
What designates the authorized spaces and provides storage plan templates where ammunition and explosives are stowed, serviced, assembled or temporarily held in readiness?
What provides stowage plan templates for aviation magazines
What refers to ammunition stowage areas in the immediate vicinity of the launcher, gun, or aircraft where the ammunition is used?
Where stowage for ammunition is provided by lockers, chests, or racks that are permanently secured to the ship's structure, their location cannot be changed without prior approval of what
Portable ventilation systems should be used to prevent overheating or condensation of moisture if a magazine without controls shows a temperature in excess of what temperature?
How many alarms are commonly associated with all magazine sprinkler systems?
There should be an air space of not less than how many inches between any ammunition stowage stack and the surface of adjacent plating or sheathing?
How often at a minimum should the magazine be inspected?
How long are magazine temperature record cards retained on file?
What are used during weapons assembly to lift a weapon from the handling equipment or pallets to the assembly stands and from the assembly stand to the handling equipment?
There are three basic types of hoists—manually-powered, electrically- powered, and which other type?
Transported ordnance can either be moved in the AUR Ready-For-Issue (RFI) configuration, the component configuration, or palletized as a what?
Fleet Issue Unit Load (FIUL)
Handling large quantities of explosive munitions at piers is limited to those designated by NAVSEASYSCOM as what?
Even though a ship is located at an explosive anchorage, transferring ammunition is restricted to daylight hours. Normally, the ship remains at anchorage until the entire evolution is completed, which may vary from 1 to how many days?
What do the functional characteristics of electrically-initiated ordnance cause?
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO)
Which term applies to radio frequency (RF) electromagnetic fields of sufficient intensity to produce harmful biological effects in humans, and/or cause spark ignition of volatile combustibles or actuate electro-explosive devices?
Which command sponsors a testing program that determines the susceptibility of ordnance to RF environments?
What is an ordnance item classified as if proved (by tests or analysis) to contain EEDs to be adversely affected by RF energy to the point safety and/or reliability of the system is in jeopardy when the system is used in its expected RF environments?
Which type of environment should HERO-unsafe ordnance NEVER be exposed to?
What is a set of directions for mitigating the HERO restrictions on ships and shore stations?
HERO EMCON bill
. Which rate determines if an ordnance item is HERO safe, HERO susceptible, or HERO unsafe?
Ammunition storage ashore applies to the storage of explosives, ammunition, and ammunition components in how many different types of environments and operational conditions?
The safe storage of ammunition and explosives at DON shore activities, including tenant activities (Coast Guard, Federal Bureau of Investigation, etc.), regardless of ammunition and explosives ownership, is under the cognizance of what?
Naval Ordnance Safety and Security Activity (NOSSA)
DON shore activities should not store any ammunition and explosives that is in excess to their ammunition storage allowance or to their research, development, testing, or manufacturing needs, unless specifically directed to do so, in writing by the inventory control points or by the designated what?
Disposition Authority (DDA)
Which flag should be prominently displayed by all ships and craft engaged in ammunition and explosives loading and unloading operations?
What is ammunition intended for operational use classified as?
Which type of ammunition and components contain no explosive material?
What is the application of the final body coating to ammunition, ammunition components, or ammunition containers by authorized activities?
Which ammunition color code identifies high explosives?
Which ammunition color code identifies rocket motors, JATOs, or low explosive items or components?
Which ammunition color code identifies ammunition that contains irritant or toxic agents when used as an overall body color except for underwater ordnance?
Which ammunition color code identifies armor-defeating ammunition?
Which ammunition color code identifies countermeasure ammunition?
Which ammunition color code identifies screening or marking smoke ammunition?
Which ammunition color code identifies incendiary ammunition or indicates the presence of highly flammable material for producing damage by fire?
Which ammunition color code identifies ammunition used for tracking or recovery such as underwater mines and torpedoes?
What is the application of colored spots, bands, or symbols on ammunition, ammunition components, or ammunition containers?
Lettering is put on ammunition by die stamping, stenciling, decaling, etching, or which other method?
How many digits is the Department of Defense Identification Code (DODIC) that is assigned by the Defense Logistics Information Service Center (DLISC) or Naval Operational Logistics Support Center (NOLSC)?
What is a quantity of ammunition assembled from uniform components under similar conditions?
Which command designs and designates all magazines or storage areas?
Magazines are classified depending on their design or construction as above- ground, arch-type (igloo), box-type, earth-covered, or what else?
Which type of magazine is earth-covered and arch-shaped with a prefabricated concrete construction?
Which type of magazine is shaped like a beehive or dome?
Which type of magazine is a tunnel or cave?
Which classification system is used by the DoD for dangerous materials to identify the hazardous characteristics of ammunition and explosives?
How many hazard classes are contained in the UNO classification system
Which Hazard C/D are ammunition and explosives that are considered mass- detonating hazards?
Class 1, Division 1
Ammunition and explosives are assigned to a storage compatibility group (SCG) when they can be stored together without significantly increasing either the probability of an accident—or for a given quantity—the magnitude of the effects from such an accident. How many groups have been established?
The magazine designator is a how many-group symbol, composed of numbers and letters?
What is the first number of the magazine designator symbol?
Magazine group number
Which symbols represent the type of agent being stored or processed?
A posted symbol should be situated so it is visible during daylight from a distance of how many feet?
What is the general term for a temporary base that is in or near a forward area outside the zone of the interior?
What is normally established to facilitate the through-put for all Class V (Ammunition) material received into the area responsible for consolidation and redeployment of this material?
. How many or more magazine or storage areas should be provided for each advanced base?
A demolition area is used for destroying unserviceable ammunition and explosives. This area may be selected within the confines of the ASP provided that it is a minimum of 1,800 feet from any stored ammunition and explosives and how many feet from any other component areas?
Commercial shipping containers used for ammunition storage will be considered an aboveground magazine unless how many feet of earth cover can be maintained over the entire container to qualify it as an ECM?
Each FSU is limited to a maximum of how many short tons with spacing between units established by OP 5 Volume 3?
Each stack within an FSU is limited to a maximum of how many short tons
Stacks within an FSU must be separated by a minimum of how many feet?
Which part of the lightning protection system was designed to provide a primary attachment point for a lightning strike?
Air termination system
The best method to protect extremely sensitive operations from all sources of electromagnetic radiation (not just lightning) is to enclose the operations or facility inside of a what?
Lightning protection system down conductors shall meet the minimum requirements of what?
The majority of the ordnance items in the naval inventory today have been designed to withstand high temperatures in the range of what?
130° to 160°F
Studies have indicated that the temperature within conventional ordnance storage magazines seldom exceeds what temperature?
What contains the general information needed for personnel to safely perform the duties required when shipping ordnance materials?
For military personnel to qualify as explosives drivers special duty physical examination is required every five years until what age, and annually thereafter?
Explosives drivers must be 18 years of age or older to operate motor vehicles transporting AE on-station, and shall be how many years of age or older for off- station operations?
What provides in-depth guidance on the Navy's explosives safety training program?
NAVSEA OP 5 Volume 1
If a ship is expected to remain in the yard for less than how many weeks, the ship offloads, as a minimum, all ammunition or explosives that can't be stowed in sprinkler-protected or floodable spaces?
What provides detailed information for weapons uncanning/recanning and inspection, component unpackaging/inspection, repackaging and weapons assembly, and inspection criteria for assembled weapons?
Airborne Weapons Assembly Manual (WAM)
Regardless of how well trained an assembly crew may be, there must always be a team leader (TL), a quality assurance (QA) inspector and which other member?
Safety Observer (SO)
The designated bomb assembly areas on the amphibious assault ship (general purpose) (LHA) and the multi-purpose amphibious assault ships (LHD) class is normally located on what deck (aviation ordnance/bomb assembly magazine) or other designated assembly areas depending on the class of ship?
Which term is used to define the physical removal of ammunition from the magazine
Weapons are broken out, by direction of whom, in accordance with the load plan
Ordnance Handling Officer (OHO)
Bombs, with more than 56 square inches of thermal coating missing—or one area greater than how many square inches—are not considered thermally protected, and are restricted from use afloat?
Which series of electronic bomb fuze is currently used by the Navy?
What is the shelf life of BSU-85 fins when stored in original shipping/storage container?
Unless the BSU-86 fin is to be used on a Mk 82/BLU-111 live loaded tactical Depth Bomb, ensure that the eight setscrews are made of what?
The practice bombs normally used on a routine basis are the Mk 76 Mod 5 and what else
Don't make changes or additions to any ordnance or ordnance components without explicit authority from which command?
Naval Air Systems Command
Which manual is the basic authority for the types of ordnance and ordnance load combinations on each model aircraft?
What should be used to keep loading manuals and checklists current?
NATOPS manuals are issued by the authority of whom and under the direction of the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM in conjunction with the NATOPS program
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
Personnel are authorized to manually load most weapons or stores weighing how many pounds or less with manual hoisting bars?
Weapons weighing over 1,000 pounds are normally loaded with the HLU- 196D/E bomb hoisting unit or what else?
HLU-288/E bomb hoist
What carries practice bombs and LGTRs?
The aircraft loading procedures for the High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM) AGM-88 series, and Maverick, AGM-65 series require the missile launcher (LAU-117A (V)2/A, LAU-118(V)2/A) to be mated to the missile by Intermediate (I)-level maintenance personnel prior to delivery to the Organizational level. What is this combination called?
Preloaded Accessory Suspension Equipment (PASE)
How many pounds do Mk 76 practice bombs weigh?
Which aircraft is a dual-role (fighter/bomber), and supersonic aircraft?
What provides for the interface, control, and release functions of the aircraft weapon stations and gun system?
What allows for pilot interface with and display from the SMS and MC systems?
Located on the pilot's instrument panel, what allows for weapon displays?
Located on the pilot's instrument panel, what allows for arming the armament systems, selecting air-to-air (A/A) and air-to-ground (A/G) master modes and emergency jettison of weapons and stores?
Master Arm control panel
The air-to-air missile control systems on the F/A-18 provide for the ability to select and launch air-to-air missiles, including AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-9 Sidewinder, and what else?
What is a mode of jettisoning all weapons/stores from the five pylon stations on the F/A-18 A-D?
What is a mode of individually jettisoning left fuselage missile, right fuselage missile, racks, launchers, and stores on the F/A-18 A-D?
What is a gravity mode of jettison used on the five pylon stations when emergency and selective jettison fails on the F/A-18 A-D?
What countermeasures dispensing system on the F/A-18 A-D dispenses decoys to confuse and jam enemy electronic tracking, missile guidance, and homing systems?
Which countermeasures dispensing system on the F/A-18 A-D provides for threat-adaptive, reprogrammable computer-controlled dispenses of decoys to confuse and jam enemy electronic tracking, missile guidance, and homing systems?
The basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 A-D aircraft consists of LAU-116 series missile launchers, LAU-7 series missile launchers, SUU-63 series pylons, SUU-62 series pylons, BRU-32 series bomb racks, and what type of gun?
Which systems include the AN/ALE-47 Integrated Countermeasures System and AN/ALE-50A Integrated Countermeasures System?
What system provides for reprogrammable, computer- or manual-controlled dispenses of an active RF transmitting towed decoy?
The basic ASW search and kill store system and its associated equipment are currently used in the P-3 fixed-wing aircraft and what other aircraft?
What is a four-engine, low-wing aircraft designed for patrol and ASW?
What is a general purpose, stored program, digital computer that provides the digital communications link between the HACLC and the Harpoon missile?
The upgraded Maverick Missile Control System (MMCS) provides the P-3 aircraft with the capability to individually identify and track up to how many separate targets?
What is the heart of the MMCS and is the one component through which all signals used to control the MMCS are routed?
What is the master controller for the MMCS?
How many dispensers are on the P-3 AIP aircraft?
On the P-3 the bomb bay is designed to carry various arrangements of weapons with a maximum of how many stations available at one time?
On the P-3 three 1000/2000-Pound Class Store Pylon Assemblies are provided for carrying a maximum of how many 1000-pound or one 2000-pound class weapon?
The GAU-17/A crew served gun provides defensive suppressive fire at fixed rates of 2000 and how many rounds per minute?
The sonobuoy launch system on the MH-60R is capable of controlling and launching up to how many sonobuoys and consists of the basic components described, which are common to all of the armament subsystems?
What are used to measure resistance (ohms) and voltage (ac or dc) in an electrical circuit?
What is a portable load simulator used to count fire pulses and test for stray voltage in the ALE-47 Countermeasure Dispensing System (CMDS)?
What is a portable load simulator used to count fire pulses and test for stray voltage in the ALE-47 CMDS?
. AN/ALM-291 countermeasure dispenser test set is a portable test set used at what maintenance level for preflight testing of the AN/ALE-39 CMDS?
Which fuze function control test set is used on all Navy and Marine Corps aircraft that have electric fuzing capabilities?
Which firing circuit test set is a solid-state electronic test set that is used for flight line testing of the aircraft's bomb release and missile firing circuits and for checking stray voltages prior to arming?
What stores management subassembly test set is a weapon release and control test set designed to perform release and control testing?
Which test set is designed to test for functional, firing, and stray voltage to the 20MM gun system?
Which guided missile test set is used as an Infrared (IR) source when performing AIM-9M Sidewinder missile tone checks?
What is an automatic/semiautomatic universal GO/NO-GO tester for various aircraft specific bomb racks, missile launchers, weapon rails, aircraft pylons, and other units under test (UUTs) that have been removed for maintenance verification/repair?
What is an integration of ordnance logistics systems used by the Navy and Marine Corps for ordnance asset management and accountability?
Ordnance Information System (OIS)
What is the single repository for worldwide status of Navy expendable non- nuclear ordnance requirements, assets, production, expenditures, costs, and technical inventory management data, regardless of inventory management or ownership responsibilities?
What is an integrated system of application software designed for retail ammunition asset management and reporting?
Which Department of Defense (DOD) system uses satellite positioning and communications technology to monitor the in-transit movement of all DOD shipments of sensitive Ammunition and Explosives (AE) being transported in Continental United States (CONUS) by commercial motor carriers?
What is the single repository for worldwide status of Marine Corps 0T Cognizant (OT COG) expendable non-nuclear ordnance requirements, assets, production, expenditures, costs, and technical inventory management data?
What consists of a series of assessment displays that provide statistics regarding data integrity, readiness, and other stockpile profiles?
Ordnance Assessment Portfolio (OAP)
Which inventory control system supports traditional inventory management functions, as well as functions unique to Tomahawk Cruise Missiles (2D cognizance material), required for the worldwide management and control of TOMAHAWK All-Up-Round (AUR) missiles?
Which model provides the Navy's Fleet Ordnance Support (FOS) workload and funding requirement projection?
Supplying ammunition to the Fleet is accomplished by the preparation and submission of MILSTRIP documents such as requisitions, redistribution orders, and referral orders in accordance with what along with any tailoring required for ordnance material?
NAVSUP P-485 Vol. 1
Which type of missiles, rockets, or torpedoes are provided as complete assemblies and described in the Complete Round Dictionary (CRD)?
What is a preliminary listing of an initial shipfill allowance of service ordnance prepared and forwarded to the ship and the TYCOM by NOLSC- AMMO for validation of compatibility with armament systems and stowage capability?
Provisional Allowance List
What is the Chief of Naval Operation's (CNO's) approved full war allowance for shipfill, ship to shore rotational units, and shore stations?
NAVSEA (30000) Series and Fleet Allowances
What is the two-digit numeric-alphabetic code symbol preceding a National Stock Number (NSN), which identifies ammunition, supply item, its inventory manager, and the stores account in which carried?
Which four character code is centrally assigned by the Defense Logistics Information Service (DLIS) to generically describe items of supply identified under the FLIS in Federal Supply Groups (FSGs) 13 (AE) and 14 (Guided Missiles)?
What is made when an item is permanently removed from the Navy inventory?
What is an increase in the asset position based upon physical inventory of an ammunition item?
What is the transfer of an item, regardless of its serviceability condition, to another activity?
What is the time difference between the Julian date of the requisition and the required delivery date (RDD)?
How many-digits is the NIIN which uniquely identifies a specific item of supply?
How many-digits is the NSN stock number?
What is the total of all Navy—including Marine Corps aviation—non-nuclear ordnance items authorized for expenditure for training, testing, operations, and other peacetime uses?
What is a receipt of ammunition by an ammunition support activity (ashore), from a Fleet unit (normally a ship), for temporary storage and return to the same unit?
For reporting purposes, what is any change in the reported asset posture of an ammunition item?
What is the movement of assets from a Navy activity to an activity outside the Navy accounting system such as the Army, Air Force, Coast Guard, or a foreign government?
What should be used for ordering all material from the Navy Supply System, other military installations, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and the General Services Administration (GSA)?
What provides a means of identifying a given product (e.g., requisition, referral action, status document, and follow-up cancellation) to OIS-W and further identify such data as to the intended purpose, usage, and operation desired?
Complete lists of applicable DICs are provided in what publication?
NAVSUP P-485 Volume II
What is an address that either indicates the intended recipient of the document or indicates the actual consignor (shipper) on supply type release/receipt documents?
Which type of codes have been developed to properly bill an activity for material received?
What govern requisition submission, material allocation, and depot/storage site processing?
What provides guidelines to assist in the determination of the correct priority and lead time for ammunition requisitions?
What are numeric-alphabetic or alpha-alpha and provide coded instructions to supply sources when such data is considered essential to supply action and entry in narrative form is not feasible?
Initial status on all requisitions submitted will be provided via OIS-W. If initial status is not received within how many days, a MILSTRIP follow-up is submitted to Naval Ammunition Logistics Support Center (NAVAMMOLOGCEN) Mechanicsburg using RIC NCB?
What provides details on requisitions and can track reports of excess material and the movement of those excesses to the destination disposal activity?
. Upon receipt of RIE requests, AMMOLANT/AMMOPAC will input requisition and provide status to the requisitioner and supplementary addressee within five working days. Status for urgent RIE requests will be provided within how many hours?
AMMOLANT/AMMOPAC will follow local office procedures by sending requisition status or ensuring a USFF/PACFLT ordnance handling activity publishes requisition status, approximately how many days prior to the start of the load evolution?
Ships are required to maintain their shipfill ammunition allowance on board or on order. One exception is that stock levels can be reduced to what percent to permit expenditures for training, or to carry exercise ammunition?
What provides fleet requisition processing, fleet interface, and coordination scheduling for ordnance movements through management offices located at NOLSCAMMOLANT, Norfolk, VA and NOLSC-AMMOPAC, San Diego, CA?
Which form is used to document the turn-in of ammunition and ammunition details?
DD Form 1348-1A
Stock points should follow guidance in what publication for Disposal/Demilitarize (DEMIL) of ammunition details?
TEMP STOW is not to exceed how many days and must include the reason for the temporary storage?
If circumstances indicate the TEMP STOW period will exceed 30 days, TYCOM may grant a 30-day extension on a case-by-case basis to a maximum TEMP STOW period of how many days?
What are used to report ammunition supply transactions by naval activities, and commercial ordnance handling and storage activities that do not have TIR capability?
During major combat operations (MCOs) or small-scale contingency combat, expenditures will be reported via ATR/TIR within how many hours?
Class V (A) ammunition utilized during a Combined Arms Exercise (CAX) will be reported within how many hours after completion of the exercise?
ATR transactions are reported in accordance with the timeframes prescribed in Conventional Ordnance Inventory Accountability, OPNAVINST 8015.2 series and in accordance with the policies provided in what?
ATRs are limited to 6 pages in length with how many lines per page?
How many slashes are used to indicate the beginning of an ATR and ending of an ATR?
Julian dates may not be postdated in excess of how many days?
Issue inspection will be performed for all ammunition shipped or issued except for ammunition received designated as what?
Ships offloading at Navy stock points will submit an offload planning message to the offloading receipt activity how many days prior to the event?
What provides stock point receipt inspection procedures and criteria to identify ammunition physical condition and defect code (D/C) that supplement C/Cs by identifying specific reasons for C/C assignment?
All naval activities are required to use either OIS-R or ROLMS to report to OIS-W in accordance with what instruction?
What should be used to record all pertinent data for each NALC or NIIN carried?
NAVSUP Form 1296 (8-87) (yellow)
What provides color photographic visual aids supplementing NAVSUP P-805 to assure consistency in the inspection and segregation process?
What is an information network subsystem of the Naval Aviation Logistic Data Analysis (NALDA) Up-line Information System (UIS) which supports the basic maintenance doctrine for weapons and support equipment as prescribed by the Naval Ordnance Maintenance Management Program (NOMMP)?
What provides for the collection, processing, analysis, reporting, and modeling of performance, maintenance, logistics, and acquisition data?
What is a Web application and shipboard stand-alone application used to capture and pass airborne weapons captive carry flight data to AWARS?
What is used by the Fleet to report the unclassified results of noncombat missile firings and unsuccessful combat missile firings for designated programs?
What Ammunition Replenisher replenishes 20mm ammunition into the Ammunition Loader GFK-21/E32K-7 while simultaneously downloading unfired rounds and spent cartridge cases?
What are employed for transporting weapons and explosives such as torpedoes, mines, projectiles, powder tanks, containers, cradles, skids and associated assemblies?
The 8-Inch Projectile Truck Mk 9 Mod 0 is used for carrying all types of 8-inch projectiles aboard ship or in areas where there are what types of surfaces
Handlift Truck Mk 45 Mod 0 is intended for use in lifting and maneuvering long, heavy containers, cradles, and skids within the weight capacity of two trucks (how many pounds)
Handlift Truck Mk 45 Mod 2 is used when lifting and maneuvering long heavy containers, cradles and skids within the weight capacity of two trucks (how many pounds)?
What is used at shore stations for transporting Torpedoes MK 37, 46 and 48 in and around torpedo workshops?
Torpedo Truck Mk 46 Mod 0
Destructor Handling Truck Mk 49 Mod 0 is used aboard Mine Countermeasures (MCM) ships to transport a Mk 57 Mod 0 Mine Neutralization System (MNS) approximately how many feet from the magazine to a submersible vehicle?
The 6,000 Pound Hand Pallet Truck Mk 50 Mod 0 was approved exclusively by what Class Ships?
Bomb Hoist Adapter Mk 2 Mod 0 is used with Manual Bomb Hoist Mk 8 Mod 0, Bomb Hoist AERO 14C, Bomb Hoist HLU-288/E or Gas Powered Bomb Hoisting HLU-196B/E in arming various naval aircraft with hard surfaced stores of up to how many pounds (excluding nuclear weapons)
What is used with Handlift Trucks Mk 42 and Mk 45 Mods to lift and transport a TALOS Innerbody Container Mk 286?
Truck Adapter Mk 27 Mod 0
What is used with Handlift Trucks Mk 45 Mods 0 or 2 to lift and transport Motor Container Mk 178 Mod 0, Depth Charge Container Mk 182 Mod 1, or Torpedo Containers Mk 187 Mods, Mk 197 Mods, and ROCKEYE 2 Container Mk 427 Mod 0?
Handlift Truck Adapter Mk 28 Mod 0
Innerbody Handling Adapter Mk 48 Mod 0 is used in place of cowl innerbody support ring to support the innerbody of a what during handling?
What is used to handle STANDARD (ER) Missile/Booster Containers Mk 199 and Mk 200 during underway and dockside replenishment operations?
Container Adapter Mk 62 Mod 0
What is used in pairs with two Handlift Trucks Mk 42 Mods 0 or 1 to handle STANDARD ARM Missile (AGM-78A)?
Truck Adapter Mk 84 Mod 0
What is used for storage of STANDARD, TARTAR, and TERRIER Missiles and Boosters?
Guided Missile Storage Adapter Mk 100 Mod 0
Container Adapters Mk 109 Mod 0 are used in pairs with two Handlift Trucks Mk 45 Mods 0 or 2 to handle Container Mk 372 Mods without cover when interfacing STANDARD MR Missile with what?
Interim Surface Missile (ISSM) Loader
Handling Band Shoe Adapter Mk 110 Mod 0 is used on what missiles to provide a means of handling the missile with a STREAM strongback and for below deck handling on a combatant ship?
What converts a 15,000-pound capacity fork lift truck to boom truck capabilities?
Hook Adapter Mk 155 Mod 0
Hoist Adapter AERO 20B supports how many AERO 14C Bomb Hoists during weapons/stores loading operations on AERO 20B ejector racks?
Missile Skid Adapter AERO 41A is used with Missile Skid Adapter 16B for transporting what missiles?
What is used with Missile Skid AERO 16B to carry two assembled missiles 8 to 12 inches in diameter or two missile components, or serve as an assembly stand for BULLPUP AGM 12B or alternate stand for SPARROW and SHRIKE missiles?
Missile Skid Adapter AERO 42A
Skid Adapter AERO 53A is a welded aluminum structure equipped with how many supports on each side of its base?
The Skid Adapter AERO 53A is used with Munitions Transporter MHU- 191/M for transporting up to how many sonobuoys?
Trailer Adapter AERO 54A is used with Bomb Trailer Mk 7 to transport up to how many Mk 81 or Mk 82 bombs?
Small Bomb and Missile Adapter AERO 67A is attached to the MHU-191/M Munitions Transporter and is used to transport and load weapons with a how many-inch diameter or less?
Guided Missile Adapter ADU-475/E is used with various skids, transporters, and trailers for
transporting how many SIDEWINDERS AIM-9 series guided missiles?
Adjustable Weapons Adapter ADU-511/E was designed to interface with Skid Adapter AERO 58A to carry how many stores side by side?
Forward Cradle Adapter ADU-591/E is used with Aft Cradle Adapter ADU- 592/E to support what reeling machine launcher during transportation, installation and removal operations?
Missile Handling Adapter A/E 32K-1 is used with Munitions Transporter MHU-191/M to transport how many completely assembled AIM-9 SIDEWINDER missiles?
Hoist Adapter HLK-229 is used with Hoist Adapter HLK-230 to attach to the multiple weapons adapter for what aircraft loading at certain stations
Sonobuoy Skid Platform Adapter MXU-661/E is used on Skid Adapter AERO 71A mounted on Skid Adapters (front and rear) AERO 58A to form a flatbed on Munitions Transporter MHU-191/M for transporting as many as how many sonobuoys in containers?
What is used in the installation and removal of the electronic component cover of TALOS Missile Mk 11?
Missile Handling Band Mk 74 Mod 0 is used on TALOS Guided Missile Mk 11 Mods for installation in a transfer dolly, stowage aboard what class ships, stowage in Cradle Mk 6, and in normal handling operations with a hoisting beam?
What is used with a beam to handle TALOS Guided Missile Mk 11 for installation in a transfer dolly?
Missile Handling Band Mk 74 Mod 1
Handling Band Mk 79 Mod 1 is used to ship and handle what missiles?
STANDARD (ER and MR)
What is used to ship and handle the STANDARD (ER) Booster Mk 12 and Mk 70?
Handling Band Mk 81 Mod 0
Short Light Gauge Hoisting Band HLK-275 is used with Anchor Fitting Assembly HLK-279 and Single Store Trolley HLK-225A and HLK-226A for lifting aircraft stores up to how many-inches in diameter during aircraft weapons loading/unloading operations?
Lifting Bar is a tool made of how many inch diameter round stock and formed into a complete rectangular loop?
What is used to manually lift a SPARROW or SHRIKE Missile from a missile skid to an aircraft wing or fuselage-mounted launcher?
Hoisting Bar AERO 64A
What is used in pairs to manually lift a SPARROW (AIM-7) or SHRIKE (AGM-45) Missile from a munitions transporter or skid to an airplane wing or fuselage mounted launcher?
Hoisting Bar AERO 64A1
Hoisting Bar AERO 66A is used by ordnancemen to lift and lower unfuzed what Series bombs to and from aircraft bomb rack stations
Missile Hoisting Beam is used with how many General Purpose Slings for hoisting TALOS Guided Missiles Mk 11 Mods to and from Decan Fixture Mk 10 Mod 0 or the weapon service dollies?
Hoisting Beam Mk 4 Mod 1 is used for handling what in addtion to STANDARD (MR) missiles?
Container Hoisting Beam Mk 11 Mod 0 is used to hoist Missile Container Mk 264 Mod 0 for the what?
Hoisting Beam Mk 13 Mod 1 is utilized to handle a single missile of what type during canning/decanning operations and for placing the weapon on support equipment?
What Guided Missile Hoisting Beam is used with Sling Mk 121 Mod 0 for handling STANDARD ER, MR missiles and Boosters Mk 12 and Mk 70?
Mk 15 Mod 2
Handling Beam Mk 19 Mod 0 consists of a steel beam fitted with how many safety hooks?
When using the Mk 19 Mod 0 handling beam to pick up two loads, the pallets to be lifted must be accurately placed side by side to allow simultaneous hookup with the beam, and each pallet should not weigh more than how many pounds?
Booster Handling Beam Mk 26 Mod 0 is used at Naval Weapons Stations for handling the TERRIER Booster Mk 12 and the STANDARD (ER) Booster by their what, thus eliminating the need for handling bands?
Guided Missile Hoisting Beam Mk 29 Mod 0 is designed to handle TALOS Missiles without what in dual combination of station's 105, 132, 207, 244 and 251 in the assembly building?
Dockside Loading Beam Mk 43 Mod 0 is used for dockside loading and unloading of what encanistered Missiles and unloading empty canisters from the armored box launchers?
Low Profile Handling Beam HLU-214/E is attached to what by releasing the spring latch allowing the beam to slide forward on the forward launch lug?
STANDARD ARM Missile
Weapon Cradle Hoisting Beam HLU-216/E can lift loaded cradles/containers weighing up to how many pounds?
Material Handling Skip Box Mk 1 Mod 0 is used to handle how many boxed 7.2-inch projector charges only?
The 16-Inch Projectile Carrier Mk 3 Mod 4 is used in handling only what 16- Inch projectiles?
Armor Piercing (AP)
Bomb Carrier Mk 8 Mod 0 is a heavy beam type consisting of two steel channels riveted together. A lifting eye is riveted to the channels midway between two carrying hooks. The carrying hooks are spaced how many inches apart and are riveted to the beam?
Bomb Carrier Mk 9 Mod 0 is used to lift and carry uncrated bombs equipped with suspension lugs spaced how many inches apart?
Bomb Carrier Mk 25 Mod 0 is used for handling or lifting one how many pound low-drag bomb in the vertical position?
Bomb Carrier Mk 26 Mod 0 is used for handling or lifting one how many pound low-drag bomb in the vertical position?
Bomb Carrier Mk 27 Mod 0 is used for handling or lifting one how many pound lowdrag bomb in the vertical position?
Bomb Carrier Mk 30 Mod 0 is designed for handling or lifting one how many pound lowdrag bomb in the vertical position?
What is used to lift the 250 pound, 500 pound, 1,000 pound and 2,000 pound low-drag bombs in a horizontal or inclined position?
Bomb Carrier Mk 30 Mod 0
Sustainer Carrier Mk 34 Mod 1 is used at Naval Weapons Stations for hoisting Mk 30 Sustainers during assembly and disassembly of what Missiles?
Weapon Carrier Mk 49 Mod 0 is used to hoist weapons with how many-inch suspension lugs?
Weapon Carrier Mk 55 Mod 0 is used to handle how many pound weapons having a 30 inch suspension system, such as Mines Mk 25, Mk 55 and Mk 56?
What is used with Bomb and Torpedo Trucks Mk 2 Mod 2 or 3, or AERO 23B, and Bomb Truck AERO 33C to transport and lift bombs, mines, or torpedoes during aircraft rearming operations?
Bomb Cradle AERO 6C
What is used to hoist the SPARROW III or SHRIKE missile?
Missile Hoisting Cradle AERO 65A
Igniter Check Clamping Device Mk 3 Mod 0 is used to secure the booster of what missile, to a blast wall during igniter check?
What is used to provide mobility and shock protection to a single STANDARD (ER) missile booster during transfer-at-sea operations and to provide for the mobility of these items on the replenishment ship and the deck of the receiving combatant ship?
Missile Transfer Dolly Mk 6 Mod 1
What is used as a shock and collision protected means of conveyance for a STANDARD (MR) guided missile during loading, unloading, or transfer-at-sea operations?
Missile Transfer Dolly Mk 6 Mod 2
What is used aboard ship and for transfer-at-sea and strikedown operations involving the STANDARD (MR) missiles and HARPOON (RGM-84A-2 and RGM-84C-2) missiles?
Missile Transfer Dolly Mk 6 Mod 4
. What is used in transfer-at-sea operations of the TALOS Guided Missile Mk 11 Mods?
Missile Transfer Dolly Mk 7 Mod 0
What is used in transfer-at-sea operations of the TALOS Guided Missile Booster Mk 11 Mods 2 and 5?
Booster Transfer Dolly Mk 8 Mod 0
Who has overall responsibility for ensuring maintenance is accomplished following 3-M System and quality maintenance procedures and that the 3-M System functions effectively within the command?
Who is the command's 3-M System Manager?
Who is the functional manager of the 3-M System?
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