Which of the following hormones is most responsible for signaling satiety as well as reducing food intake during a meal? A) Gastrin B) Adipokines C) Neuropeptide Y D) Cholecystokinin
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of satiety or satiation? A) Satiety suppresses hunger B) Satiation signals the cessation of eating C) Satiation develops as food enters the GI tract D) Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress
D) Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress
What method is used to measure the amount of heat given off by the body? A) Bomb calorimetry B) Basal calorimetry C) Direct calorimetry D) Indirect calorimetry
C) Direct calorimetry
Which of the following does NOT decrease the metabolic rate? A) Fever B) Fasting C) Sleeping D) Malnutrition
The weight of the body less the fat content is known as the A) cherubic index. B) lean body mass. C) body mass index. D) ideal body weight.
B) lean body mass.
Jenny is 34 years old and has a BMI of 28. Her body type could be described as "pear-like." John is 55 years old with a BMI of 28, and a body type that is "apple-like." Why is John more likely than Jenny to be at risk for degenerative diseases? A) He is male B) He is older C) He weighs more D) He has central obesity
D) He has central obesity
Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) It increases the risk for obesity by 50% B) It is associated with the development of metabolic syndrome C) It is commonly found in people with a BMI less than 24 D) It enhances insulin sensitivity leading to periodic bouts of hypoglycemia
B) It is associated with the development of metabolic syndrome
What term best describes a failure of the body's cells to respond to secretion of insulin? A) Central obesity B) Insulin resistance C) Thyroid insufficiency D) Hypothalamic impedance
B) Insulin resistance
All of the following are typical characteristics of amenorrhea EXCEPT A) infertility. B) bone mineral loss. C) muscle dysmorphia. D) low blood estrogen.
C) muscle dysmorphia.
Which of the following is characteristic of the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa? A) Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime B) Binge eating is frequently done at restaurant buffets C) Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting D) A binge eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes
C) Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting
As a new assistant in a weight-loss research laboratory, you are given a tour of the mouse laboratory. Why is the leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart? A) Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin B) Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure C) Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake D) Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage
B) Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure
Which of the following is a feature of weight-loss remedies? A) Dietary supplements are not necessarily tested for safety or effectiveness B) Body wraps and creams that have FDA approval are helpful for weight-reduction regimes C) Sauna baths may reach temperatures high enough to melt visceral but not subcutaneous fat stores D) Hot baths raise the metabolic rate by 5-10% for 1-2 hours and may serve as part of a general weight-loss program
A) Dietary supplements are not necessarily tested for safety or effectiveness
Which of the following is NOT a sensible guideline for diet plans? A) Consume low-fat foods regularly B) Eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food C) Adjust energy intake downward as weight loss progresses D) Include vegetables, fruits, and grains as the mainstay of the diet
B) Eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food
The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best achieved by diets rich in A) long-chain fats only. B) short-chain fats only. C) simple carbohydrates. D) complex carbohydrates.
D) complex carbohydrates.
Which of the following describes a connection between physical activity and energy expenditure? A) Walking a mile uses about the same energy as running a mile B) Walking a mile uses about half as much energy as running a mile C) Exercising the leg muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the thighs and hips D) Exercising the abdominal muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the abdomen
A) Walking a mile uses about the same energy as running a mile
What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout? A) The feeling of thirst overpowers the desire for food B) The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin C) Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood D) The senses of smell and taste are suppressed for at least one hour
C) Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the effect of food accessibility on food intake? A) Keeping food out of sight is an effective way to eat less B) People underestimate the amount of a snack eaten when it is a short distance away C) People eat more of a snack when it is on their desk than when situated only 6 feet away D) People at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers
D) People at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers
Approximately what percentage of overweight people in the United States have NOT been successful at maintaining >10% weight loss for >1 year? A) 5 B) 25 C) 55 D) 85
Which of the following is generally NOT a strategy associated with successful weight loss efforts? A) Eating breakfast B) Weighing yourself infrequently C) Consulting a support person or group D) Limiting television viewing time to <10 hrs/week
B) Weighing yourself infrequently
Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, because A) they dictate the correct distribution of energy among the macronutrients. B) they prevent rapid spikes and declines in one's blood glucose level. C) they don't require people to count kcal, and are thus easier to stick to. D) they are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.
D) they are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.
n an adult who gains 20 pounds of excess body weight, about how much of this is lean tissue? A) 0 lbs B) 2 lbs C) 5 lbs D) 10 lbs
C) 5 lbs
Which of the following represents an indirect measure of the amount of energy released from food? A) The increase in heat given off when the food is burned B) Quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned C) Quantity of carbon dioxide consumed when the food is burned D) The increase in heat retained by the food when it is slowly brought to 100° C
B) Quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned
The desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake after consuming a very large meal is an example of behavior known as A) satiety. B) hunger. C) appetite. D) pigging out.
A person who eats in response to arousal is most likely experiencing A) stress eating. B) sensory influences. C) physiological influences. D) postabsorptive influences.
A) stress eating.
What is the approximate value for the thermic effect of a 2500-kcalorie diet? A) 25 kcal B) 250 kcal C) 400 kcal D) 500 kcal
B) 250 kcal
If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has A) more body fat. B) stronger bones. C) stronger muscles. D) more muscle mass.
D) more muscle mass.
Waist circumference can best be used to assess A) BMI. B) total body water. C) abdominal fat stores. D) subcutaneous fat stores
C) abdominal fat stores.
8. A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed A) 24 inches. B) 28 inches. C) 35 inches. D) 42 inches.
C) 35 inches.
The major cause of insulin resistance is related to A) low-protein diets. B) high-protein diets. C) excess body weight. D) prolonged excess carbohydrate intake.
C) excess body weight.
What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating? A) Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder B) Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa C) More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders D) Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa
A) Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder
Which of the following is known to promote fat storage in adipocytes? A) Glucagon B) Lipoprotein lipase C) Cellulite synthetase D) Lipoprotein synthetase
B) Lipoprotein lipase
Which of the following is a feature of ghrelin? A) It is a metabolic antagonist of leptin B) It stimulates appetite and energy storage C) The blood level in the fasting state correlates directly with body weight D) It is released in high amounts from adipocytes during periods of excess energy intake
B) It stimulates appetite and energy storage
Which of the following is a characteristic of the body's major types of adipose tissue? A) Very little brown fat is found in adults, whereas more is seen in infants B) White adipose is especially important in infants as a moderator of temperature extremes C) The uncoupled reactions in brown and white adipose are the result of LPL-induced hydrolysis of ATP D) Among the three types of adipose, namely, white, yellow, and brown, the white adipocytes account for the greatest amount of heat expenditure
A) Very little brown fat is found in adults, whereas more is seen in infants
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that meet the conditions for surgical intervention for weight loss in obese people? A) BMI of at least 40 B) Absence of psychological problems C) Ability to tolerate phendimetrazine, orlistat, or phentermine D) Failure of diet and exercise to promote acceptable weight loss
C) Ability to tolerate phendimetrazine, orlistat, or phentermine
As a general rule, what minimum number of kcalories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in men? A) 500 B) 800 C) 1200 D) 1600
What is the best approach to weight loss? A) Avoid foods containing carbohydrates B) Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake C) Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss D) Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
D) Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to A) feel guilty after you overeat. B) keep a record of your eating habits. C) always clean your plate when you eat. D) have someone watch you to prevent overeating.
B) keep a record of your eating habits.
Approximately what percentage of overweight people who intentionally lose weight are able to maintain at least a 10% weight loss for at least one year? A) 5 B) 17 C) 50 D) 85
All of the following are meal-planning strategies for underweight people who desire to gain weight EXCEPT A) they should eat at least 3 healthy meals daily. B) they should eat meaty appetizers rather than salads. C) they should refrain from between-meal snacking, especially energy drinks. D) they should increase the amount of food consumed within the first 20 minutes of a meal.
C) they should refrain from between-meal snacking, especially energy drinks
The amount of energy that the body derives from foods is known as the A) basal metabolism. B) food combustion value. C) bomb calorimetry value. D) physiological fuel value.
D) physiological fuel value.
Which of the following is a feature of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) Fever decreases the BMR B) Fasting increases the BMR C) Pregnancy increases the BMR D) Females have a higher BMR than males on a body weight basis
C) Pregnancy increases the BMR
An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called A) body mass index. B) height to weight index. C) ideal body weight index. D) desirable body weight index
A) body mass index.
Which of the following is a significant factor associated with interpretation of body composition values? A) The values include fat and protein but not water B) It is rare that sedentary, normal-weight people are overfat C) It is possible that muscular people may be classified as overweight D) Body composition can be accurately assessed by measuring body weight
C) It is possible that muscular people may be classified as overweight
What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women? A) 9-17% B) 23-34% C) 33-37% D) 38-44%
Which of the following is a characteristic of excess intra-abdominal fat? A) It is more common in women than men B) It has been proven to be a poorer indicator of degenerative diseases than the BMI C) Some (but not all) research suggests that it is more harmful than fat in other locations D) It is associated with increased risk for heart disease and diabetes in men but not in women
C) Some (but not all) research suggests that it is more harmful than fat in other locations
Which of the following is a characteristic associated with using weight measures to assess risk of disease? A) They are expensive to perform B) They are complicated to perform C) They are able to quantitate total body fat D) They cannot reveal fat distribution and central obesity
D) They cannot reveal fat distribution and central obesity
All of the following are features of the health risks associated with excessive body fat EXCEPT A) obesity is classified as a disease. B) obese women have elevated levels of estrogen. C) the risks are higher in black women than in white women. D) people with a BMI higher than 35 have a high risk of dying prematurely.
C) the risks are higher in black women than in white women.
Which of the following describes an association between body weight and mortality? A) Obesity is the fourth leading cause of premature death B) Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men C) Normal-weight men who are physically unfit have a similar mortality risk versus normal-weight fit men D) The amount of weight gain in adulthood that is not associated with increased mortality is 20 pounds or less
B) Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men
Which of the following describes a trend of worldwide obesity? A) Nowadays, obesity is not seen in developing countries B) Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years in the U.S. C) The cut-off figure of the BMI for obesity varies from country to country D) The obesity in other countries does not seem to increase risks for chronic diseases
B) Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years in the U.S.
What is Prader-Willi syndrome? A) Altered receptor activity for leptin B) A genetic disorder resulting in obesity C) Fat accumulation in the liver of gastric bypass patients D) A failure to adapt to alternating periods of excess and inadequate energy intake
B) A genetic disorder resulting in obesity
Which of the following describes a relationship between leptin and energy balance? A) Fat cell sensitivity to leptin is higher in obese people B) A deficiency of leptin is characteristic of all obese people C) Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat D) Major functions of leptin include an increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate
C) Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat
To help prevent body fat gain, the DRI suggests daily, moderately intense, physical activities totaling A) 20 minutes. B) 60 minutes. C) 1 1/2 hours. D) 3 hours.
B) 60 minutes.
Which of the following is a feature of prescription drug use for treatment of obesity? A) Most drugs may be safely prescribed even in otherwise healthy obese people B) Most experts believe that drugs should not be used because obesity is not a disease C) Most currently available drugs are highly effective in both the short and long term D) The use of "off-label" drugs is common to take advantage of their modest weight loss effects
D) The use of "off-label" drugs is common to take advantage of their modest weight loss effects
The prescription drug phentermine acts by regulating the utilization of A) blood insulin. B) norepinephrine. C) hormone-sensitive lipase. D) adipocyte lipoprotein lipase.
Approximately how many kcalories per week should be expended in physical activity in order to maintain a weight loss? A) 2000 B) 4000 C) 6000 D) 9000
Which of the following is NOT an association between the environment and food intake? A) Distractions generally appear to reduce food intake B) The greater the number of foods at a meal, the more likely people will overeat C) The mere sight or smell of food prompts people to commence eating even if they are not hungry D) Small portions of food on large plates lead people to underestimate the amount of food eaten
A) Distractions generally appear to reduce food intake
To qualify for successful weight-loss maintenance, a 200-pound person who intentionally lost 20 lbs must hold the loss for at least A) 3 months. B) 6 months. C) 1 year. D) 2 years.
C) 1 year.
Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect its content of A) folate. B) thiamin. C) vitamin A. D) riboflavin.
C) vitamin A.
Which of the following is indicative of a dietary deficiency of riboflavin? A) Beriberi B) Diarrhea C) Keratomalacia D) Inflamed mouth membranes
D) Inflamed mouth membranes
Which of the following vitamins is synthesized in significant amounts by intestinal bacteria? A) Folate B) Biotin C) Cyanocobalamin D) Pantothenic acid
What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency? A) Inadequate intake B) Increased excretion C) Inadequate absorption D) Increased losses in food preparation
C) Inadequate absorption
Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of A) folate. B) selenium. C) vitamin B12. D) iron and copper.
C) vitamin B12.
Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian? A) Milk B) Eggs C) Broccoli D) Whole-grain bread
A vitamin supplement labeled as "high potency" contains an amount that is A) 50% of the Daily Value. B) equal to the UL. C) up to 200% of the Daily Value. D) 100% or more of the Daily Value.
D) 100% or more of the Daily Value.
As far as is known, vitamin A does not play an important role in which of the following processes? A) Blood clotting B) Growth of bones and teeth C) Synthesis of visual pigment D) Maintaining mucous membranes
A) Blood clotting
What form of vitamin A supports reproduction but not growth? A) Retinal B) Retinol C) Retinoic acid D) Retinyl esters
Keratinization is the result of A) toxicity of vitamin A. B) toxicity of vitamin D. C) deficiency of vitamin A. D) deficiency of vitamin D.
C) deficiency of vitamin A
The preferred unit of expression of vitamin A is the A) milligram. B) global unit. C) international unit. D) retinol activity equivalent.
D) retinol activity equivalent.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice? A) Bone pain B) Dermatitis C) Skin yellowing D) Vitamin A toxicity
C) Skin yellowing
Which of the following is a characteristic of carotenoids in foods? A) They are found in many vegetables and fruits B) Most carotenoids can be converted to vitamin A C) Carotenoid absorption is inhibited by foods rich in chlorophyll D) The carotenoid with the highest conversion rate to vitamin A is lycopene
A) They are found in many vegetables and fruits
Which of the following is NOT a major target organ for the action of activated vitamin D? A) Liver B) Bone C) Kidney D) Intestine
Which of the following conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a deficiency of the same nutrient? A) Osteomalacia and rickets B) Xerophthalmia and breath pentane release C) Kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease D) Hemolytic anemia and large-cell type anemia
A) Osteomalacia and rickets
What is the adult AI for vitamin K? A) 45-60 µg B) 90-120 µg C) 150-300 µg D) 500-550 µg
B) 90-120 µg
Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin C and vitamin E? A) Both protect against LDL oxidation B) Neither reduces arterial inflammation C) Neither participates in regulating blood clotting D) Both act as prooxidants at physiological intakes
A) Both protect against LDL oxidation
Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin? A) Blood coagulation B) Formation of red blood cells C) Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients D) Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides
C) Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients
Which of the following substances is found in corn and contributes to the development of pellagra? A) Avidin B) Leucine C) Phytates D) Phenylalanine
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin B6? A) 100 mg/day B) 500 mg/day C) 1000 mg/day D) 10,000 mg/day
A) 100 mg/day
Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of vitamin A) B1. B) B2. C) B6. D) B12.
In what major way does alcohol intake affect vitamin B6 metabolism? A) It reduces acetaldehyde formation B) It increases fecal excretion of the vitamin C) It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme D) It interferes with synthesis of the PLP coenzyme
C) It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme
Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate? A) Hemolysis B) Hypoxemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Macrocytic anemia
D) Macrocytic anemia
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition? A) Deficiencies lead to "wet" beriberi B) Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function C) Excess intake leads to loss of appetite and constipation D) Severe deficiency is characterized chiefly by free-radical damage
B) Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function
What do beta-carotene and vitamin E have in common? A) Both act as antioxidants B) Both are found in animal fats C) Neither is involved in free radical control D) Neither is involved in synthesis of retinal
A) Both act as antioxidants
Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night blindness. Which of the following foods should she recommend be incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations from developing this condition? A) Sweet potato B) Orange juice C) Peanut butter D) Powdered skim milk
A) Sweet potato
Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A? A) Corn B) Pumpkin pie C) Baked potato D) Whole-grain bread
B) Pumpkin pie
In what tissue(s) must a molecule of vitamin D be chemically altered to yield a compound that is fully active? A) Liver only B) Kidney only C) Liver and kidney D) Liver and intestines
C) Liver and kidney
What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D? A) Promotes secretion of calcitonin B) Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol C) Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone
D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone
In what system would the effects of a vitamin D deficiency be most readily observed? A) Nervous B) Skeletal C) Muscular D) Circulatory
Your old friend from high school has just moved to Northern Canada to do full-time research on bats in caves. She typically works in the caves during the day when the bats are there and leaves at sundown when the bats are active. Since your friend only purchases organic and all-natural foods, which of the following would you most likely advise she buy regularly at the grocery store? A) Whole-grain bread B) Vitamin D-fortified milk C) Vitamin A-fortified carrot juice D) Omega-3 fatty acid-fortified milk
B) Vitamin D-fortified milk
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K? A) It participates in synthesis of bone proteins B) Large amounts can be stored in adipose tissue C) Good food sources are legumes and raw fruits D) Intestinal bacterial synthesis provides over 90% of the body's need for most people
A) It participates in synthesis of bone proteins
All of the following are features of vitamin K in nutrition EXCEPT A) infants frequently require a supplement at birth. B) good food sources are plants of the cabbage family. C) risk of deficiency is increased in people taking antibiotics for prolonged periods. D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs of most healthy adults.
D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs of most healthy adults.
Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin? A) Thiaminacide B) Thiamin pyrophosphate C) Thiamin adenine dinucleotide D) Thiamin flavin mononucleotide
B) Thiamin pyrophosphate
Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition? A) The coenzyme contains pyrosulfate B) It is required for regeneration of folate C) It is required for regeneration of niacin D) It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane
D) It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane
The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include A) confusion and depression. B) muscle cramps and stiffness. C) profound fatigue and anemia. D) hyperactivity and shortness of breath.
A) confusion and depression.
On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B6? A) Meats B) Fruits C) Legumes D) Grains
Approximately what percentage of naturally occurring dietary folate is bioavailable? A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 80
Methylcobalamin is a coenzyme form of A) vitamin B1. B) vitamin B6. C) vitamin B12. D) niacin.
C) vitamin B12.
The synthesis of collagen requires both vitamin C and A) iron. B) zinc. C) cobalamin. D) beta-carotene.
What organ stores the highest concentration of vitamin C? A) Liver B) Muscle C) Thyroid gland D) Adrenal glands
D) Adrenal glands
Which of the following symptoms is indicative of a deficiency of vitamin C? A) Hair loss B) Muscle spasms C) Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis D) Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages
D) Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages
Approximately what percentage of the body's vitamin A stores are found in the liver? A) 20 B) 50 C) 70 D) 90
Which of the following features are shared by Retin-A and Accutane? A) They are teratogenic B) They are highly toxic C) They are usually taken orally D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A
D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A
On average, one retinol activity equivalent is equal to about how many international units? A) 3 B) 5 C) 8 D) 10
What is the name of the vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults? A) Rickets B) Osteomalacia C) Keratomalacia D) Hyperkeratosis
What population group is at highest risk for osteomalacia? A) Infants B) Elderly men C) Adult women D) Children ages 2-12 years
C) Adult women
In comparison with the RDA for vitamin E, about how many fold higher is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level? A) 2 B) 10 C) 25 D) 65
Which of the following is a characteristic of free radicals? A) They are destroyed by cigarette smoking B) They arise from normal metabolic reactions C) They typically stop chain reactions associated with the production of peroxides D) They are known to accumulate even in the presence of abundant antioxidant nutrients
B) They arise from normal metabolic reactions
Which of the following is NOT a function of water in the body? A) Lubricant B) Source of energy C) Maintains protein structure D) Participant in chemical reactions
B) Source of energy
Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism? A) 100 B) 250 C) 500 D) 750
Which of the following is NOT among the factors that are effective in regulating the body's water balance? A) Adrenaline B) Aldosterone C) Angiotensin D) Antidiuretic hormone
What is the major intracellular anion? A) Protein B) Sodium C) Phosphate D) Bicarbonate
Which of the following is NOT among the properties of electrolytes? A) They attract water B) They are charged particles C) They can carry an electrical current D) They include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles
D) They include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles
Which of the following does NOT play an important role in acid-base balance? A) The liver B) The lungs C) The kidneys D) Blood buffers
A) The liver
Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity? A) They can induce dehydration B) They suppress the thirst mechanisms C) They may lead to complete kidney failure D) They reduce blood glucose concentration
A) They can induce dehydration
Which of the following is a feature of magnesium nutrition? A) The average body contains about 100 g B) Blood is a major reservoir of the mineral C) Deficiency is associated with hypertension D) Dietary intake data are the sum of the amounts from food and water
C) Deficiency is associated with hypertension
Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following EXCEPT A) obesity. B) female gender. C) moderate alcohol intake. D) having African American heritage.
B) female gender.
Among the following calcium supplements, which is most calcium-dense? A) Calcium citrate B) Calcium lactate C) Calcium carbonate D) Calcium gluconate
C) Calcium carbonate
Among the following, which does NOT contain the MFP factor? A) Tuna B) Spinach C) Hamburger D) Chicken leg
Which of the following characteristics is shared by iron and zinc? A) Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose B) Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to the pancreas C) Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to metallothionein for transport first to the liver D) Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes
D) Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes
Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed from a mixed diet? A) 10 B) 18 C) 33 D) 60
Which of the following is known as an iron-overload protein? A) Transferrin B) Hemosiderin C) Marrowferritin D) Metallothionein
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization? A) Most of the body's iron is recycled B) The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium C) Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods D) Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources
A) Most of the body's iron is recycled
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones? A) Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis B) Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells D) Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
Which of the following is a feature of iodine in nutrition? A) Excessive intakes shrink the thyroid gland B) Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt C) Iodization of salt is mandatory in the United States but not in Canada D) Worldwide, the prevalence of iodine deficiency and iodine toxicity are approximately the same
B) Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt
f cow's milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is the most likely explanation? A) Storage of milk in galvanized tanks B) Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils C) Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant D) Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
D) Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper? A) Chicken B) Shellfish C) Beefsteak D) Hamburger
Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals EXCEPT A) boron. B) silver. C) silicon. D) vanadium.
What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's physical performance? A) 1-2% B) 3-4% C) 5-9% D) 10-15%
Which of the following does NOT serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body? A) Sodium B) Chloride C) Calcium D) Potassium
Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day? A) Intake is higher B) Excretion is higher C) Intake and excretion are equal D) Excretion is unrelated to intake
C) Intake and excretion are equal
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet? A) Processed foods B) Unprocessed foods C) Natural salt content of foods D) Salt added during cooking and at the table
A) Processed foods
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health? A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition? A) It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium B) It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating sodium balance C) The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no effect on blood pressure D) The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism
D) The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism
Which of the following is NOT among the features of potassium in nutrition? A) Processed foods are a major source B) High intakes may protect against stroke C) Per serving size, bananas are a rich source D) Per serving size, legumes are a rich source
A) Processed foods are a major source
Antiresorptive drug treatments for osteoporosis work primarily by A) stimulating parathormone release. B) inhibiting kidney excretion of calcium. C) stimulating intestinal calcium absorption. D) inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells.
D) inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells.
Which of the following is characteristic of calcium nutrition in teenagers? A) The recommended intake is higher for girls than boys B) The recommended intake is 800-1,000 mg for this population group C) The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food D) The dietary intakes of calcium are similar for girls and boys of this population group
C) The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food
Among the following calcium supplements, which contains the lowest percentage of calcium? A) Calcium citrate B) Calcium lactate C) Calcium carbonate D) Calcium gluconate
D) Calcium gluconate
Taking into account the efficiency of intestinal absorption of iron, approximately how much dietary iron must be consumed to account for the iron lost by donating a pint of blood? A) 5 mg B) 15 mg C) 50 mg D) 100 mg
B) 15 mg
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior? A) Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected B) Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity C) Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis D) Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
C) Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron? A) 45 mg/day B) 90 mg/day C) 120 mg/day D) Twice the RDA
A) 45 mg/day
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing his or her consumption of A) milk. B) red meat. C) fresh fruits. D) yellow vegetables.
B) red meat.
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency? A) Excess zinc B) Excess protein C) Insufficient iodine D) Insufficient calcium
A) Excess zinc
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine? A) Iron B) Copper C) Iodine D) Magnesium
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods. B) overconsumption of other trace elements. C) overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances. D) pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone
A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet? A) Naturally occurring B) Food industry additives C) Excessive use of fortified salt D) Hydrogenation of certain minerals
A) Naturally occurring
What trace element is part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase? A) Iron B) Zinc C) Selenium D) Chromium
As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity? A) Renin B) Gastrin C) Insulin D) Antidiurectic hormone
Approximately how much water is contained in a loaf of bread? A) 2% of the loaf B) 5% of the loaf C) 20% of the loaf D) 35% of the loaf
D) 35% of the loaf
The approximate percentage of water in pizza is A) 5. B) 15. C) 30. D) 45.
How does antidiuretic hormone function? A) It activates renin B) It activates angiotension C) It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys D) It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
C) It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk? A) Rickets B) Arthritis C) Low blood pressure D) High blood pressure
D) High blood pressure
What is hydroxyapatite? A) Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis B) The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones C) A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone D) A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption
B) The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones
Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal blood calcium level? A) Diseases of the liver B) Diseases of the kidney C) Insufficient dietary intake D) Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone
C) Insufficient dietary intake
People in the United States who are meeting their recommended intake for calcium usually are A) taking calcium supplements. B) consuming liberal amounts of spinach. C) on prescription osteoporosis medications. D) low consumers of phytate-containing foods.
A) taking calcium supplements.
Which of the following is a function of trabecular bone? A) Synthesis of vitamin D B) Synthesis of calcitonin C) Storage site for calcium D) Storage site for vitamin D
C) Storage site for calcium
Estrogen therapy for osteoporosis is often rejected because it may increase risk for A) cancer. B) heart disease. C) hypertension. D) diverticulosis.
The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for osteoporosis is related to A) greater kidney retention of calcium. B) the presence of bioavailable calcium. C) more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation. D) the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals.
D) the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals.
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron? A) Ferritin B) Myoglobin C) Transferrin D) Hemoglobin
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal? A) It activates transferrin B) It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form C) It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach D) It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
B) It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
Low levels of blood hemoglobin most likely indicate a deficiency of A) zinc. B) iron. C) copper. D) manganese.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency? A) Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin levels decline as anemia worsens B) Iron supplements are not as effective at treating anemia as is proper nutrition C) People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves D) The concave nails of iron-deficiency anemia result from abnormal ferritin levels
C) People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves
What is the name given to the ingestion of nonnutritive substances? A) Pica B) Goiter C) Tetany D) Hemosiderosis
An enzyme that includes zinc or copper as an integral part of its structure is classified as a(n) A) metalloenzyme. B) oxidoreductase. C) cytochromidase. D) metallothionase.
What is a goitrogen? A) One of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland B) A substance that enhances absorption of dietary iodide C) A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland D) A compound used to supplement salt as a way to increase iodide intake
C) A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland
You have just been hired by the World Health Organization to promote nutrition education and policies in a small country in Asia, whose population has a high prevalence of goiter. Which of the following policies would be the best to implement with respect to iodine status, cost, and efficiency? A) Fortify the salt with iodine B) Promote free iodine supplements for all who want them C) Educate the population to avoid all goitrogens in their diet D) Educate the population to spend more time at the beach as seawater, sea mist, and seafood are sources of iodine
A) Fortify the salt with iodine
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for copper? A) 1 mg/day B) 2.5 mg/day C) 7.5 mg/day D) 10 mg/day
D) 10 mg/day
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of copper in nutrition? A) Deficiency is rare B) Legumes are a rich source C) Absorption from foods is poor D) Absorption is reduced by ingestion of zinc supplements
C) Absorption from foods is poor
Which of the following is generally NOT associated with a regular program of physical fitness? A) Reduced bone density B) Lower blood pressure C) Fall in resting pulse rate D) Diminished blood cholesterol
A) Reduced bone density
What may, in part, account for the reduced risk of gallbladder disease in people who engage in regular physical activity? A) Increased fiber intake B) Reduction of blood lipids C) Alteration of hormonal profile D) Reduction of dietary fat intake
B) Reduction of blood lipids
What is muscle atrophy? A) Loss of muscle size and strength B) Muscle cramps arising from insufficient warm-up C) Muscle spasms resulting from too-rapid progressive overloading D) Alterations in heart muscle contractions when first initiating a fitness program
A) Loss of muscle size and strength
The normal resting pulse rate (beats per minute) for adults is approximately A) 50. B) 70. C) 95. D) 140.
A person who suddenly begins sprinting will exhaust the muscles' supply of creatine phosphate in about A) 1 second. B) 10 seconds. C) 1 minute. D) 10 minutes.
B) 10 seconds.
What is the name of the biochemical pathway describing the conversion of lactate to glucose? A) Cori cycle B) Krebs cycle C) Beta-oxidation D) Reverse glycolysis
A) Cori cycle
How much time spent in vigorous activity is usually needed to deplete glycogen reserves? A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours
B) 2 hours
During the first 20 minutes of moderate exercise, the body uses about A) 50% of the available fat. B) 10% of the available water. C) 90% of the available protein. D) 20% of the available glycogen.
D) 20% of the available glycogen.
When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted? A) Water B) Protein C) Glucose D) Fatty acids
Carbohydrate loading involves the consumption of a high-carbohydrate diet plus A) no exercise. B) light exercise. C) intense exercise. D) moderate exercise.
D) moderate exercise.
Which of the following is a characteristic of glycogen synthesis after a bout of strenuous training? A) Glycogen synthesis is maximal beginning 2 hours after training B) Glycogen synthesis proceeds at an even pace over the next 24 hours C) Glycogen repletion is enhanced most by eating high-carbohydrate foods D) Glycogen repletion is enhanced most by eating low-carbohydrate foods
C) Glycogen repletion is enhanced most by eating high-carbohydrate foods
Which of the following is a property of conditioned muscles? A) They can store more glycogen B) They are more efficient at converting fat to glucose C) They contain fewer mitochondria due to increased glucose utilization D) They rely less on fat breakdown and more on glucose oxidation for energy
A) They can store more glycogen
Which of the following is a characteristic of protein use in physical activity? A) Protein use in endurance events is less than for strength events B) Protein use for energy is significant in anaerobic strength training C) Protein contributes up to 10% of total fuel used, which is similar to the resting state D) Protein contributes approximately the same amount to total energy use on high-carbohydrate or high-fat diets
C) Protein contributes up to 10% of total fuel used, which is similar to the resting state
According to several recognized health organizations, about how many grams of protein per day are recommended for a female, 50-kg marathon runner? A) 40-45 B) 50-64 C) 60-70 D) 120-154
What nutrient is important in the transport of oxygen in blood and in muscle tissue and in energy transformation reactions? A) Iron B) Calcium C) Thiamin D) Vitamin C
Which of the following is a feature of water metabolism during exercise? A) The maximum loss of fluid per hour of exercise is about 0.5 liters B) In cold weather, the need for water falls dramatically because the body does not sweat C) Sweat losses can exceed the capacity of the GI tract to absorb water, resulting in some degree of dehydration D) Heavy sweating leads to a marked rise in the thirst sensation to stimulate water intake, which delays the onset of dehydration
C) Sweat losses can exceed the capacity of the GI tract to absorb water, resulting in some degree of dehydration
What is the minimum amount of fluid that an athlete should drink for each pound of body weight lost during an activity? A) 1/4 liter B) 1/2 liter C) 1 liter D) 2 liters
B) 1/2 liter
Which of the following is a characteristic of sodium in athletes? A) There is a direct correlation between heat-induced cramps and the amount of sodium lost in the sweat B) Sports drinks that contain sodium polymers can more quickly replace sodium losses from severe sweating C) The sodium lost through heavy sweating can be easily replaced by consuming any of the common sports drinks D) Hyponatremia is more likely to develop when water intake during intense exercise in hot weather is withheld and salted snacks are consumed
A) There is a direct correlation between heat-induced cramps and the amount of sodium lost in the sweat
The optimal carbohydrate concentration of sports drinks for the endurance athlete is A) 1-2%. B) 5%. C) 6-8%. D) 15-20%.
Which of the following is the most significant rationale for eliminating alcohol intake in athletic performance? A) It is not metabolized in muscle B) It inhibits glycogen breakdown C) It inhibits creatine phosphate synthesis D) It interferes with ATP synthesis in the liver
A) It is not metabolized in muscle
Physical fitness may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least A) 10 minutes/day. B) 20 minutes/day. C) 3.5 hours/week. D) 5 hours/week.
C) 3.5 hours/week.
A person engaging in a vigorous level of physical activity would walk at a minimum pace of A) 1.5 mph. B) 3.2 mph. C) 4.6 mph. D) 7.5 mph.
C) 4.6 mph.
Which of the following would NOT be categorized as a strength fitness activity? A) Pilates B) Pull-ups C) Push-ups D) Kickboxing
Which of the following best exemplifies an activity that promotes flexibility? A) Yoga B) Pilates C) Weight lifting D) Jumping rope
Which of the following components of training define(s) the progressive overload principle? A) Intensity only B) Frequency only C) Frequency and flexibility only D) Intensity, frequency, and duration only
D) Intensity, frequency, and duration only
Athletes can safely add muscle tissue by A) tripling protein intake. B) taking hormones duplicating those of puberty. C) putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder. D) relying on protein for muscle fuel and decreasing intake of carbohydrates.
C) putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder.
For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least A) 20 minutes. B) 40 minutes. C) 1 hour. D) 2 hours.
A) 20 minutes.
Which of the following is a feature of lactate production during physical activity? A) It is not a cause of muscle fatigue B) It may be rapidly converted to fatty acids by the liver C) It is produced in high quantities when ketone levels rise D) It accumulates in muscle at low levels of physical activity and is cleared rapidly at high levels of activity
A) It is not a cause of muscle fatigue
For optimal performance of endurance athletes, sports nutritionists recommend approximately how much dietary fat energy? A) 5-10% B) 10-15% C) 20-35% D) 35-45%
Which of the following is an effect of exercise on protein metabolism? A) Protein synthesis is inhibited during exercise B) Protein use as a fuel is lowest in endurance athletes C) Protein use during physical performance is generally not related to carbohydrate content of the diet D) Protein synthesis is increased slightly during exercise but thereafter diminishes by a like amount to remain in balance
A) Protein synthesis is inhibited during exercise
Which of the following is NOT known to modify the body's use of protein? A) Diet B) The degree of training C) Exercise intensity and duration D) Vitamin supplements above the RDA
D) Vitamin supplements above the RDA
Your friend Bob, who engages in endurance exercise throughout the week, is concerned that his protein intake is inadequate and asks what type of protein supplement he should take. You assure him that A) all high-quality protein drinks are equivalent despite the price differences. B) the extra protein he needs should be high-quality lean sources of poultry and fish. C) he most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity. D) no sports authority organizations recommend protein intakes greater than the RDA for endurance athletes.
C) he most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity.
A person engaged in physically active work in hot, humid weather and who wears a rubber suit to promote weight loss is at high risk of experiencing A) ketosis. B) heat stroke. C) hypothermia. D) overhydration.
B) heat stroke.
Hyponatremia refers to low blood levels of A) water. B) sodium. C) glucose. D) potassium.
he recommended amount of dietary carbohydrate (g/kg body weight) for an athlete training for a marathon is approximately A) 2. B) 4. C) 8. D) 12.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of caffeine use in physical activity? A) It slows depletion of muscle glycogen B) It often induces stomach upset and diarrhea C) It acts as a physiological and psychological stimulant D) It is permitted in moderation by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)
A) It slows depletion of muscle glycogen
Which of the following is a feature of caffeine use in physical activity? A) Caffeine is widely abused by endurance athletes because it cannot be detected by blood or urine tests B) Caffeine enhances performance by stimulating glycogen breakdown and increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells C) College and national competitions prohibit the use of caffeine in amounts greater than that present in 5 cups of coffee when consumed within a few hours before testing D) The usual side effects of caffeine use such as irritability, headaches, and diarrhea are delayed or diminished in endurance athletes because of their high metabolic rates during competition
C) College and national competitions prohibit the use of caffeine in amounts greater than that present in 5 cups of coffee when consumed within a few hours before testing
In weight training, muscle endurance can best be emphasized by performing a A) low number of repetitions with heavy weight. B) low number of repetitions with lighter weight. C) high number of repetitions with heavy weight. D) high number of repetitions with lighter weight.
D) high number of repetitions with lighter weight.
What is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise? A) Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only B) Released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells C) Released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen as needed D) Utilized to support lung and heart function under conditions of intense physical performance
A) Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only
Which of the following diets promotes superior physical performance in athletes? A) High-fat diet B) High-protein diet C) High-carbohydrate diet D) Normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements
C) High-carbohydrate diet
Which of the following is a sure sign that muscles are using their maximum amount of energy from fat? A) Breathing is easy B) Training regimen is optimal C) Balanced diets were ingested D) High-glycemic index foods were ingested
A) Breathing is easy
In the immediate postexercise period, what type of diet enhances muscle protein synthesis? A) Fat alone B) Carbohydrate alone C) Carbohydrate plus fat D) Carbohydrate plus protein
D) Carbohydrate plus protein
Which of the following is NOT known to modify the body's use of protein? A) Diet B) The degree of training C) Exercise intensity and duration D) Vitamin supplements above the RDA
D) Vitamin supplements above the RDA
Which of the following is NOT a feature of vitamin E in people who engage in regular high-intensity physical activity? A) Some studies show that vitamin E supplements increase exercise-induced oxidative stress B) Supplements of vitamin E interfere with protective adaptations to free-radical formation C) Some studies find that vitamin E supplements protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress D) The benefits of vitamin E supplements on performance occur from immediate intake right before the event
D) The benefits of vitamin E supplements on performance occur from immediate intake right before the event
Mary is 15 years old and has just joined her high school swim team. After the first three months of training and competing, her coach sends the team for mandatory physical examinations and routine blood tests. When Mary got home, she told her mom that she has sports anemia. Why shouldn't Mary begin taking iron supplements as a way to treat this condition? A) The anemia is not correctible by extra iron intake B) The anemia is most likely the result of folate deficiency C) The iron will interfere with creatine phosphate synthesis D) The iron will not be absorbed well because of the intense work-outs
A) The anemia is not correctible by extra iron intake
A person engaged in an endurance event has lost two liters of body water by sweating. What would be the approximate energy loss from the evaporation of the sweat? A) 100 kcal B) 500 kcal C) 850 kcal D) 1200 kcal
D) 1200 kcal
In training to run in your state marathon this summer, you want to determine how much fluid to drink during training sessions. Your weight at the beginning of every training session is 150 pounds. At the end of every training session you weigh 146 pounds. How many cups of fluid are necessary replenish these losses? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
Which of the following is a feature of enhanced waters for physical activity? A) The oxygenated types are beneficial in endurance events B) They provide a source of lactate to stimulate the Cori cycle C) One serving provides about a third of the RDA for most vitamins and calcium D) They usually contain less carbohydrate and electrolytes than typical sports drinks
D) They usually contain less carbohydrate and electrolytes than typical sports drinks
Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes? A) Salt tablets B) Protein powders C) Nutrient-dense foods D) Vitamin and mineral supplements
C) Nutrient-dense foods
Results of research studying carnitine supplementation as an ergogenic aid showed that it A) does not seem to increase fat oxidation. B) enhanced carbohydrate oxidation rate but not fat oxidation. C) raised muscle carnitine concentration but did not improve performance. D) promoted retention of amino acids but did not lead to increased muscle mass.
A) does not seem to increase fat oxidation.
Which of the following is a feature of androstenedione use in athletes? A) It is a dangerous alternative to anabolic steroid use. B) It is synthesized in the body by the thyroid gland. C) It leads to testicular enlargement and liver atrophy. D) It reduces free radical formation and slows the aging process but does not enhance performance.
A) It is a dangerous alternative to anabolic steroid use.
What percentage of cells of the body are white blood cells? A) 0.01 B) 0.1 C) 1 D) 10
Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by A) T-cells. B) B-cells. C) antigens. D) phagocytes.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) synergisms. D) immunoglobulins.
Which of the following is NOT among the common cell types that make up the immune system? A) P-cells B) B-cells C) T-cells D) Phagocytes
What is the term given to the accumulation of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develops in the artery walls? A) Plaques B) Angina streaks C) Arterial thickening D) Pre-thromboemboli
What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women? A) Diabetes B) Lung cancer C) Breast cancer D) Coronary heart disease
D) Coronary heart disease
Which of the following is NOT among the risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change? A) Inactivity B) Smoking C) Heredity D) Hypertension
Approximately what percentage of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? A) 10 B) 33 C) 65 D) 100
What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? A) Blood pressure B) LDL-cholesterol C) HDL-cholesterol D) Trans-fatty acid intake
A) Blood pressure
Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of A) the ventricles in the atria. B) blood flow in the arterioles. C) the carotid arterial flow in the brain. D) blood flow in the portal venous system.
B) blood flow in the arterioles.
Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? A) Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25 B) Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive C) Three to 4 alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension D) African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others
D) African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others
What happens to the risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure of 120/90? A) It is halved B) It is doubled C) It is unchanged D) It is reduced by 25%
B) It is doubled
Which of the following statements describes a risk factor for high blood pressure? A) Three alcohol drinks per day increases the risk for developing high blood pressure B) Most people are genetically sensitive to sodium and will develop high blood pressure from excess salt intake C) Ninety-five percent of people under 50 years of age with high blood pressure respond favorably to low salt intake D) Ninety-five percent of people with high blood pressure who restrict salt intake show a significant decrease in blood pressur
A) Three alcohol drinks per day increases the risk for developing high blood pressur
Among the following lifestyle changes, which is least effective at reducing blood pressure? A) Adopting the DASH eating plan B) Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks C) Reducing body weight to achieve a BMI of less than 25 D) Performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week
B) Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? A) Hyperglycemia B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus D) Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? A) Hypoglycemia B) Atherosclerosis C) Type 1 diabetes D) Type 2 diabetes
D) Type 2 diabetes
Which of the following is NOT among the adverse effects of diabetes? A) Impaired vision B) Impaired circulation C) Increased resistance to infections D) Increased loss of water via the urine
C) Increased resistance to infections
Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens? A) Milk B) Fiber C) Omega-3 fats D) Refined starches
Which of the following foods is known to contain abundant amounts of phytonutrients that protect against cancers of the esophagus and endometrium? A) Fermented dairy foods B) Cruciferous vegetables C) Allium-rich vegetables D) Lycopene-rich vegetables
B) Cruciferous vegetables
Why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine? A) It is not taught in medical schools B) Insurance companies refuse to cover it C) Safety and effectiveness are not well established D) It is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists
C) Safety and effectiveness are not well established
Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does NOT bear a relationship to diet? A) Cancer B) Heart disease C) Diabetes mellitus D) Pneumonia and influenza
D) Pneumonia and influenza
Beverly is a 48-year-old woman with a strong family history of atherosclerosis. She eats a diet high in fat, smokes, and doesn't exercise much because she typically works 12-hour days. Beverly visits her doctor because she has recently been having chest pains. Her doctor suspects she is at risk for a heart attack. Which of the following would be the most definitive predictor of this suspicion? A) Platelet count B) C-reactive protein concentrations C) LDL cholesterol serum concentrations D) HDL cholesterol serum concentrations
B) C-reactive protein concentrations
In the development of plaque, what is thought to be responsible for oxidation of LDL cholesterol during the inflammatory phase? A) Free radicals B) Beta-blockers C) P-reactive protein (PRP) D) Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A
A) Free radicals
Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial plaque? A) Size of the plaque is not as important as composition B) Stabilization of the plaque occurs with moderate intake of alcohol C) The amount of C-reactive protein in the plaque is a marker for high risk D) The rough surface of plaques promotes neutrophil aggregation and antigen formation
A) Size of the plaque is not as important as composition
Which of the following is NOT among markers for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A) CRP B) Ephedra C) Lp-PLA (2) D) LDL cholesterol
Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt? A) 5-10 B) 15-25 C) 30-50 D) 100
Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? A) The person reacted emotionally to the procedure B) Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings C) The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm D) The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm
A) The person reacted emotionally to the procedure
Peripheral resistance of blood flow is calculated as A) heart rate divided by pulse rate. B) cardiac output times blood pressure. C) ejection volume times stroke volume. D) blood pressure divided by cardiac output.
D) blood pressure divided by cardiac output.
Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? A) People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive B) Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups C) People over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive D) Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure
D) Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure
A cancer that originates from bone is a(n) A) sarcoma. B) carcinoma. C) osteocarcinoma. D) hematopoietic neoplasm.
What term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer? A) Benign tumor B) Promoting tumor C) Malignant tumor D) Premalignant tumor
A) Benign tumor
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in the least formation of carcinogens? A) Frying B) Grilling C) Broiling D) Marinating before cooking
D) Marinating before cooking
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? A) Broiling B) Roasting C) Marinating before cooking D) Wrapping the food in foil when cooking
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease? A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases B) Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases C) Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood D) Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases
Chelation therapy is purported to work by ridding the body of A) tumor cells. B) toxic metals. C) organic toxins. D) excess fat-soluble vitamins.
B) toxic metals
Naturally occurring salicylates in curry, paprika, and certain teas provide the same protective effects as low-dose A) statins. B) aspirin. C) insulin. D) diuretics
HIV is known to be transmitted by direct contact with contaminated body fluids from all of the following sources EXCEPT A) saliva. B) blood. C) semen. D) vaginal secretions.
Which of the following is a characteristic of HIV or AIDS? A) HIV but not AIDS is curable B) AIDS develops from HIV infection C) Optimal nutrition can prevent but not cure HIV D) Since the 1990s, the death rate from HIV and AIDS has increased markedly
B) AIDS develops from HIV infection
The most common form of cardiovascular disease is A) stroke. B) atheromatous disease. C) coronary heart disease. D) hypertensive aneurism.
C) coronary heart disease.
A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed A) angina. B) a stroke. C) a vascular event. D) metabolic syndrome.
B) a stroke.
Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? A) 110 over 50 B) 120 over 70 C) 130 over 80 D) 140 over 90
D) 140 over 90
Which of the following is NOT among the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome? A) Diuretic use B) Insulin resistance C) Abdominal obesity D) High blood triglyceride
A) Diuretic use
Which of the following is NOT among the direct contributors to the metabolic syndrome? A) Obesity B) Hypertension C) Insulin resistance D) High sodium intake
D) High sodium intake
Approximately what percentage of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? A) 10 B) 33 C) 65 D) 100
To lower a high blood cholesterol level, all of the following are recommended EXCEPT A) consume 2 servings/week of fish. B) consume 300 mg or less of cholesterol per day. C) lower the saturated fat intake to <7% total energy. D) decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy.
D) decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy.
Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to A) 1 drink for both women and men. B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men. C) 2 drinks for both women and men. D) 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.
B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
The DASH diet is actually the acronym for A) Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV. B) Diabetes and Sodium Hyperglycemia. C) Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension. D) Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias.
C) Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension
Which of the following is NOT among the symptoms of diabetes? A) Polyuria B) Polydipsia C) Polyphagia D) Polysaccharidosis
Which of the following statements represents current thought regarding the development of cancer? A) Dietary fat appears to be protective against many types of cancer B) Food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer C) Food contaminants play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer D) Dietary protein from animal sources appears to be protective against many types of cancer
B) Food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer
In a 200-lb person with type 2 diabetes and a BMI of 28, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure? A) 10-20 B) 40-50 C) 75-100 D) More than 100
What connects the umbilical cord to the fetus? A) Uterus B) Placenta C) Caesareas D) Belly button
D) Belly button
Among the following, which is NOT known to represent a significant risk factor for a pregnancy being affected by a neural tube defect? A) Maternal obesity B) Age at time of pregnancy C) Folate-related enzyme mutations D) Exposure to a hot-tub during pregnancy
B) Age at time of pregnancy
Since repeated pregnancies occurring within short time frames lead to depletion of the mother's nutrient reserves, what is the optimal interval between pregnancies? A) 1/2 year B) 1 year C) 1 1/2-2 years D) 3-4 years
C) 1 1/2-2 years
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of preeclampsia? A) Edema B) Glucose intolerance C) Proteinuria D) High blood pressure
B) Glucose intolerance
What is the benefit of postpartum amenorrhea? A) It stimulates milk production B) It conserves iron in the mother C) It stimulates the let-down reflex D) It stimulates the suckling reflex in the infant
B) It conserves iron in the mother
Which of the following is NOT a feature of children born with alcohol-related complications? A) The children often go undiagnosed B) The children often show growth retardation C) Few of the children show problem behaviors D) All children born with these complications show marked outward signs
D) All children born with these complications show marked outward signs
Which of the following is a feature of hypertension in pregnancy? A) Chronic hypertension increases risk for stillbirth B) Chronic hypertension often leads to macrosomia C) Gestational hypertension usually develops in the first trimester D) Gestational hypertension is most common in women who had normal blood pressure before pregnancy
A) Chronic hypertension increases risk for stillbirth
What would be a normal body weight after 1 year for a healthy infant with a birthweight of 8 lbs? A) 12 lbs B) 16 lbs C) 24 lbs D) 35 lbs
C) 24 lbs
What is the relative weight of an infant brain compared to an adult's brain? A) Half as much B) About the same C) Three times as much D) Six times as much
D) Six times as much
Which of the following is a feature of infant development and nutrition? A) It is generally easier to overfeed a breast-fed infant than a formula-fed infant B) Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections C) Breast-fed infants are at high risk of iron deficiency for the first 6 months of life D) For optimal development, infants should be transitioned to formula after one year of breast-feeding
B) Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections
What term defines the condition of infant tooth deterioration resulting from chronic exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle? A) Juice bottle erosion B) Suckling enamelosis C) Formula-induced gingivitis D) Nursing bottle tooth decay
D) Nursing bottle tooth deca
Which of the following is the most likely reason that teachers promote the consumption of midmorning snacks for children? A) It provides an opportunity to learn about nutrition B) It meets federally mandated school nutrition guidelines C) It provides carbohydrate for maintenance of blood glucose and brain function D) It helps decrease the symptoms of attention-deficit-hyperactivity disorder in 5% of school-age children
C) It provides carbohydrate for maintenance of blood glucose and brain function
What is thought to account, in part, for the rise in the prevalence of peanut allergy? A) Excess sodium consumed as part of the peanuts B) Roasting peanuts at very high temperatures makes them more allergenic C) Impaired digestion/absorption resulting from elevated leptin and adiponectin levels D) Increased inflammation of the immune system due to altered ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids
B) Roasting peanuts at very high temperatures makes them more allergenic
Which of the following foods are most often the cause of anaphylactic shock? A) Eggs, peanuts, and milk B) Bananas, juice, and cola C) Apples, noodles, and rice D) Pears, oatmeal, and chocolate
A) Eggs, peanuts, and milk
Which of the following is a finding from studies of diet restriction in rats? A) Restriction of specific nutrients exerted antiaging effects B) Energy-restricted diets led to life extension in 90% of the rats C) Energy-restricted diets led to lowering of the metabolic rate and body temperature D) Restriction of food intake only after rats reached maturity, but not before, resulted in extension of the life span
C) Energy-restricted diets led to lowering of the metabolic rate and body temperature
Which of the following describes the nutrient needs of older people? A) They vary according to individual histories B) They remain the same as in young adult life C) They increase; therefore, supplementation is required D) They decrease for vitamins and minerals due to changes in body composition
A) They vary according to individual histories
Which of the following is a feature of elderly people and water metabolism? A) They do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth B) They have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults C) They show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements D) They frequently show symptoms of overhydration such as mental lapses and disorientation
A) They do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth
Which of the following statements describes one aspect of mineral nutrition of older adults? A) Zinc intake is adequate for about 95% of this group B) Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity C) Calcium intakes of females are near the RDA for this group D) Calcium allowances for this group have recently been increased by the Committee on Dietary Reference Intakes
B) Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity
What is the main reason for dieting in the elderly? A) To economize when food prices increase B) To improve appearance among their peers C) To pursue a medical goal such as reducing blood glucose D) To reduce risks for development of atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia
C) To pursue a medical goal such as reducing blood glucose
Your father was recently prescribed an anticoagulant medicine and was surprised that the doctor advised him to maintain consumption of consistent amounts of green leafy vegetables every day. You inform your father that A) these vegetables significantly reduce absorption of the drug. B) these vegetables significantly increase absorption of the drug. C) variable intake of green leafy vegetables will affect activity of monoamine oxidase inhibitors. D) inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug.
D) inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug.
In the United States, what is the minimum daily amount of protein that should be consumed by a 135-pound woman during pregnancy? A) 49 g B) 74 g C) 108 g D) 135 g
B) 74 g
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of nonfood cravings during pregnancy? A) They are especially common in African-Americans B) They are often associated with iron-deficiency anemia C) They commonly include consumption of freezer frost and clay D) They are known to lead to premature delivery and to low-birth-weight infants
D) They are known to lead to premature delivery and to low-birth-weight infants
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of gestational diabetes? A) Asian ancestry is a risk factor B) Infant birthweights are typically low C) It usually develops during the second half of pregnancy D) The most common consequences include labor and delivery complications
B) Infant birthweights are typically low
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of preeclampsia? A) Edema B) Glucose intolerance C) Proteinuria D) High blood pressure
B) Glucose intolerance
With few exceptions, all of the following substances or practices should be totally eliminated during pregnancy EXCEPT A) cigarette smoking. B) weight-loss dieting. C) artificial sweeteners. D) alcohol consumption.
C) artificial sweeteners.
What fraction of all pregnant women in the United States are obese? A) 1/5 B) 1/4 C) 1/3 D) 1/2
Which of the following two nutrients are NOT needed in higher amounts in pregnancy? A) Choline and copper B) Biotin and potassium C) Vitamin D and calcium D) Pantothenic acid and molybdenum
C) Vitamin D and calcium
What is the typical weight gain (lbs) of an infant between the first and second year of life? A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
Which of the following is NOT among the features of infant formulas? A) They contain antibodies B) They breed bacteria in bottles left at room temperature C) They adhere to FDA standards for nutrient composition and safety D) They contain fat and carbohydrate at concentrations resembling those in breast milk
A) They contain antibodies
During the first year of life, cow's milk is considered an inappropriate food due to all of the following EXCEPT A) it is too low in iron. B) it is too low in sodium. C) it is too high in protein. D) it is too low in vitamin C.
B) it is too low in sodium
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of hyperactivity in children? A) It impairs learning ability B) The cause remains unknown C) It is managed, in part, by prescribing medications when necessary D) In many cases, it responds favorably to dietary manipulations such as limiting sugar intake
D) In many cases, it responds favorably to dietary manipulations such as limiting sugar intake
If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following should be avoided? A) Milk B) Diglycerides C) Peanut butter D) Textured vegetable protein
D) Textured vegetable protein
Which of the following is NOT among common food preferences in children? A) Hot foods are preferred to warm ones B) Smooth foods are preferred to lumpy ones C) Raw vegetables are preferred to cooked ones D) Green and yellow vegetables are often rejected
A) Hot foods are preferred to warm ones
Which of the following is a characteristic of the response to stress? A) Men often follow a pattern of "tend-and-befriend" B) Women usually engage in the "fight-or-flight" response C) Older men and women tend to lose their ability to adapt to stress D) Common psychological stressors in older people include alcohol abuse and smoking
C) Older men and women tend to lose their ability to adapt to stress
Approximately what percentage of a person's life expectancy is dependent upon his personal behavior? A) 0 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75
Which of the following is a feature of energy intake and longevity? A) Improvements in longevity with energy restriction depend on reducing energy intake but not on the amount of body fat B) Restriction of energy intake in genetically obese animals does not seem to improve longevity C) Biochemical markers for longevity in humans are improved only when energy intake is reduced by at least one-third D) The activities of the genes of older mice on energy-restricted diets are similar to those of mice on standard diets
A) Improvements in longevity with energy restriction depend on reducing energy intake but not on the amount of body fat
A person with dysphagia has A) no teeth. B) low immunity. C) difficulty swallowing. D) diminished muscle mass.
C) difficulty swallowing.
Which of the following is NOT among the features of the Meals on Wheels program? A) It is administered by volunteers B) It operates at least 5 days a week C) It provides the same social benefits as congregate meals D) The only qualification to receive benefits is achieving the age of 60 years
C) It provides the same social benefits as congregate meals
What is the average number of prescription medicines taken each year by people over 65 years? A) 3 B) 5 C) 13 D) 20
What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for an underweight woman? A) 15-25 B) 28-40 C) 42-50 D) 55-62
Which of the following describes a relationship between body weight and pregnancy? A) Overweight women bear the greatest number of low-birth-weight infants B) Weight gain during pregnancy is the sole determinant of fetus's weight at birth C) The increased incidence of neural tube defects of infants born to obese women is due primarily to folate insufficiency D) Underweight women who gain 30 lbs during pregnancy tend to birth smaller babies than heavier women who gain 30 lbs
D) Underweight women who gain 30 lbs during pregnancy tend to birth smaller babies than heavier women who gain 30 lbs
Examine the following menu for a pregnant woman. Breakfast • 2 scrambled eggs • 1 crushed wheat English muffin • 1 cup orange juice Lunch • 2 pieces (4 oz) fried chicken • 2 wheat rolls w/butter • 1/2 cup mashed potatoes and gravy • Iced tea Supper • 3 oz pork chop • 1 ear corn on the cob • Lettuce and tomato salad with 2 tbsp dressing • 1 slice bread According to the recommended food intake for pregnancy, which of the following food groups is the only one that is provided in sufficient amounts by this menu? A) Milk B) Protein foods C) Vegetables D) Grains
B) Protein foods
To help alleviate pregnancy-related nausea, all of the following actions are recommended EXCEPT A) eat dry toast or dry crackers. B) avoid milk when feeling nauseated. C) avoid orange juice when feeling nauseated. D) eat large, infrequent meals so as to limit contact time with food.
D) eat large, infrequent meals so as to limit contact time with food.
A craving for non-food substances is known as A) pica. B) bulimia. C) toxemia. D) hyperemesis.
Which of the following is a feature of heavy metal intake and pregnancy? A) Mercury, but not lead, can easily cross the placenta B) Lead and mercury both damage the fetal nervous system C) Pregnant women are advised to limit consumption of shark and swordfish to no more than once per week D) Pregnant women are advised to avoid shellfish around the critical period of brain development but may resume normal intake thereafter
B) Lead and mercury both damage the fetal nervous system
What percentage of pregnant women in the United States smoke? A) 1-2 B) 3-6 C) 7-10 D) 10-14
What type of formula is available for infants with milk allergy? A) Egg B) Soy C) Meat D) Peanut
What is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula? A) Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first B) Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water C) Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it D) To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead
C) Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it
Infants should not be given canned vegetables due to excessive amounts of A) tin. B) fiber. C) sodium. D) botulinum spores.
Foods containing sorbitol or other sugar alcohols should not be given to infants because they A) promote diarrhea. B) promote constipation. C) increase lead absorption. D) decrease iron absorption.
A) promote diarrhea.
Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children? A) Iron B) Protein C) Calcium D) Vitamin C
You have just started work as a summer camp counselor and completed a training session for all the new employees on safety. Counselors were instructed to prohibit campers from eating peanut butter and jelly sandwiches anywhere other than the cafeteria. You believe that the most likely explanation for this rule is to A) prevent food poisoning. B) help keep the facilities clean. C) minimize jelly exposure for campers with jelly allergies. D) minimize peanut exposure for campers with peanut allergies.
D) minimize peanut exposure for campers with peanut allergies.
Which of the following practices is NOT among the recommendations to help children develop an interest in vegetables? A) Serve vegetables warm, not hot B) Serve vegetables separately on the plate C) Serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy D) Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow
D) Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow
What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States? A) 21-30 years B) 35-50 years C) Over 65 years D) Over 85 years
D) Over 85 years
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of vitamin B12 nutrition in older people? A) The RDA is the same as for younger adults B) Older adults are advised to obtain most of their vitamin B12 from fortified foods and supplements C) Up to 30% of those over 50 years of age are at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency due to atrophic gastritis D) The DRI Committee recommends that older people increase their meat intake to provide adequate vitamin B12
D) The DRI Committee recommends that older people increase their meat intake to provide adequate vitamin B12
Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in the elderly? A) The DRI is 800-1000 mg B) Calcium intakes are well below recommendations C) Calcium supplements are not effective sources of calcium due to poor digestibility D) Calcium from food is not well absorbed due to the intake of calcium-binding laxatives
B) Calcium intakes are well below recommendations
Which of the following is a feature of food choices and eating habits of older people? A) The quality of life among older people has not improved since 1995 B) Older people spend less money on foods to eat at home than younger people C) People over 65 are less likely to diet to lose weight than are younger people D) Most older people think of themselves as generally unhappy and in poor health
C) People over 65 are less likely to diet to lose weight than are younger people
What fraction of all prescription drugs sold in the United States is taken by people over 65 years of age? A) 1/10 B) 1/5 C) 1/3 D) 1/2
Which of the following drugs has a chemical structure similar to folate? A) Tyramine B) Coumadin C) Tamoxifen D) Methotrexate