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Pathophysiology Unit One Study Questions

Pathophysiology Unit One Study Questions - Chapters 1, 4, 5
which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
signs and symptoms of a disease
the best definition of the term prognosis is the
predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
etiology is defined as the study of the
causes of a disease
hypertrophy of the heart would be related to
an increase in the size of the individual cells
a change in tissue marked by cells that very in shape and size and show increased myotic figures would be called
when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo
the term cancer refers to
malignant neoplasm
to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
per-programmed cell self-destruction
which of the following statements is true?
damaged cells may be able to repair themselves
caseation necrosis refers to an area where
dead cells form a thick cheesy substance
routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a preventative measure
a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
precipitating factor
what is an acute episode of a chronic disease called
an exacerbation
the term homeostasis refers to
maintenance of a stable internal environment
which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?
pathophysiology involves the study of
functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes
which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
hypoxia, exposure to excessive cold, excessive pressure on tissue, chemical toxins. 1, 2, 3, 4!
all of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health except:
participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis
the term disease refers to
a deviation from the normal state of health and function
the best definition of an ischemia is
a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction
all of the following statements are correct about cell damage except
initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function
which of the following conditions distinguishes double-blind studies used in health research?
neither the members of the control group or the experimental group, nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy
if the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
evidence based research
a short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called
the term prognosis refers to the
expected outcome of a disease
when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double-blind study may be conducted during
the third stage
why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
to develop preventative measures
cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
certain food additives
which of the following is usually included in medical history?
past illnesses or surgeries, current illnesses, acute and chronic, prescribed medication or other treatments, nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies, current allergies.
Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called
An anaerobe requires which specific environment?
The absence of oxygen
A bacterial endospore can
survive high temperatures and dry environment
The structure of a virus includes
a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
What method do viruses use to replicate?
Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
A retrovirus such as HIV contains
RNA and enzymes for its conversion
How do antiviral drugs act?
Reducing the rate of viral replication
Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
may cause opportunistic infections in the body
Fungi reproduce by
budding, extension of hyphae, production of spores. 1, 2, 4
Which of the following is not classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
Tinea pedis
Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by
cysts in feces
Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
Different species inhabit various areas of the body
Which area of the body is considered sterile?
The term nosocomial infection means
acquired in a hospital or medical facility
Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes
sexual intercourse
Opportunistic infection may develop when
a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body
What does a vaccine contain?
Attenuated or dead pathogens or their toxins
When do clinical signs of infection appear?
When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host
The principle of Universal Precautions is based on
assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection
The incubation period refers to the time period between
entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease
Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
Pain erythema, and swelling
What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.
How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
Interfering with cell-wall synthesis
The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is
inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium
What does leukocytosis frequently indicate
presence of bacterial infection
When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
Viral infection
Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
It causes a common STD
Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
It is an obligate intracellular parasite, It contains RNA, there are three subtypes - A, B, C. 1, 2, 4
Which of the following manifestations is usually present with influenza but not with the common cold?
generalized skeletal muscle aching, headache, marked fatigue
Prions are transmitted by blood and
ingestion of contaminated meat
Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses
Which of the following does not directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
Capacity for opportunism
Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:
increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because
capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.
When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a
What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
Cells appear relatively normal
Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
Degree of differentiation of the cells
A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include
obstruction of a tube or duct; cell necrosis and ulceration 1, 3
Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to
determine the best treatment and prognosis
The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with
an irreversible change in the cell DNA
What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
Radiation therapy destroys
primarily rapidly dividing cells
The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are
thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
reduce the adverse effects, be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 1, 3
Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed
Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker
colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen CEA
Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by
reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means
the patient is at high risk for infection
Malignant brain tumors
Spread to other parts of CNS
Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy
bone marrow depression
Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because
inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because
the gastrointestinal tract is irritated and the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. A, b
What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
Epithelial cells
Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which
signs and symptoms are absent
All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers except
they are difficult to diagnose and treat. Not true!
High risk factors for cancer include
all of the above. E.
The term apoptosis refers to
preprogrammed cell death
The warning signs for cancer include
all of the above are warning signs
A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:
are encapsulated and slow-growing
Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they
create excessive pressure within the skull