A&P 1 Final Review

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Terms in this set (...)

1. 1) Histology would be best defined as a study of________.
A) cells
B) tissues
C) cell chemistry
D) the gross structures of the body
B) tissues
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would
say it is __________ anatomy.
A) microscopic
B) gross
C) developmental
D) systemic
B) gross
) An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the
bloodstream would be best described as an example of ________.

A) maintaining boundaries
B) excretion of metabolic waste
C) responsiveness
D) metabolism
B) excretion of metabolic waste
) Normal body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.

A) 98
B) 68
C) 47
D) 37
D) 37
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis then the wall thermostat
would be the ________.

A) control center
B) receptor
C) effector
D) variable
A) control center
The main, general purpose of negative feedback is ________.

A) to control all body system tissues
B) to maintain homeostasis
C) to keep the bodyʹs sugar high
D) to regulate excretion
B) to maintain homeostasis
) ________ is the specific name for the hip region.

A) Manus
B) Inguinal
C) Pedal
D) Coxal
D) Coxal
) An oblique cut is one that ________.

A) is cut horizontal right and left

B) is cut diagonally between the vertical and horizontal

C) is cut vertical right and left

D) is cut perpendicular to vertical and horizontal
B) is cut diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.

A) superior mediastinal
B) pleural
C) dorsal
D) pericardial
D) pericardial
The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.

A) frontal
B) cranial
C) nasal
D) orbital
D) orbital
) A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be ________.

A) a complex tissue
B) an organ system
C) an organ
D) a complex cell
C) an organ
________ cavities are spaces within joints.

A) Nasal
B) Synovial
C) Orbital
D) Oral
B) Synovial
Which of the following would not be functional characteristics of life?

A) movement
B) responsiveness to external stimuli
C) maintenance of boundaries
D) decay
D) decay
) ________ means toward or at the back of the body, behind.

A) Anterior
B) Lateral
C) Distal
D) Dorsal
D) Dorsal
) The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60 to 80% of body
weight, is ________.

A) oxygen
B) protein
C) water
D) hydrogen
C) water
The posterior side of the patella would be called ________.

A) sural
B) crural
C) antecubital
D) popliteal
D) popliteal
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?

A) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.

B) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
) The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) body erect
B) arms at sides
C) palms turned posteriorly
D) thumbs pointed laterally
C) palms turned posteriorly
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.

A) body temperature regulation
B) regulating glucose levels in the blood
C) enhancement of labor contractions
D) blood calcium level regulation
C) enhancement of labor contractions
A parasagittal plane is ________.

A) a transverse cut just above the knees

B) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves

C) any sagittal plane except the median

D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior
C) any sagittal plane except the median
Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?

A) appendix
B) stomach
C) liver
D) intestines
D) intestines
) The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.

A) covering individual lungs
B) lining the thoracic cavity
C) covering the heart
D) lining the abdominal cavity
B) lining the thoracic cavity
) Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli

A) endocrine
B) lymphatic
C) immune
D) nervous
D) nervous
) Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.

A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.

B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.

C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.

D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.

A) the lowest possible energy usage

B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

C) a static state with no deviation from preset points

D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
) The lungs are located in the following cavities ________.

A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
B) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.

A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.

B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential
space between the two.

C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the
walls of the heart.

D) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.
C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the
walls of the heart
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ

A) 1-2-3-4-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
C) 2-1-3-4-5
D) 1-2-4-3-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a personʹs brain?

A) X ray
B) DSA
C) PET
D) MRI
D) MRI
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

A) cranial cavity
B) thoracic cavity
C) spinal cord
D) vertebral cavity
B) thoracic cavity
The stomach is located in which abdominopelvic quadrant?

A) right upper
B) right lower
C) left upper
D) left lower
C) left upper
Which of the following statements is most correct of homeostatic imbalance?

A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

B) The internal environment is becoming more stable.

C) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.

D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.
A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
Subdivisions of anatomy include ________.

A) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, dissection, and surface
C) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
The term pollex refers to the ________.

A) great toe
B) calf
C) fingers
D) thumb
D) thumb
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?

A) intestines
B) brain
C) lungs
D) liver
B) brain
Select the statement that is most correct.

A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.

B) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.

C) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system.

D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.
A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________.

A) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system

B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger

D) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
Survival needs of the body include ________.

A) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction

B) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction

C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement

D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
The frontal plane is also called the ______ plane.

A) vertical
B) oblique
C) coronal
D) median
C) coronal
The anatomical position is used ________.

A) rarely, because people donʹt usually assume this position

B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the
body

C) only when a body is lying down

D) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the
body
A horizontal section through the body is called ________.

A) frontal
B) regional
C) sagittal
D) transverse
D) transverse
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, is called ________.

A) frontal
B) regional
C) sagittal
D) transverse
C) sagittal
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior, is called ________.

A) frontal
B) median
C) sagittal
D) transverse
A) frontal
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?

A) Cranial
B) Dorsal
C) Vertebral
D) Thoracic
B) Dorsal
Why are the units of a measurement as important as the measured number?
Without units, the number has no meaning.
1. Why is an ADC an output conversion device?
An ADC is an output conversion device because its output quantity is number.
Which of the following is necessary for proper conduction of nervous impulses?
A) Fe
B) I
C) P
D) Na
D) Na
) A phospholipid is usually ________.

A) partially polar and partially nonpolar
B) completely nonpolar
C) completely polar
D) neither polar nor nonpolar
A) partially polar and partially nonpolar
) In general, the category of lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.

A) a high water content
B) long fatty acid chains
C) a high degree of saturated bonds
D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds
D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds
The genetic information is coded in DNA by ________.

A) the regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules

B) the sequence of the nucleotides

C) the three-dimensional structure of the double helix

D) the arrangement of the histones
B) the sequence of the nucleotides
Which of the following is not true of proteins?

A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.

B) Some types are called enzymes.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.

D) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information
The single most abundant protein in the body is ________.

A) DNA
B) hemoglobin
C) collagen
D) glucose
C) collagen
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.

A) glucose
B) triglycerides
C) glycogen
D) cholesterol
C) glycogen
Coenzymes are ________.

A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
B) two enzymes that perform the same function
C) metal ions
D) enzymes that work together
A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
The speed or rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by all of the following except ________.

A) the concentration of the reactants
B) the temperature
C) the presence of catalysts or enzymes
D) the presence or absence of carbon
D) the presence or absence of carbon
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.

A) the release of energy
B) the consumption of energy
C) a synthesis
D) forming a larger molecule
A) the release of energy
Salts are always ________.

A) ionic compounds
B) single covalent compounds
C) double covalent compounds
D) hydrogen bonded
A) ionic compounds
A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________.

A) acidic
B) basic
C) neutral
D) slightly acidic
A) acidic
The numbers listed represent the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

A) 2, 8, 8
B) 2, 8
C) 2
D) 2, 8, 1
D) 2, 8, 1
Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?

A) nitrogen
B) hydrogen
C) potassium
D) sodium
D) sodium
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A) H2O
B) NaCl
C) NaOH
D) CH4
D) CH4
A chain of 25 amino acids would be called a ________.

A) polypeptide
B) nucleotide
C) protein
D) starch
A) polypeptide
A long chain of simple sugars would be a ________.

A) monosaccharide
B) polysaccharide
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
B) polysaccharide
The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the ________.

A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
B) secondary structure
Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.

A) addition of a water molecule between each two units

B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units

C) removal of a water molecule between each two units

D) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units
Which statement about enzymes is false?

A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.

B) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein.

C) Enzymes are organic catalysts.

D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction
Many plasma proteins may function as _________.

A) antibodies
B) structural proteins
C) buffers
D) oxygen transport vesicles
C) buffers
Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions?

A) Percent solutions are parts per 1000 parts.

B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.

C) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic number of the solute.

D) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic weight of the solvent.
B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution
Select the statement about mixtures that is correct.

A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.

B) Solutions contain particles that settle out in time.

C) Suspensions can change reversibly from liquid to solid.

D) Suspensions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components.
A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
HCO3- is _________.

A) a bicarbonate ion
B) common in the liver
C) a weak acid
D) a proton donor
A) a bicarbonate ion
Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in living
systems.

A) glucose to CO2 & H2O
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen
A) glucose to CO2 & H2O
In redox reactions ________.

A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) the electron donor is reduced
D) the reaction is always easily reversible
A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
Fibrous proteins ________.

A) rarely exhibit secondary structure
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
C) are usually called enzymes
D) are cellular catalysts
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
The ATP molecule is not used in ___________.

A) chemical work
B) mechanical work
C) transport
D) pigments
D) pigments
Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.

A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.

B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.

C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.

D) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA.
B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
________ is a suspension.

A) Cytoplasm
B) Saltwater
C) Rubbing alcohol
D) Blood
D) Blood
Select the correct statement about isotopes.

A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic
mass.

B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.

C) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.

D) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.
A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic
mass.
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.

A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
An example of a coenzyme is ________.

A) copper
B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
C) iron
D) zinc
B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
________ is fat-soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for
normal bone growth and function.

A) Vitamin K
B) Cortisol
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin D
In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in
the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. This liquid must be a
________.

A) solution
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) mixture
C) colloid
Atom X has seventeen protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
C) 7
) If an atom were to have two protons, then it would ________.

A) have a valence of 0
B) be very stable
C) be chemically active
D) have three electrons
B) be very stable
) If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have ________.

A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons

B) 37 electrons

C) 74 protons and no neutrons

D) 74 protons and roughly the same number of neutrons
D) 74 protons and roughly the same number of neutrons
The formula C6H12O6 means ________.

A) there are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms

B) there are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms

C) the molecular weight is 24

D) the substance is a colloid
B) there are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms
Two good examples of a colloid would be Jell-O® or ________.

A) blood
B) toenails
C) urine
D) cytosol
D) cytosol
An atom with a valance of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.

A) 3
B) 8
C) 13
D) 17
C) 13
An atom with ________ electrons could be an anion when ionically bonded.

A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 15
C) 9
The chemical symbol O=O means ________.

A) zero equals zero

B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit

C) the atoms are double bonded

D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons
C) the atoms are double bonded
Dipole is ________.

A) a type of bond
B) a polar molecule
C) a type of reaction
D) an organic molecule
B) a polar molecule
CH4 means ________.

A) there is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms
B) there are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms
C) this is an inorganic molecule
D) this was involved in a redox reaction
A) there is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms
Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a ________ reaction.

A) synthesis
B) decomposition
C) exchange
D) reversible
A) synthesis
) ________ is not considered to be a factor in influencing a reaction.

A) Temperature
B) Concentration
C) Particle size
D) Time
D) Time
Which of the following is not an electrolyte?

A) HCl
B) Ca2CO3
C) H2O
D) NaOH
C) H2O
Human blood has a pH of ________.

A) 8.35-8.55
B) 7.70-8.00
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 6.80-7.00
C) 7.35-7.45
__________ is a heavy metal normally found in the body.

A) Lead
B) Mercury
C) Arsenic
D) Iron
D) Iron
Sucrose is a ________.

A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) polysaccharide
D) triglyceride
B) disaccharide
Neutral fats have a ________ ratio of fatty acids to glycerol.

A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1
C) 3:1
In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________.

A) as a code
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
C) to bind the sugars to their bases
D) as nucleotides
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
Most fibrous proteins in the body contain all of these except:

A) keratin
B) elastin
C) eledin
D) collagen
C) eledin
Heat shock proteins (hsp) are a type of protein called ________.

A) coenzymes
B) cofactors
C) eicosanoids
D) chaperonins
D) chaperonins
_________ bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific 3-dimensional shape.

A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Amino acid
B) Hydrogen
Which of the following is true regarding the generation of a membrane potential?

A) Both potassium and sodium ions can ʺleakʺ through the cell membrane due to diffusion.

B) In the polarized state, sodium and potassium ion concentrations are in static equilibrium.

C) The maintenance of the potential is based exclusively on diffusion processes.

D) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice
as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.
A) Both potassium and sodium ions can ʺleakʺ through the cell membrane due to diffusion.
Transcytosis is ________.

A) combining an endosome with a lysosome and degrading or releasing the contents

B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents
by exocytosis

C) recycling the contents of the endosome back to the surface of the cell

D) storing the contents of the endosome
B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents
by exocytosis
) in certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored ________.

A) in the smooth ER
B) in the rough ER
C) in both smooth and rough ER
D) in the cytoplasm
Answer: A
...
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ʺfactoryʺ site for protein formation is
the ________.

A) rRNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) ssRNA
C) tRNA
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.

A) shrink

B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached

C) neither shrink nor swell

D) swell and burst
D) swell and burst
The plasma membrane is ________.

A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma

C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?

A) It is selectively permeable.

B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.

C) It acts as a site of cell-to-cell interaction and recognition.

D) It encloses the cell contents.
B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

A) stereocilia
B) microvilli
C) cilia
D) flagella
B) microvilli
Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?

A) The rate of diffusion is independent of temperature.

B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.

C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate of diffusion.

D) The lower the temperature, the faster the diffusion rate.
B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.
Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them
together into a cell community include all of the following except ________.

A) gap junctions
B) desmosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) tight junctions
C) peroxisomes
) If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is
impermeable, what could happen?

A) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.

B) The cells will lose water and shrink.

C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding
solution and return to their original condition.

D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
B) The cells will lose water and shrink.
Which of the following is not a subcellular structure?

A) intercellular material
B) membranes
C) cytoplasm
D) organelles
A) intercellular material
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following
statements best describes what happens?

A) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the ʺinvaderʺ to form new
protein.

B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

C) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists
unchanged.

D) Nitrogen enters the vacuole and ʺburnsʺ the enclosed solid material.
B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in
response to _________.

A) changes in the environment
B) specific tRNAs
C) specific codes from the DNA
D) presence or absence of ubiquitins
A) changes in the environment
Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

A) circulating antibody
B) molecular transport through the membrane
C) forms a lipid bilayer
D) oxygen transport
B) molecular transport through the membrane
Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA?

A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.

B) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be
UCCAGU.

C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid.

D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.
A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis
Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?

A) glycolipids
B) messenger RNA
C) glycoproteins
D) phospholipids
B) messenger RNA
Mitosis ________.

A) is the formation of sex cells
B) produces nucleus replication
C) creates diversity in genetic potential
D) always results in division of a cell
B) produces nucleus replication
The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of
microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is ________.

A) centrosome
B) centriole
C) chromosome
D) ribosome
B) centriole
Which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle?

A) melanin
B) lysosome
C) microtubule
D) cilia
A) melanin
Hyperplasia means __________.

A) programmed cell death

B) abnormalities in cell structure

C) a condition where the cell overproduces ʺcell glueʺ

D) accelerated growth
D) accelerated growth
) If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA
synthesis is ACGTT, then the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA would be
________.

A) TGCAA
B) ACGTT
C) UGCAA
D) GUACC
C) UGCAA
Which of the following is true regarding cells in humans?

A) Organelles are independent life forms.

B) Maximum cell diameter is limited to 2 micrometers.

C) Cells can be as long as 1 meter.

D) All cells of an adult have a very short life span.
C) Cells can be as long as 1 meter.
Phospholipids ________.

A) are exclusively hydrophilic molecules

B) contain polar tails and nonpolar head groups

C) are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature

D) form the lipid bilayer, with tails directed to the outside
C) are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.

A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

B) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

C) consumption of ATP

D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high
concentration
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Enzymes called _________ destroy the cellʹs DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death
to the cell.

A) ubiquitins
B) cyclins
C) caspases
D) DNA polymerase III
C) caspases
Mitochondria ________.

A) are always the same shape

B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP

C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell
C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to
synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This
statement is ________.

A) false; proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only

B) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way

C) false; lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way

D) true
Answer: B
...
Peroxisomes ________.

A) also called microbodies, contain acid hydrolases

B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

C) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis

D) sometimes function as secretory vesicles
Answer: B
...
DNA replication ________.

A) can also be called mitosis
B) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action
C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
D) occurs only in translationally active areas
Answer: C
...
Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?

A) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it.

B) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.

C) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it.

D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
Answer: D
...
In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential ________.

A) extracellular sodium levels are high

B) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+

C) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells

D) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside
Answer: A
...
Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?

A) Simple cells can arise spontaneously from rotting vegetation.

B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.

C) The subcellular organelle is the basic unit of life.

D) Only higher organisms are composed of cells.
Answer: B
...
) Cells are composed mainly of ________.

A) carbon, potassium, sodium, nitrogen
B) carbon, sodium, nitrogen, calcium
C) calcium, oxygen, sodium, potassium
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
Answer: D
...
Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?

A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.

B) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.

C) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.

D) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the
outside of the cell.
Answer: A
...
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals
known as ʺsecond messengersʺ?

A) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins.

B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes.

C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.

D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell.
Answer: C
...
The main component of the cytosol is ________.

A) proteins
B) sugars
C) salts
D) water
Answer: D
...
Lysosomes ________.

A) are always used for the cell to ʺcommit suicideʺ

B) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell

C) maintain a highly alkaline internal environment

D) are the major site of protein synthesis
Answer: B
...
The endomembrane system is ________.

A) a system by which cells are riveted together by desmosomes

B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally
connected

C) the process by which bacteria took up residence in ancient cells

D) a system of hydrophilic lipid monolayers that surround many cell organelles
Answer: B
...
The functions of centrioles include ________.

A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces

C) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

D) producing ATP
Answer: A
...
A gene can best be defined as ________.

A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long

C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide
Answer: C
...
Extracellular matrix is ________.

A) composed of strands of actin protein

B) the most abundant extracellular material

C) a type of impermeable cell junction found in epithelia

D) not present in connective tissue
Answer: B
...
Crenation is likely to occur in ________.

A) blood cells in an isotonic solution
B) blood cells in a hypotonic solution
C) blood cells in a hypertonic solution
D) blood cells in blood plasma
Answer: C
...
Some hormones enter cells via ________.

A) exocytosis
B) endocytosis
C) pinocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.

A) AUG
B) UCG
C) TCG
D) UGA
B) UCG
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.

B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.

C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.

D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
) ________ is an inherited condition that affects the heme pathway; it leaves the skin scarred and
gums degenerated, and may have led to the folklore about vampires.

A) Porphyria
B) Decubitus ulcer
C) Impetigo
D) Rosacea
A) Porphyria
) A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.

A) medulla
B) cortex
C) external root sheath
D) cuticle
C) external root sheath
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.

A) sweat glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) Meibomian glands
D) ceruminous glands
B) sebaceous glands
The dermis ________.

A) is an avascular connective tissue layer
B) has two layers
C) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands
D) is where melanocytes are found
B) has two layers
Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?

A) arrector integument
B) arrector pili
C) levator folliculi
D) arrector folliculi
B) arrector pili
If a splinter penetrated the skin into the second epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, which
cells would be damaged?

A) granulosum
B) basale
C) lucidum
D) spinosum
C) lucidum
Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light
pressure?
A) Meissnerʹs corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) free nerve endings
D) Krauseʹs end bulbs
A) Meissnerʹs corpuscles
Melanocytes ________.

A) are spidery-shaped cells in contact with cells in the stratum basale

B) are involved in the immune system

C) are involved with the nervous system

D) work their way up to the surface just like the keratinocytes
A) are spidery-shaped cells in contact with cells in the stratum basale
Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.

C) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.

D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.
A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
Sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the body. Which of the following
is correct?

A) Eccrine are the most numerous, being found primarily in the axillary regions.

B) Apocrine glands are larger than eccrine, and empty secretions directly to the surface of
the skin.

C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.

D) Mammary glands are not considered a modified sweat gland.
C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.
) Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions
include ________.

A) the dermis providing the major mechanical barrier to chemicals, water, and other
external substances

B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and
present them to the immune system

C) cooling the body by increasing the action of sebaceous glands during high-temperature
conditions

D) epidermal blood vessels serving as a blood reservoir
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and
present them to the immune system
The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has
passed

B) bind the hair root to the dermis

C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
Vernix caseosa is a ________.

A) substance contributing to acne during adolescence

B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands

C) coat of fine, downy hair on the heads of balding men

D) cheesy-looking sudoriferous secretion on the skin of newborns
B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands
The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.

A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) ceruminous
D) mammary
C) ceruminous
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.

A) absorbing materials applied to the surface layer of the skin

B) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis

C) filtration

D) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis
Answer: D
...
The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________.

A) it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock

B) it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock

C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber

D) the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus
Answer: C
...
The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other
foreign agents primarily because it is composed of ________.

A) stratified columnar epithelium

B) three layers of keratinized cells only

C) four different cell shapes found in five distinct layers, each cell shape with a special
function

D) a tough layer of connective tissue
Answer: C
...
Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because ________.

A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties

B) they are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function

C) they are able to reproduce sporadically as needed

D) they are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays
Answer: A
...
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when
keratinocytes ________.

A) provide the melanocyte with a protective shield against abrasion

B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking
pigment layer

C) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules

D) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature
Answer: B
...
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

A) stratum corneum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum basale
D) stratum lucidum
Answer: C
...
The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and
migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?

A) cells found in the stratum spinosum
B) macrophages called Langerhansʹ cells
C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile
D) Merkel cells
Answer: B
...
Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which
of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

A) Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted
into extracellular spaces.

B) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick
bundles of intermediate filaments.

C) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.

D) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.
Answer: A
...
The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are
likely to be found in the dermis?

A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and Kupffer cells
B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
Answer: C
...
The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is
responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

A) the reticular layer
B) the subcutaneous layer
C) the hypodermal layer
D) the papillary layer
Answer: A
...
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that
the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?

A) Because the pain is acute due to the large number of Meissnerʹs corpuscles.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing
ʺblack and blue marks.ʺ

D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.
Answer: B
...
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The
superficial surface has structures called:

A) dermal papillae.
B) hair follicles.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.
Answer: A
...
The design of a personʹs epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae
rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints,
and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?

A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges.

B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.

C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily.

D) Identical twins do not have the same pattern of ridges.
Answer: B
...
Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the bodyʹs natural defenses
protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skinʹs
color.

B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is
synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.

C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of Langerhansʹ cells, which help to
activate the immune system.

D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a
natural sunscreen.
Answer: D
...
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the
following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addisonʹs disease?

A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.

C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.

D) It is impossible to suggest Addisonʹs disease from an inspection of a personʹs skin.
Answer: A
...
A Langerhansʹ cell is a ________.

A) specialized squamous epithelial cell
B) specialized phagocytic cell
C) specialized nerve cell
D) specialized melanocyte
B) specialized phagocytic cell
) The most important factors influencing hair growth are ________.

A) sex and hormones
B) age and glandular products
C) the size and number of hair follicles
D) nutrition and hormones
D) nutrition and hormones
Which of the following statements best describes what fingernails actually are?

A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.

B) Fingernails are derived from osseous tissue.

C) Fingernails are extensions of the carpal bones.

D) Fingernails are a separate tissue from the skin, formed from a different embryonic layer.
A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are
the two types of sweat glands?

A) sebaceous and merocrine
B) mammary and ceruminous
C) eccrine and apocrine
D) holocrine and mammary
Answer: C
...
The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

A) primarily uric acid

B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

D) metabolic wastes
Answer: B
...
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play
little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis

B) beneath the flexure lines in the body

C) in the axillary and anogenital area

D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
Answer: C
...
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The
secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.

A) by high temperatures
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by hormones, especially androgens
D) as a protective coating when one is swimming
Answer: C
...
In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions.
Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium
metabolism.

B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.
Answer: A
...
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body.
How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid
loss?

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist
C) through blood analysis
D) by using the ʺrule of ninesʺ
Answer: D
...
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

A) infection
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function
Answer: B
...
Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to ________.

A) age
B) size
C) weight
D) male hormones
Answer: D
...
) Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.

A) they grow much slower

B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

C) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle

D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a
predetermined length
B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
In humans, melatonin may inhibit sexual maturation.
T/F
True
The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitonin-parathormone.
T/F
True
The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin.
T/F
False
The endocrine structure that develops from the nervous system is the anterior pituitary.
T/F
False
Both ʺturn onʺ factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and ʺturn offʺ factors (feedback
inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.
T/F
True
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.
T/F
True
LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.
T/F
True
The only known effect of prolactin in humans is to produce impotence in males.
Answer: FALSE
T/F
False
Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.
Answer: TRUE
...
Follicle cells of the thyroid gland produce thyroglobulin, while follicle cells of the parathyroid
produce calcitonin.
T/F
False
The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue.
T/F
False
The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis.
T/F
True
The beta cells are the pancreatic islet cells that produce insulin.
T/F
True
Most Type II diabetics do not produce insulin.
T/F
False
Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter
effects.
T/F
False
Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system.
T/F
False
Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals but the least
abundant.
T/F
False
Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the
urinary excretion of sodium.
Answer: TRUE
...
While glucagon is a small polypeptide, it is nevertheless very potent in its regulatory effects.
Answer: TRUE
...
The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life of an
individual.
Answer: TRUE
...
Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain
neurotransmitters.
Answer: TRUE
...
All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH.
Answer: TRUE
...
Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.
Answer: TRUE
...
The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic rate is
the parathyroid.
Answer: FALSE
...
Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce
hormones.
Answer: FALSE
...
Diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus are both caused by a genetic mutation involving the
synthesis of insulin.
Answer: FALSE
...
The stimulus for calcitonin release is usually excessive amounts of growth hormone synthesis
Answer: FALSE
...
Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an
individual is suffering from severe stress.
Answer: FALSE
...
Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.
Answer: FALSE
...
All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.
Answer: TRUE
...
All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP
second-messenger.
Answer: TRUE
...
________ is a hormone that has only one known effect: to stimulate milk production by the
breasts.
: Prolactin
2. ________ are hormones synthesized from cholesterol.
Steroids
________ are the result of hypersecretion of growth hormone.
Acromegaly and gigantism
The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the ________.
thyroid
Catecholamines are produced by ________ cells
chromaffin
Alpha islet cells produce ________, an extremely potent hyperglycemic hormone.
glucagon
The ________ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual
maturity.
pineal
The ________ gland declines in size and function with age.
: thymus
Endocrine gland stimuli include hormonal, ________, and ________ stimuli
: humoral; neural
The nonspecific ascending pathways ________.

A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
D) are also called the lemniscal system
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.

A) pons
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla
C) hypothalamus
Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.

A) midbrain
B) medulla
C) pons
D) cerebrum
C) pons
The arbor vitae refers to ________.

A) cerebellar gray matter
B) cerebellar white matter
C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
D) flocculonodular nodes
B) cerebellar white matter
The brain stem consists of the ________.

A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
D) midbrain only
Answer: B
...
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

A) prefrontal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) parietal lobe
Answer: C
...
Spinocerebellar tracts ________.

A) terminate in the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
Answer: B
...
The spinal cord has gray matter on the ________.

A) outside, white matter on the inside, and a dorsal motor root
B) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root
C) inside, white matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root
D) outside, white matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root
Answer: B
...
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

A) arachnoid and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
C) arachnoid and dura
D) dura and epidura
Answer: B
...
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the
________.

A) pons
B) medulla
C) midbrain
D) cerebrum
Answer: B
...
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) sympathetic ganglia
Answer: A
...
The fissure separating the cerebral hemispheres is the ________.

A) central fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) lateral fissure
Answer: B
...
The limbic association area of the multimodal association areas provides our ________.

A) emotional impact
B) working memory
C) recall and personality
D) learning abilities
A) emotional impact
The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are damaged,
the past is lost.
Answer: amygdala
...
) ________ rhythm is a 24-hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness
Answer: Circadian
...
) ________ is a temporary cessation of breathing during sleep found most commonly in the
elderly.
Answer: Sleep apnea
...
In stage 3 sleep, ________ and ________ waves appear
Answer: theta; delta
...
Vertebrae are considered ________ bones.

A) long
B) flat
C) short
D) irregular
Answer: D
...
The universal loss of mass seen in the skeleton, which begins about the age of 40 ________.

A) is slower in females than in males

B) is absolutely uniform throughout the skeleton

C) reflects incomplete osteon formation and mineralization

D) is greater in African Americans than in Northern Europeans
Answer: C
...
A bone fracture perpendicular to the boneʹs axis is called a(n) ________ fracture.

A) nondisplaced
B) linear
C) transverse
D) incomplete
Answer: C
...
Wolffʹs law is concerned with ________.

A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age

B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

C) the function of bone being dependent on shape

D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts
Answer: B
...
Cranial bones develop ________.

A) from cartilage models
B) within fibrous membranes
C) from a tendon
D) within osseous membranes
B) within fibrous membranes
Cranial bones develop ________.

A) from cartilage models
B) within fibrous membranes
C) from a tendon
D) within osseous membranes
B) within fibrous membranes
Osteomyelitis is ________.

A) partially due to insufficient dietary calcium
B) literally known as ʺsoft bonesʺ
C) due to pus-forming bacteria
D) caused by altered vitamin D metabolism
C) due to pus-forming bacteria
Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. Appositional growth is ________.

A) growth at the epiphyseal plate

B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

C) along the edges only

D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?

A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.

B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.

C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and
form cartilage.

D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow
from within.
D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow
from within.
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.

A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
C) from the edges inward
D) in a circular fashion
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________.

A) osteons
B) lamellar bone
C) trabeculae
D) osseous lamellae
C) trabeculae
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B) bone destruction to liberate calcium
C) bone formation
D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
C) bone formation
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.

A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates

B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity

C) differentiation of osteoclasts

D) calcification of the matrix
A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for
bone growth during infancy and childhood?

A) thyroid hormone
B) somatomedins
C) growth hormone
D) prolactin
C) growth hormone
In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might
be the cause?

A) overproduction of thyroid hormone
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
C) too much vitamin D in the diet
D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activie
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
It is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the forces placed on it. Which of
the following hypotheses may explain how mechanical forces communicate with cells
responsible for bone remodeling?

A) Increase in the synthesis of growth hormone directs the remodeling process.

B) Vitamin D enhances the remodeling process.

C) Bone deposition by osteoclasts is responsible for remodeling.

D) Electrical signals direct the remodeling process.
Answer: D
...
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.

A) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
B) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D
C) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
D) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
Answer: A
...
Which fracture would be least likely in a 92-year-old?

A) compression
B) greenstick
C) comminuted
D) spiral
Answer: B
...
_____________ are not one of the four cell types that populate bone tissue in adults.

A) Osteoblasts
B) Mesenchymal cells
C) Osteocytes
D) Osteoprogenitor cells
Answer: B
...
Ostealgia is ________________.

A) a defect called clubfoot
B) a disease of the bone
C) pain in a bone
D) fractured bone
Answer: C
...
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic)
layer consists primarily of ________.

A) cartilage and compact bone
B) marrow and osteons
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts
D) chondrocytes and osteocytes
Answer: C
...
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

A) elastic connective tissue
B) dense fibrous connective tissue
C) fibrocartilage
D) hyaline cartilage
D) hyaline cartilage
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

A) osteocyte
B) osteoblast
C) osteoclast
D) chondrocyte
B) osteoblast
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

A) fat
B) blood-forming cells
C) elastic tissue
D) Sharpeyʹs fibers
A) fat
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

A) spongy bone
B) irregular bone
C) compact bone
D) trabecular bone
C) compact bone
Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

A) areolar
B) dense regular
C) embryonic
D) reticular
C) embryonic
What would be a substance you would expect to find expelled from a compound alveolar
gland?

A) milk
B) acid
C) oil
D) salivary fluid
A) milk
In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived
from _________.

A) mitotic division of existing epithelial cells
B) stem cells
C) underlying epithelial cells
D) components of the connective tissue
B) stem cells
) ________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells.

A) Goblet cells
B) Mast cells
C) Macrophages
D) Cilia
A) Goblet cells
Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?

A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.

B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.

C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.

D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.
C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.
Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue.

A) Connective tissue does not contain cells.

B) Connective tissue cells are nondividing.

C) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper.

D) ʺBlastʺ cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.
D) ʺBlastʺ cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells
Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair.

A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.

B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.

C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.

D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.
B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

A) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.

B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.

C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one
another
C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.

A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.

B) Its primary function is nutrient storage.

C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.

D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.
B) Its primary function is nutrient storage
In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause ________.

A) inadequate calcification of bone

B) decreased osteoclast activity

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

D) increased osteoclast activity
C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

A) epiphysis
B) metaphysis
C) diaphysis
D) articular cartilage
C) diaphysis
The term diploë refers to ________.

A) the double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

B) the fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue

C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

D) the two types of marrow found within most bones
C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
Select the correct statement concerning the location of blood-forming tissue.

A) There is blood-forming marrow in the diaphysis of most long bones of an adult.

B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.

C) There is blood-forming marrow in most short bones of an adult.

D) Blood-forming tissue is found in the skull and pelvic bones only.
B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.
The structural unit of compact bone is ________.
A) osseous matrix
B) spongy bone
C) lamellar bone
D) the osteon
D) the osteon
Which of the following is (are) not the function(s) of the skeletal system?

A) support
B) storage of minerals
C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D) communication
D) communication
The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.

A) hyaline
B) elastic
C) fibrocartilage
D) epiphyseal
A) hyaline
Cartilage is found in strategic places in the human skeleton. What is responsible for the
resilience of cartilage?

A) high water content
B) hydroxyapatite deposits
C) calcium influx
D) phosphate ions
A) high water content
Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.

A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation

B) involves medullary cavity formation

C) is produced by secondary ossification centers

D) takes twice as long as diaphysis
C) is produced by secondary ossification centers
Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include ________.

A) drinking fluoridated water
B) decreasing weight-bearing exercise
C) increasing dietary vitamin C
D) decreasing exposure to the sun
A) drinking fluoridated water
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.

B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.

C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.

D) A medullary cavity forms.
B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) long bones reaching adult length and width
C) appositional growth
D) concentric growth
C) appositional growth
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells
accomplishes this process?

A) osteoclast
B) osteocyte
C) osteoblast
D) stem cell
A) osteoclast
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the
bloodstream?

A) calcitonin
B) thyroxine
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen
C) parathyroid hormone
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.

A) Volkmannʹs canals
B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
C) Perforating (Sharpeyʹs ) fibers
D) the struts of bone known as spicules
C) Perforating (Sharpeyʹs ) fibers
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of
________.

A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae
B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts
C) yellow marrow and spicules
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________.

A) lacunae
B) Volkmannʹs canals
C) Haversian canals
D) trabeculae
A) lacunae
23. The sodium-potassium pump ________.
A) pumps three sodium ions outside the cell and two potassium ions inside

B) pumps two sodium ions outside the cell and three potassium ions inside

C) pumps three sodium ions inside the cell and two potassium ions outside

D) pumps two sodium ions inside the cell and three potassium ions outside
A
...
23. An action potential ________.
A) is essential for impulse propagation

B) involves the influx of negative ions to depolarize the membrane

C) is initiated by potassium ion movement

D) involves impulse propagation dependent on chemically gated ion channels
A
...
23. Select the correct statement about synapses.

A) Cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled.

B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically
coupled.

C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells.

D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron
to another.
D
...
Sweat glands are innervated by the ________ fibers alone.
Answer: sympathetic
What are glycosaminoglycans?

A) positively charged proteins
B) negatively charged proteins
C) positively charged polysaccharides
D) negatively charged polysaccharides
D) negatively charged polysaccharides
Which of the following is a good example of a neuromodulator?

A) acetylcholine
B) any protein
C) any carbohydrate
D) nitric oxide
D) nitric oxide
23.The sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the ________.
A) central nervous system
B) voluntary nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
23. Ependymal cells ________.
A) are a type of neuron
B) are a type of macrophage
C) are the most numerous of the neuroglia
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
23. Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and
recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.
A) astrocytes
B) oligodendrocytes
C) microglia
D) Schwann cells
A) astrocytes
23. Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) ependymal cells
B) microglia
C) oligodendrocytes
D) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than
through ducts are classified as ________.

A) exocrine
B) endocrine
C) sebaceous
D) ceruminous
B) endocrine
The sympathetic division is often casually referred to as the ________ system.
fight-or-flight
The first step in tissue repair involves ________.

A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells

B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue

C) inflammation

D) formation of scar tissue
Answer: C
...
Two major classes of adrenergic receptors, ________ and ________ are found in the ANS.
Answer:
alpha; beta
...
The ________ division causes erection of the penis and clitoris.
Answer: parasympathetic
...
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact
with the basement membrane.

A) Stratified cuboidal
B) Stratified columnar
C) Transitional
D) Pseudostratified columnar
D) Pseudostratified columnar
A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be
classified as ________.

A) simple cuboidal
B) simple squamous
C) transitional
D) stratified squamous
D) stratified squamous
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

A) highly cellular and well vascularized
B) cuboidal shape enhances function
C) contains contractile units made of collagen
D) is a single-celled tissue
A) highly cellular and well vascularized
) Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified ________.

A) structurally into alveolar and acinar types

B) structurally into vascular and avascular types

C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions

D) functionally into secreting or nonsecreting types
C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions
Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced after secretion.

C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.

D) These glands are ductless.
A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process
Which of these is not considered connective tissue?

A) cartilage
B) adipose
C) muscle
D) blood
C) muscle
Chondroblasts ________.

A) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae

B) within the cartilage, divide and secrete new matrix

C) located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the internal
portions of the cartilage

D) never lose their ability to divide
B) within the cartilage, divide and secrete new matrix
20. 20) Which of the following is true about epithelia?

A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.

B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.

C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.

D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs
The three main components of connective tissue are ________.

A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
The ________ are valvelike and protrude externally through the dura mater to absorb
cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood.
Answer: arachnoid villi
...
Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the ________ horn.
Answer: dorsal
...
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

A) sulcus
B) fissure
C) gyrus
D) furrow
Answer: A
...
The cerebrospinal fluid ________.

A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi
B) enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space
C) is secreted mostly by the neuroglia cells lining the brain ventricles
D) is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses and modified by ependymal cells
Answer: D
...
The ________ is a conduction pathway between higher and lower brain centers and houses
nuclei for cranial nerves V-VII.
Answer: pons
...
The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus to the ________.
Answer: pituitary gland
...
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________.
Answer: corpus callosum
The fourth ventricle is continuous with the ________ of the spinal cord.
Answer: central canal
As a result of stress the adenohypophysis releases ________, which stimulates release of
hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and
begin breaking down fats.
Answer: ACTH