Micro chp 15, 16, 19

cytotoxic T cells
secrete granzymes & perforins that damage TARGET cells
NOT a target for Tc cells
Artificial Active immunity
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
Natural Active immunity
chickenpox infex is followed by LIFELONG immunity
Edward Jenner's work involved
Immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one
Artificial Passive Immunity
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to disease
Natural Passive Immunity
A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across placenta
Killer or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
Tx with Formalin, heat or radiation
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
confer passive immuity
All nucleated cells contain
Class I MHC
During which response to the antigen do we display a LATENT period of no secretory antibody synthesis?
Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make
Trojan horse
When antibody is COVERING the foreign microorganism then COMPLEMENT may be activated via this ____ pathway.
Major categories of hypersensitivities involve a B cell immunoglobulin are
Type I, II, III
hay fever--type IV hypersensitivity
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
Sensitizing dose
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category
Type I
A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the
Provocative dose
What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?
Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
NOT a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?
contact dermatitis
Allergies run in families because
relative production of IgE is inherited
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is
Which types of hypersensitivities is IgG involved with?
Both antibody mediated & immune complex mediated
Allergic reaxs to PCNs are considered a ______ hypersensitivity.
All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell mediated allergy EXCEPT
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Allergic patients receiving small controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing
Corticosteroids will
Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity EXCEPT
Human blood types involve all except
MHC genes
The serum of a person with blood type A, RH- will have which of the following
anti B
anti Rh
A female who is Rh-
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor
All other Rh+ fetuses are at risk
NOT true of Type 3 hypersensitivity
involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue?
Both skin graft & Organ Transplantation
Autoimmunity is typically due to
Autoantibodies and T cells
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?
Graft versus Host disease
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all diseases EXCEPT
Tuberculin reaction
Each of the following is an autoimmune disease EXCEPT
Metastatic cancer
In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodes attack
Myelin sheath cells of nervous system
What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity?
Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies EXCEPT
Bacterial infex
In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?
The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of
Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to
a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
CSF is found in
subarachnoid space
order from Skull to Brain (outer to inner) *DASP*
Dura mater
arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space
pia mater
The normal biota of the CNS
the CNS has NO normal biota
All pertain to Neisseria Meningitidis EXCEPT
common cause of bacterial pneumonia
The concept "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS
has a REDUCED immune response compared to the rest of the body
Which type of Neuroglia has phagocytic capabilities in the CNS?
Microglial cells
Meningococci initially colonize the
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by
Close contact
Caused by haemophilus influenzae
Bacterial meningitis
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
Prophylactic Rifampin is indicated for individuals in close contact with patients infected by
Haemophilus influenzae
Tx for Neisseria meningitidis
Pen G intravenously
NOT true of Streptococcus pneumoniae
Responds well to PCN
Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes EXCEPT
Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS pts and can be found in bird droppings?
Cryptococcus neoforans
Cryptococcus neoformans is a
Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which although entering via the respiratory tract can cause meningitis
Coccidioides immitis
Arthrospores of Coccidioides immitis develop into _______ that will release endospores into the lungs
The organism found in powdered baby formula which can cause meningitis is:
E coli K1
NOT true of meningoencephaitis
causative organisms are viruses
NOT a causative agent of acute encephalitis
Toxoplasma gondii
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by
Exposure in birth canal
The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is
Streptococcus agalactiae
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves
Coma, convulsions, paralysis in severe cases
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a
What is the likelihood of a pt infected by West Nile Virus developing West Nile encephalitis?
Less than 1%
The best defense against arboviruses is
vector control
Which of the following have the highest mortality rate?
Eastern Equine encephalitis
Each of the following are true for Toxoplasma gondii EXCEPT
has a narrow host range
NOT a prion disease
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Which organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes
hygienic precautions
Patients with Creutzfeldt Jacob disease live
Less than one year post diagnosis
Subacute encephalitis may be caused by
Herpes Simplex Virus
Incorrect about Rabies
Average incubation in humans is 1 week
Polio virus initially multiplies in the
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged?
Anterior horn cells
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis EXCEPT
Summer outbreaks in the US have been recently increasing
The preferred preventative measure for polio in US is
Inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of
Clostridium tetani
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
Clostridium botolinum
African sleeping sickness is caused by
trypanosoma brucei
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
Tx involves antitoxin therapy
Tetanus differs from botulism in that
Muscles cannot relax in tetanus, muscles cannot contract in botulism
The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the
Tsetse fly