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All Pathophysiology Homework and Exam Questions

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"A gluten-free diet as required" for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:
certain grains
A virus
is an intracellular parasite requiring a living host cell for reproduction. Each viral particle contains either DNA or RNA. They cause disease by destroying human cells during replication or by altering human cell DNA.
Adverse effects of antibacterial agents are
allergic reactions, secondary infections, and increasing numbers of drug-resistant microbes.
All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT:
maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
All of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT:
signs of infection include fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and paralysis
An accurate assessment of the extent of permanent spinal cord damage can usually be completed:
approximately 10 days to 2 weeks following injury if no complications arise
An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:
activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
An epidural hematoma is located between the:
dura mater and the skull
Antibacterial drugs are classified by
their activity (bactericidal or bacteriostatic, narrow or broad spectrum) and mechanism (e.g., interference with protein or cell wall synthesis).
Antiviral drugs limit viral replication, thus
reducing the active stage, but do not kill the virus or cure the infection.
Aspiration pneumonia is usually caused by aspiration of:
liquids such as oils or milk
Bacteria
are single-cell organisms enclosed within a cell wall and sometimes an outer capsule. They reproduce by binary fission. They may secrete exotoxins, endotoxins, or enzymes that damage the human host cells.
Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:
decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
Circulatory shock causes:
decreased GFR and increased renin secretion
Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
hyperlipidemia
Communicating hydrocephalus causes increased intracranial pressure because of:
failure of the subarachnoid to absorb CSF
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
infection in the brain by a prion
Cystitis is more common in females due to:
the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora
Deficiencies of vitamins A, D, and K occur in patients with cirrhosis primarily because of decreased?
production of bile for absorption
Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because:
hypovolemia limits renal function
Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:
emphysema
Failure of the spinous processes to fuse but without herniation of the meninges is called:
spina bifida occulta
Following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal shock?
possible periods of apnea
Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:
a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distention
From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.
albumin
Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of:
mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic enzymes
Helminths are
parasitic worms that can infect the gut, liver, bloodstream, or lungs.
Hirschsprung's disease refers to:
congenital lack of PNS innervations in a segment of the colon
Histoplasmosis is caused by a:
fungus
How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?
The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.
How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.
How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.
How is respiratory failure defined?
PaO2 less than 50 mm Hg or PaCO2 greater than 50 mm Hg
How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?
recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops
Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.
Infection is often asymptomatic.
In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
involving the pia, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the glomerular inflammation results from:
type III hypersensitivity reaction
In cases of noncommunicating hydrocephalus, why does excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulate?
An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel.
In the liver, amino acids are used to produce complex molecules by means of:
anabolic processes
In which condition is a deficit of protein and vitamins most likely to occur?
regional ileitis
In which disorders do biochemical abnormalities involving the neurotransmitters in the brain occur?
1. bipolar disorder2. schizophrenia3. Huntington's disease 1-2-3
In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
upper and lower motor neurons
Infection may be eradicated without drug treatment when
the microbial colony becomes limited in growth, perhaps because of insufficient nutrients, or when host defenses destroy the invader.
Infections
are caused by pathogenic microorganisms. They may be classified and identified by their characteristics, such as size, shape, component parts, and requirements for growth and reproduction.
Influenza
is a respiratory infection caused by a virus that frequently mutates, preventing long-term immunity by vaccination or experiencing the infection.
Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:
hoarse voice and barking cough
Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
damage to the intestinal villi
Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:
decrease venous return to the heart
Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
cellular energy
Only a few fungi are pathogenic;
Candida is an example of an opportunistic member of resident flora in the human body.
Oral candidiasis is considered to:
be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
Orthopnea is:
difficulty breathing in a recumbent position
Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:
at the head of the pancreas
Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause:
1, 2, 3, 4-1. air trapping,2. atelectasis3. repeated infections4. irreversible damage to lung tissue
Pleurisy associated with lobar pneumonia is manifested by:
cyclic chest pain and friction rub
Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:
bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile
Prions
are protein-like molecules that cause deformation of proteins within the central nervous system. Their mode of action is not well understood. Prions are transmitted by ingestion of undercooked meat contaminated with prions or by organ donation from an infected donor.
Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands
Prolonged vomiting cause a state of acidosis due to:
catabolism of proteins and lipids
Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:
urinary casts and flank pain
Reduced urine output resulting from inflammation and necrosis of the tubules is called:
oliguria
Resident or normal flora refers to
the large variety of nonpathogenic microbes normally present in diverse sites in the body, such as skin, mouth, nose and pharynx, intestines, and vagina.
Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:
Coronavirus
Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis usually include:
copious frothy sputum and dyspnea
Signs of infection are not apparent until sufficient numbers of microorganisms are established and reproducing in the body. Local signs of infection include
inflammation and necrosis of tissue. Systemic signs include fever, headache, fatigue, anorexia, and malaise.
The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is considered to be:
an abnormality of the exocrine glands
The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
TRUE
The degree of virulence of a specific pathogen determines
the severity of the resulting infection.
The infection cycle may be broken by
reducing the reservoir of microbes, blocking transmission, or increasing host resistance.
The micturition reflex is initiated by:
increased pressure distending the bladder
The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is:
presence of blood irritates the neurons
The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
bites from infected animals
The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:
1, 2 1. atrial natriuretic hormone,2. antidiuretic hormone
The visceral peritoneum:
forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines
Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
in the subarachnoid space
To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
liver
Transmission of pathogens may occur by
direct or indirect contact, including oral or respiratory droplet, sexual contact, fomite, or vector.
Typical signs of a TIA include:
transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg
Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
Universal precautions, as outlined by the CDC, assume that
blood and body fluids from any person may be a source of infection; therefore, appropriate preventative measures must be taken with all individuals.
Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
congestive heart failure
Urinary casts are present with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis because of:
inflamed tubules mold RBCs and protein into a typical mass
What are common signs of cor pulmonale?
hepatomegaly and edema in the legs
What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
What are the characteristic changes in the brain with Alzheimer's disease?
cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
What are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a person with cervical spinal injury?
sudden marked increase in blood pressure with bradycardia
What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
What causes a herniated intervertebral disc?
a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis
What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
necrosis of liver cells
What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
What causes polyuria during the stage of renal insufficiency?
loss of tubule function
What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?
inflamed peritoneum resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
What causes the dark urine associated with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
increased glomerular permeability resulting in gross hematuria
What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?
a form of motor disability
What does a vegetative state refer to?
loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle n the pylorus
What does hydronephrosis lead to?
ischemia and fibrosis in the compressed area
What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
formation of glucose from protein and fat
What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
What does the term periodontitis refer to?
bacterial damage to the ligaments and bone surrounding teeth
What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
What is a major function of the limbic system?
determines emotional responses
What is caused by frequent inhalation of irritating particles such as silica?
fibrosis and loss of compliance
What is the best definition of aphasia?
the inability to comprehend or express language appropriately
What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the larger airways
What is the cause of most cases of pyelonephritis?
an ascending infection by E. coli
What is the definition of achalasia?
lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
What is the pathophysiologic change in Parkinson's disease?
degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?
pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
What is the typical initial effect of a herniated intervertebral disc at the L4 to L5 level?
lower back pain radiating down the leg
What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe?
loss of left visual field
What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
lower left quadrant
What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gall bladder?
leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity
When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:
sliding hernia
Whenever PO2 levels decrease below normal, then PCO2 levels:
may or may not change
Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
cystitis
Which factors appear to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?
genetic and immunologic factors
Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
Which manifestation(s) of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?
decreased breath sounds on the affected side
Which of the following applies to anthrax infection?
When inhaled it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory distress.
Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
Which of the following applies to Parkinson's disease?
Onset occurs in men and women over 60 years of age.
Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract?
It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses.
Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
tremors, weakness in the legs, visual problems
Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
pruritic skin and light-colored stools
Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?
chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
trypsin
Which of the following causes acute renal failure?
bilateral acute glomerulonephritis
Which of the following causes papilledema?
increased pressure of CSF at the optic disc
Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
parietal cells
Which of the following classes of drugs may provide temporary improvement in cases of myasthenia gravis?
anticholinesterase agents
Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?
brain abscess
Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.
Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?
folic acid
Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?
Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe malaise.
Which of the following does NOT apply to carbon dioxide?
d. It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.
Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis?
acute renal failure
Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a patient with active tuberculosis?
Isoniazid
Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
long-term exposure to certain chemicals
Which of the following is a major factor contributing to the current increase in cases of tuberculosis?
the increase in immunodeficient individuals
Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?
hemoptysis and weight loss
Which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic attacks?
They often warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents.
Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
bicarbonate ion
Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
production of albumin
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia?
development of arteriosclerosis
Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?
nephrosclerosis
Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
esophageal varices
Which of the following is related to Wilms' tumor?
a genetic defect
Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
left hemisphere
Which of the following is typical of progressive emphysema?
Residual lung volume increases.
Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?
The liver is inflamed and enlarged.
Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?
depression of the cough and swallow reflexes by drugs
Which of the following statements about jaundice is/are true?
4. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.4 only
Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture?
It is usually performed at L3-L4.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors?
Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS.
Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
vagus nerve
Which of the following values for arterial blood gases would be expected in a patient with advanced emphysema?
increased PCO2, increased bicarbonate ion, serum pH 7.35
Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?
small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray
Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
persistent bilateral glomerulonephritis
Which statement about the bladder is TRUE?
Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.
Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?
The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
It causes flaccid skeletal muscles, impairing mobility.
Which statement is TRUE about the condition depression?
It is classified as a mood disorder.It is marked by periods of sadness, hopelessness and inability to concentrate. ANs-a, c
Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
antidiuretic hormone
Which type of cerebrovascular accident has the poorest prognosis?
hemorrhagic CVA
Why does blood pressure often remain near normal in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
Hypoproteinemia results in significant fluid shift to the interstitial compartment.
Why does metabolic acidosis develop with bilateral kidney disease?
Tubule exchanges are impaired.
With a flail chest injury, events during inspiration include:
the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side
With a tension pneumothorax, which factors contribute to severe hypoxia?
continually increasing pressure on the unaffected lung
With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:
cardiac arrhythmias
"A gluten-free diet as required" for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:
certain grains
A bacterial endospore can
survive high temperatures and dry environment
A cancer is considered cured after
5 years without recurrence.
a change in tissue marked by cells that very in shape and size and show increased myotic figures would be called
dysplasia
a change in tissue marked by cells that very in shape and size and show increased myotic figures would be called
dysplasia
a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
precipitating factor
a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
precipitating factor
A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
staging
A friction rub is associated with
pericarditis
A friction rub is associated with
pericarditis
a headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a ________ headache
migraine
a headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a ________ headache
migraine
A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:
vomit undigested food from previous meals
A primary factor causing encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:
serum ammonia
A retrovirus such as HIV contains
RNA and enzymes for its conversion
a short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called
acute
a short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called
acute
A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because
ventricular filling is reduced
A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because
ventricular filling is reduced
A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
according to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked
at the synapse by entry of oher sensory impulses
according to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked
at the synapse by entry of oher sensory impulses
adolescent pregnancy is often considered high-risk because of
all of the above are correct
adolescent pregnancy is often considered high-risk because of
all of the above are correct
Adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation include
bone marrow depression causing leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia; epithelial damage causing mucosal ulceration and hair loss; and nausea and vomiting.
Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:
one kidney provides more than adequate function
All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers except
they are difficult to diagnose and treat. Not true!
All of the following are expected with infant respiratory distress syndrome EXCEPT:
respiratory alkalosis
all of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health except:
participate in sgtrenuous exercise on a regular daily basis
all of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health except:
participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis
all of the following statements are correct about cell damage except
initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function
all of the followng statements are correct about cell damage except
initially cell damage does not changew cell metabolism, structure, or function
An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:
activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
An anaerobe requires which specific environment?
The absence of oxygen
An atheroma develops from
accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
An atheroma develops from
accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal
movement of the heart valves
An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal
movement of the heart valves
An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
Erosion of a large blood vessel
Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by
reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
Aortic stenosis means the aortic valve
cannot fully open during systole
Aortic stenosis means the aortic valve
cannot fully open during systole
Aspiration pneumonia is usually caused by aspiration of:
liquids such as oils or milk
Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to:
local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow
Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called
staphylococci
Basal cell carcinoma is an example of
skin cancer related to sun exposure. The prognosis is excellent because the cancer is slow growing, obvious at an early stage, and easily treated.
Benign neoplasms
are space-occupying masses of abnormal cells, but they do not spread to distant sites and are not considered life threatening unless located in an area such as the brain.
Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:
are encapsulated and slow-growing
Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they
create excessive pressure within the skull
Brain tumors, both benign and malignant, result in
pressure inside the skull and may be difficult to remove without causing additional brain damage.
Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in
reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions
Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in
reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions
Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:
as bicarbonate ion
Carcinogens or risk factors include
genetic predisposition and environmental, biologic, and dietary factors.
caseation necrosis refers to an area where
dead cells form a thick cheesy substance
caseation necrosis refers to an area where
dead cells form a thick cheesy substance
cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
certain food additives
cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
certain food additives
Chemotherapy frequently consists of
a specific combination of drugs administered (often intravenously) at intervals over a period of time. Hormones such as prednisone may be added to the regimen. The growth of some tumor cells is hormone dependent, in which case hormones may be provided or removed, as necessary. Several new approaches to drug therapy are under development.
Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
reduce the adverse effects, be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 1, 3
Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
Choose the correct reason for severe hypoxia occurring with pulmonary edema:
Diffusion of oxygen into the pulmonary capillaries is impaired.
Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:
decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
promotes platelet adhesion
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
promotes platelet adhesion
Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
causes metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium
Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
causes metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium
Circulatory shock causes:
decreased GFR and increased renin secretion
Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
hyperlipidemia
common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following except
abdominal pain
common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following except
abdominal pain
Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following except
arthritis causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet. Not true!
Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following except
arthritis causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet. Not true!
Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a/an:
autosomal recessive gene
Cystitis is more common in females due to:
the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora
Deficiencies of vitamins A, D, and K occur in patients with cirrhosis primarily because of decreased?
Production of bile for absorption
Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:
emphysema
diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of
hCG
diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of
hCG
During an acute asthma attack, how does respiratory obstruction occur?
edema of the mucosa, increased secretion of thick, tenacious mucus. C, 2 and 3.
during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double-blind study may be conducted during
the third stage
during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double-blind study may be conducted during
the third stage
during which time period to teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
first 2 months
during which time period to teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
first 2 months
Each of the following compares the output of blood from the left and right ventricles witheach contraction of a normal heart? Which is correct?
Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output
Each of the following compares the output of blood from the left and right ventricles witheach contraction of a normal heart? Which is correct?
Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output
edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy due to
increased blood volume
edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy due to
increased blood volume
Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by
cysts in feces
Epidemics are
common.
etiology is defined as the study of the
causes of a disease
etiology is defined as the study of the
causes of a disease
Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes
reduced venous return
Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes
reduced venous return
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except:
walking down stairs
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except:
walking down stairs
Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:
a large volume of chime has entered the intestines, causing distention
For which of the following would a cardiac pacemaker likely be inserted?
Heart block
For which of the following would a cardiac pacemaker likely be inserted?
Heart block
Fungi reproduce by
budding, extension of hyphae, production of spores. 1, 2, 4
gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in
delivery of a high birth weight infant
gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in
delivery of a high birth weight infant
Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because
inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
Grading of a cancer is determined by
the degree of differentiation and indicators of mitoses seen in the tumor cells.
Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of:
mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic enzymes
Guidelines for effective drug therapy include:
1.The drug should be taken at regular, evenly spaced intervals over 24 hours to maintain blood levels that are adequate to control and destroy the organisms.
Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the A V node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called
second-degree block
Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the A V node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called
second-degree block
Hemoptysis is a significant sign of:
pulmonary edema
High risk factors for cancer include
all of the above. E.
Hirschsprung's disease refers to:
congenital lack of PNS innervations in a segment of the colon
Histoplasmosis is caused by a:
fungus
How do antiviral drugs act?
Reducing the rate of viral replication
How do body defenses respond immediately after the gall bladder ruptures?
Blood clots seal the perforation
How does a dissecting aortic aneurysm develop?
A tear in the intimal lining allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall
How does a dissecting aortic aneurysm develop?
A tear in the intimal lining allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall
How does a large pleural effusion cause atelectasis?
The cohesion between the pleural membranes is disrupted.
How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?
The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine
How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance
How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
Chronic blood loss in stool
How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.
How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?
Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity
How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
Interfering with cell-wall synthesis
How does serum bilirubin change with cirrhosis?
Increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia?
oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion
How does the rheumatic heart disease usually manifest in later years?
Cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs
How does the rheumatic heart disease usually manifest in later years?
Cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs
How does total obstruction of a major bronchus lead to atelectasis?
Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
How is cardiac output reduced with a flail chest injury?
Venous return is impaired.
How is oxygen toxicity manifested?
increased pulmonary compliance with diffuse atelectasis
How is primary tuberculosis identified?
caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs
How is respiratory failure defined?
PaO2 less than 50 mm Hg or PaCO2 greater than 50 mm Hg
How is shock defined?
Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion
How is shock defined?
Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion
How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?
recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops
hypertrophy of the heart would be related to
an increase in the size of the individual cells
hypertrophy of the heart would be related to
an increase in the size of the individual cells
ibuprofen is classified as an nsaid and particular useful in treating
pain caused by inflammation
ibuprofen is classified as an nsaid and particular useful in treating
pain caused by inflammation
Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.
infection is often asymptomatic
Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy
bone marrow depression
if the data collected from the research process confirm tha tthe new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
evidence based research
if the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
evidence based research
In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain?
inflammation, stretching the renal capsule
In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of
myocarditis
In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of
myocarditis
In a child with ventricular septal defect, altered blood flow:
is called a left-to-right shunt
In a child with ventricular septal defect, altered blood flow:
is called a left-to-right shunt
In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the glomerular inflammation results from:
type III hypersensitivity reaction
In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the inflammation causes:
increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries, glomerular congestion and decreased GFR. A and B.
In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis causes:
high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat
In an infant, which of the following is frequently the initial indication of congestive heart failure?
Feeding problems
In an infant, which of the following is frequently the initial indication of congestive heart failure?
Feeding problems
In children with a tetralogy of Fallot, why does unoxygenated blood enter the systemic circulation?
Pulmonary stenosis changes the ventricular pressures
In children with a tetralogy of Fallot, why does unoxygenated blood enter the systemic circulation?
Pulmonary stenosis changes the ventricular pressures
In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:
bleeding occurs in the digestive tract
In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they
reduce rennin and aldosterone secretion
In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they
reduce rennin and aldosterone secretion
In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?
Decreased vagal stimulation
In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from
onset of circulatory shock
In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from
onset of circulatory shock
In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?
Pulmonary capillaries
In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?
Pulmonary capillaries
In which condition is a deficit of protein and vitamins most likely to occur?
Regional ileitis
in which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
the spinothalmic tract
in which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
the spinothalmic tract
In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
liver
Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
insufficient surfactant production
Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because
capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.
intractable pain is best described as
severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication
intractable pain is best described as
severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication
lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo
atrophy
lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo
atrophy
Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:
hoarse voice and barking cough
Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
Streptococcus pneumonia
Local effects relate to
the pressure of the mass (e.g., ischemia and necrosis, obstruction, or pain).
Low-density lipoproteins or L D L:
promote atheroma development
Low-density lipoproteins or L D L:
promote atheroma development
Malignant brain tumors
Spread to other parts of CNS
Malignant neoplasms
usually consist of more primitive cells that are reproducing more rapidly, and they spread by invasion or metastases. Systemic effects are present.
Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
damage to the intestinal villi
Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:
decrease venous return to the heart
Modifiable factor that increase the risk for atherosclerosis include:
sedentary lifestyle
Modifiable factor that increase the risk for atherosclerosis include:
sedentary lifestyle
More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is cause by
an embolus
More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is cause by
an embolus
Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
cellular energy
Normally, which of the following is reabsorbed completely from the filtrate?
glucose
Obstruction in the upper airway is indicated by:
stridor
One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to
determine the best treatment and prognosis
Opportunistic infection may develop when
a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body
Oral candidiasis is considered to:
be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
Orthopnea is:
difficulty breathing in a recumbent position
Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because of
the tumor's hidden location and lack of signs until it is large in size or metastasis has occurred, as well as its rapid growth and early spread.
Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because:
PO2 is lower in the blood.
Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because:
PO2 is lower in the blood.
pain percieved in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of
referred pain
pain percieved in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of
referred pain
Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:
at the head of the pancreas
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by
hemoptsis and rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by
hemoptsis and rales
Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:
result in a small, hard stool
pathophysiology involves the study of
functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes
pathophysiology involves the study of
functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes
Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause: air trapping, atelectasis, repeated infections, irreversible damage to lung tissue.
D, All of the above
Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because
thrombus form in a vein and is asymptomatic
Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because
thrombus form in a vein and is asymptomatic
place the following statements regarding rh incompatibility in the correct sequence.
fetal r h positive cells enter maternal blood. antibodies to r h positive cells form in the maternal blood. maternal r h antibodies enter the fetal circulation. hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur. elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in fetus.
place the following statements regarding rh incompatibility in the correct sequence.
fetal r h positive cells enter maternal blood. antibodies to r h positive cells form in the maternal blood. maternal r h antibodies enter the fetal circulation. hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur. elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in fetus.
Pleurisy associated with lobar pneumonia is manifested by:
cyclic chest pain and friction rub
Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:
bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile
Prions are transmitted by blood and
ingestion of contaminated meat
Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
of reduced blood flow
Prolonged vomiting cause a state of acidosis due to:
catabolism of proteins and lipids
Prophylactic antibacterial drugs such as amoxicillin are given to those with certain congenital heart defects or damaged heart valves immediately before invasive procedures to prevent
infections endocarditis
Prophylactic antibacterial drugs such as amoxicillin are given to those with certain congenital heart defects or damaged heart valves immediately before invasive procedures to prevent
infections endocarditis
Pulmonary edema causes severe hypoxia because of:
increasing difficulty expanding the lungs
Radiation therapy destroys
primarily rapidly dividing cells
Radiation therapy may be provided by
external sources such as a cobalt machine or by internal implants of material such as radioactive radium.
Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which
signs and symptoms are absent
Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a preventative measure
routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a preventative measure
Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent
SARS typically begins as a flulike syndrome followed after a few days by:
interstitial lung congestion, dyspnea, and dry cough
Secondary bacterial infections such as
pneumonia are common, particularly in the elderly.
Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker
colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen CEA
Select the statement related to tuberculosis:
The microbe is an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.
Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that it is frequently manifested by
fever and flushed face
Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that it is frequently manifested by
fever and flushed face
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:
Coronavirus
Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis usually include:
severe localized pain and tenderness in the face
Staging of a tumor at the time of diagnosis is based on
the size of the primary tumor, the involvement of nearby lymph nodes, and the presence of distant metastases. Staging is used as a guide to treatment and prognosis.
Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus, frank blood, and pus are typical of:
ulcerative colitis
Systemic effects of malignant tumors include
weight loss, anemia, fatigue, and paraneoplastic syndrome.
Tetany may develop in patients with acute pancreatitis because:
calcium ions bind with fatty acids in necrotic tissue
The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is considered to be:
an abnormality of the exocrine glands
the best definition of an ischemia is
a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction
the best definition of an ischemia is
a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction
the best definition of the term prognosis is the
predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
the best definition of the term prognosis is the
predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
The carcinogenic process is based on
exposure, first to initiating factors and later to promoters, each of which contributes to changes in cell DNA, creating a malignant neoplasm.
The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be
idiopathic
The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be
idiopathic
The central chemoreceptors are normally most sensitive to:
elevated carbon dioxide level
The classic early manifestations of left-sided congestive heart failure are what, whereas the early indicators of right-sided failure are what?
Shortness of breath on exertion or lying down, swelling of the ankles
The classic early manifestations of left-sided congestive heart failure are what, whereas the early indicators of right-sided failure are what?
Shortness of breath on exertion or lying down, swelling of the ankles
The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include
obstruction of a tube or duct; cell necrosis and ulceration 1, 3
The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means
the patient is at high risk for infection
The early stage of vomiting causes:
metabolic alkalosis
the impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by
myelinated A delta fibers
the impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by
myelinated A delta fibers
The incubation period refers to the time period between
entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease
the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
signs and symptoms of a disease
the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
signs and symptoms of a disease
The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
vital capacity
The micturition reflex is initiated by:
increased pressure distending the bladder
The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are
thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
The mutated gene for cystic fibrosis is located on the:
seventh chromosome
The normal delay in conduction through the atriovenricular node is essential for:
completing ventricular filling
The normal delay in conduction through the atriovenricular node is essential for:
completing ventricular filling
The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:
Increased stimulation of mucous-producing glands
The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is
inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium
The principle of Universal Precautions is based on
assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection
The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with
an irreversible change in the cell DNA
The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:
atrial natriuretic hormone, antidiuretic hormone. C, 1 and 2.
The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the: upper and lower respiratory tracts, nasal cavities, and the sinuses, nasopharynx and oropharynx, middle ear cavity and auditory tube
E, all of the above
The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of
large infarction in the right ventricle, advanced COPD. 3, 4.
The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of
large infarction in the right ventricle, advanced COPD. 3, 4.
The size of the nectoric area resulting from myocardial infarction maybe minimized by all of the following except
removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development
The size of the nectoric area resulting from myocardial infarction maybe minimized by all of the following except
removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development
The structure of a virus includes
a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:
intussusceptions
The term apoptosis refers to
preprogrammed cell death
the term cancer refers to
malignant neoplasm
the term cancer refers to
malignant neoplasm
the term disease refers to
a deviation from the normal state of health and function
the term disease refers to
a deviation from the normal state of health and function
the term homeostasis refers to
maintenance of a stable internal environment
the term homeostasis refers to
maintenance of a stable internal environment
The term nosocomial infection means
acquired in a hospital or medical facility
the term primagravida refers to
a woman who is pregnant for the first time
the term primagravida refers to
a woman who is pregnant for the first time
the term prognosis refers to the
expected outcome of a disease
the term prognosis refers to the
expected outcome of a disease
The use of a continuous positive airway pump in the treatment of sleep apnea will:
prevent collapse of pharyngeal tissues
The visceral peritoneum:
forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines
The warning signs for cancer include
all of the above are warning signs
to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
per-programmed cell self-destruction
to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
per-programmed cell self-destruction
To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
liver
Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes
sexual intercourse
Treatment may involve
any or all of surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy.
Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
congestive heart failure
Urinary casts are present with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis because of:
inflamed tubules mold RBCs and protein into a typical mass
Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because
edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area
Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because
edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area
Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from
relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles
Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from
relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles
Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because
the gastrointestinal tract is irritated and the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. A, b
What are common signs of cor pulmonale?
hepatomegaly and edema in the legs
What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.
What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
What are early signs of circulatory shock?
Pale, moist skin, anxiety and restlessness. 1, 3
What are early signs of circulatory shock?
Pale, moist skin, anxiety and restlessness. 1, 3
What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
Sarcomas
What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?
hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
What are typical pathological changes with bronchiectasis?
airway obstructions are weak, dilated bronchial walls
What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?
sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva
What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
Chronic infection has developed
What cause the expanded A-P thoracic diameter (barrel chest) in patients with emphysema?
air trapping and hyperinflation
What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
Necrosis of liver cells
What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
Activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?
Inflamed peritoneum resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
What causes the dark urine associated with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
increased glomerular permeability resulting in gross hematuria
What does a vaccine contain?
Attenuated or dead pathogens or their toxins
What does carbaminohemoglobin refer to?
carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin molecule
What does carbaminohemoglobin refer to?
carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin molecule
What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle in the pylorus
What does esophageal atresia cause?
No fluid or food entering the stomach
What does hydronephrosis lead to?
ischemia and fibrosis in the compressed area
What does leukocytosis frequently indicate
presence of bacterial infection
What does the defecation reflex require?
Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
What does the term arteriosclerosis specifically refer to?
Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries
What does the term arteriosclerosis specifically refer to?
Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries
What does the term Cardiac Arrest mean?
cessation of all cardiac function
What does the term Cardiac Arrest mean?
cessation of all cardiac function
What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
Formation of glucose through protein and fat
What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
What does the term intermittent claudication refer to?
Ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise
What does the term intermittent claudication refer to?
Ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise
What does the term melena mean?
Blood in a dark-colored stool
What does the term preload refer to?
Volume of venous return
What does the term preload refer to?
Volume of venous return
What does the term PVC mean?
Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle
What does the term PVC mean?
Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle
What factors contribute to headache, anorexia, and lethargy with kidney disease?
1, 2, 3, 41. increased blood pressure2. elevated serum urea3. anemia4. acidosis
What factors contribute to headache, anorexia, and lethargy with kidney disease?
increased blood pressure, elevated serum urea, anemia, acidosis. 1, 2, 3, 4. All of the above.
What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm relaxes?
Air is forced out of the lungs.
What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm relaxes?
Air is forced out of the lungs.
What indicates compensation for shock?
Increased heart rate and oliguria
What indicates compensation for shock?
Increased heart rate and oliguria
What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?
Accumulation of fat in the hepatocytes and hepatomegaly
What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
Lipoma
What is a cause of acute tubule necrosis and acute renal failure?
prolonged circulatory shock, sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins, crush injuries or burns. All of the above.
what is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
codeine
what is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
codeine
What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
Increased intra-abdominal pressure
What is a common indicator of cystic fibrosis in the newborn?
failure to excrete meconium
What is a large-sized pulmonary embolus likely to cause?
ral effusion and atelectasis
What is a prolonged period of shock likely to cause?
Damage and increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries
What is a prolonged period of shock likely to cause?
Damage and increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries
What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material?
rapid loss of consciousness
What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?
Occult blood in the stool
what is an acute episode of a chronic disease called
an exacerbation
what is an acute episode of a chronic disease called
an exacerbation
What is an early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma?
chronic cough
What is atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries likely to cause?
Gangrenous ulcers in the leg, intermittent claudication. 1, 3
What is atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries likely to cause?
Gangrenous ulcers in the leg, intermittent claudication. 1, 3
What is caused by frequent inhalation of irritating particles such as silica?
fibrosis and loss of compliance
What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?
Increased systemic vasoconstriction
What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?
Increased systemic vasoconstriction
What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?
Hematemesis and hypotension
What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases?
decompensated respiratory acidosis
What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases? serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28), PCO2 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45), serum pH 7.0
decompensated respiratory acidosis
What is the cardiac reserve?
The ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed
What is the cardiac reserve?
The ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed
What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the larger airways
What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
idiopathic
What is the cause of Legionnaires' disease?
a gram-negative bacterium
What is the definition of achalasia?
Lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
what is the definition of endorphins?
opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
what is the definition of endorphins?
opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?
Gluten-free
What is the first change in arterial blood gases with diarrhea?
Decreased bicarbonate ion
What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by kidney disease?
increased carbonic acid, increased bicarbonate ion, pH less than 7.35, decreased bicarbonate ion. A, b, c, d. all of the above.
What is the function of the baroreceptors? To:
signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure
What is the function of the baroreceptors? To:
signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure
What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
what is the likely cause of painless, bright red, vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
placenta previa
what is the likely cause of painless, bright red, vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
placenta previa
What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?
Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?
Cardiac arrhythmias
What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?
Cardiac arrhythmias
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
influenza virus
What is the most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins?
Increased venous pressure
What is the most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins?
Increased venous pressure
What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
HCV
What is the outcome for many aortic aneurysms?
Rupture and hemorrhage
What is the outcome for many aortic aneurysms?
Rupture and hemorrhage
What is the pathophysiology of an acute attack of extrinsic asthma?
type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?
decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?
Portal hypertension
What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
Deficit in vitamin k and prothrombin
What is the primary reason for amputation of gangrenous toes or feet in patients with peripheral vascular disease?
Prevents spread of infection and reduces pain
What is the primary reason for amputation of gangrenous toes or feet in patients with peripheral vascular disease?
Prevents spread of infection and reduces pain
What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?
a deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia
what is the role in nociceptors? they are
pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means
what is the role in nociceptors? they are
pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means
what is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action?
pain tolerance
what is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action?
pain tolerance
what is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
the mother's blood is r h negative and the fetus is r h positive
what is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
the mother's blood is r h negative and the fetus is r h positive
what is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth? it is
termed the gestation period
what is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth? it is
termed the gestation period
What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
Increased intra-abdominal pressure
What method do viruses use to replicate?
Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
Lower left quadrant. Llq.
What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
Epithelial cells
What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause?
Angina attacks
What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause?
Angina attacks
What would an incompetent mitral valve cause?
Decreased output from the left ventricle
What would an incompetent mitral valve cause?
Decreased output from the left ventricle
What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gall bladder?
Leakage of intestinal bacteria into the blood and the peritoneal cavity.
What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys?
gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia
What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
the kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions
What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
Occult blood in the stool and anemia
What would hypercapnia cause?
respiratory acidosis
What would hypercapnia cause?
respiratory acidosis
What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?
Serum p h below normal range
What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?
Serum p h below normal range
when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
necrosis
when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
necrosis
When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:
sliding hernia
When a respiratory infection with high fever is present in the body, how would the kidney tubules maintain normal pH of body fluids?
Secrete more acids and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions.
When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
Viral infection
When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a
pandemic
When comparing angina with myocardial infarction, which statement is true?
Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerine; the pain of M I is not. True!
When comparing angina with myocardial infarction, which statement is true?
Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerine; the pain of M I is not. True!
When comparing normal kidney function with dialysis, which of the following mechanisms is not possible in dialysis?
active transport
When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?
Serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35
When do clinical signs of infection appear?
When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host
When does active (secondary) infection by M. tuberculosis with tissue destruction occur?
Host resistance is decreased for any reason.
When does flail chest occur?
Several ribs are fractured at two sites.
When does shock follow myocardial infarction?
A large portion of the myocardium is damaged
When does shock follow myocardial infarction?
A large portion of the myocardium is damaged
When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
secretin
When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension most likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?
Blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90
When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension most likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?
Blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90
When patients with chronic hypercapnia are administered oxygen:
blood levels of oxygen should remain slightly below normal
when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
infarction
when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
infarction
When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
Increased heart rate
When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
Increased heart rate
Whenever PO2 levels decrease below normal, then PCO2 levels:
may or may not change
Where is uncontrolled hypertension most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function?
Kidney, brains, and retinas of the eye
Where is uncontrolled hypertension most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function?
Kidney, brains, and retinas of the eye
Which are the first arteries to branch off the aorta?
Coronary arteries
Which are the first arteries to branch off the aorta?
Coronary arteries
Which area of the body is considered sterile?
Stomach
Which change results from total heart block?
spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
Which change results from total heart block?
spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
cystitis
Which disease would cause an increased ASO titer and elevated serum ASK?
acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Which drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?
Acetylsalicylic acid A S A
Which drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?
Acetylsalicylic acid A S A
Which event causes the QRS wave on an ECG tracing?
Ventricular depolarization
Which event causes the QRS wave on an ECG tracing?
Ventricular depolarization
Which factor contributes to severe anemia in individuals with chronic renal failure?
limited protein intake
Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?
Compressed pelvic veins
Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?
Compressed pelvic veins
Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
Degree of differentiation of the cells
Which factor usually causes metabolic acidosis to develop in association with hypoxia?
anaerobic metabolism
Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
Which factors contribute to postoperative atelectasis?
drug-related respiratory depression, abdominal distention and pain. B, 2 and 3
Which is a common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications?
Orthostatic hypotension
Which is a common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications?
Orthostatic hypotension
which is the best definition of congestive heart failure?
inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
which is the best definition of congestive heart failure?
inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
Which manifestation(s) of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?
decreased breath sounds on the affected side
Which of the following actions causes the AV valves to close?
Increased intraventricular pressure
Which of the following actions causes the AV valves to close?
Increased intraventricular pressure
Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
quiet expiration
Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
quiet expiration
which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
acetaminophen
which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
acetaminophen
Which of the following applies to anthrax infection?
when it is inhaled it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory distress
Which of the following applies to cleft palate?
The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy
Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands
Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
the drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord
which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
the drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord
Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
Requires coordination of cranial nerves five, nine, ten and twelve
Which of the following applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?
PO2 is low.
Which of the following applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?
PO2 is low.
Which of the following apply to subacute infective endocarditis?
A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves
Which of the following apply to subacute infective endocarditis?
A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves
Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
It is an obligate intracellular parasite, It contains RNA, there are three subtypes - A, B, C. 1, 2, 4
Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
2 3 4; damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, prosthetic valves
Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
2 3 4; damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, prosthetic valves
Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
pruritic skin and light-colored stools
Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?
chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
which of the following are significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure?
edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly
which of the following are significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure?
edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly
Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction?
Persistent chest pain radiating the the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction?
Persistent chest pain radiating the the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
Which of the following are typical of chronic bronchitis?
fibrosis of the bronchial wall
Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?
Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
Which of the following best describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis
Which of the following best describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis
Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
peptidase
which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
hypoxia, exposure to excessive cold, excessive pressure on tissue, chemical toxins. 1, 2, 3, 4!
which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
hypoxia, exposure to excessive cold, excessive pressure on tissue, chemical toxins. 1, 2, 3, 4!
Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
epinephrine
Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
epinephrine
Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells
Which of the following compensationsthat develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?
Faster heart rate and cardiomegaly, peripheral vasoconstriction, increased secretion of renin. A, b, and c.
Which of the following compensationsthat develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?
Faster heart rate and cardiomegaly, peripheral vasoconstriction, increased secretion of renin. A, b, and c.
which of the following conditions distinguishes double-blind studies used in health research?
neither the members of the control group or the experimental group, nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy
which of the following conditions distinguishes double-blind studies used in health research?
neither the members of the control group or the experimental group, nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy
Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG
Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG
Which of the following confirms the presence of active (reinfection) tuberculosis?
identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample
Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?
vesicoureteral reflux
Which of the following could be the source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain?
Carotid artery
Which of the following could be the source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain?
Carotid artery
Which of the following describes blood flow occurring with a ventricular septal defect?
From the left ventricle to the right ventricle
Which of the following describes blood flow occurring with a ventricular septal defect?
From the left ventricle to the right ventricle
Which of the following describes lobar pneumonia?
sudden onset of fever and chills, with rales and rusty sputum
Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?
afferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the efferent arteriole
Which of the following describes the flow of filtrate in the kidney?
Bowman's capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle
Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity correctly?
It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid
Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity correctly?
It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid
Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.
Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?
Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe malaise.
Which of the following does NOT apply to carbon dioxide?
It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.
Which of the following does not directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
Capacity for opportunism
Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
Hydrochlorothiazide Hydro DIURIL
Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
Hydrochlorothiazide Hydro DIURIL
Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficient by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?
Digoxin
Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficient by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?
Digoxin
Which of the following drugs in an inhaler would likely be carried by individuals to provide immediate control of acute asthma attacks?
a beta-2-adrenergic agent
Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a patient with active tuberculosis?
Isoniazid
Which of the following effects may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug?
Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart
Which of the following effects may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug?
Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart
Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
Which of the following frequently occurs 2-3 hours after meals in post-gastrectomy patients?
hypoglycemia
Which of the following functions would be impaired when tubular epithelial cells have been damaged?
adjusting the specific gravity of the urine
which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
very low GFR and increased serum urea
Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
very low GFR and increased serum urea
Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
An individual with allergy to shellfish
Which of the following individuals is NOT considered to be at high risk for developing active tuberculosis?
persons who experience acute asthma attacks
Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
Cells appear relatively normal
Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
Different species inhabit various areas of the body
Which of the following is a common source of a pulmonary embolus?
thrombus forming in the femoral veins
Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:
increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
Pain erythema, and swelling
Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
Long-term exposure to certain chemicals
Which of the following is a major factor contributing to the current increase in cases of tuberculosis?
the increase in immunodeficient individuals
Which of the following is a manifestation of a simple closed pneumothorax?
asymmetrical chest movements
Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
which of the following is a serious complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
which of the following is a serious complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Which of the following is a sign of aortic stenosis?
A heart murmur
Which of the following is a sign of aortic stenosis?
A heart murmur
Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?
hemoptysis and weight loss
Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?
Severe steady abdominal pain
Which of the following is an effect of a large open pneumothorax (sucking wound)?
mediastinal flutter
which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
fever
which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
fever
Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?
Ventricular fibrillation
Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?
Ventricular fibrillation
Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
Bicarbonate ion
Which of the following is likely to cause pneumothorax or hemothorax in a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma?
The tumor causes inflammation and erosion of the pleural membranes.
Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
uncontrolled essential hypertension
Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
uncontrolled essential hypertension
Which of the following is NOT a cause of pulmonary edema?
hyperproteinemia and increasing osmotic pressure of the blood
Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
Anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
production of albumin
Which of the following is not classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
Tinea pedis
Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?
nephrosclerosis
Which of the following is not true of the drug nitroglycerine?
It strengthens the myocardial contraction. Not true!
Which of the following is not true of the drug nitroglycerine?
It strengthens the myocardial contraction. Not true!
Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
Esophageal varicies
Which of the following is related to Wilms' tumor?
a genetic defect
which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
Proximal duodenum
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
Ileum
Which of the following is typical of progressive emphysema?
Residual lung volume increases.
which of the following is usually included in medical history?
past illnesses or surgeries, current illnesses, acute and chronic, prescribed medication or other treatments, nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies, current allergies.
which of the following is usually included in medical history?
past illnesses or surgeries, current illnesses, acute and chronic, prescribed medication or other treatments, nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies, current allergies.
Which of the following is/are (a) manifestation(s) of hemolytic jaundice?
Increased unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
Which of the following manifestations is usually present with influenza but not with the common cold?
generalized skeletal muscle aching, headache, marked fatigue
Which of the following may cause pericarditis?
Infection, abnormal immune responses, injury, malignant neoplasm. 1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the following may cause pericarditis?
Infection, abnormal immune responses, injury, malignant neoplasm. 1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the following occur as compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure?
Increased renin and aldosterone secretions
Which of the following occur as compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure?
Increased renin and aldosterone secretions
which of the following occurs frequently with acute pain but not with chronic pain?
a stress response
which of the following occurs frequently with acute pain but not with chronic pain?
a stress response
Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?
the liver is inflamed and enlarged
Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?
depression of the cough and swallow reflexes by drugs
Which of the following relates to polycystic kidney disease?
It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure.
Which of the following represents the pathophysiologic changes in the heart in cases of rheumatic fever?
An abnormal immune response, causing acute inflammation in all layers of the heart.
Which of the following represents the pathophysiologic changes in the heart in cases of rheumatic fever?
An abnormal immune response, causing acute inflammation in all layers of the heart.
Which of the following results from decreased blood flow into the kidneys?
increased angiotensin and systemic vasoconstriction
Which of the following results from increased secretion of epinephrine?
Increased heart rate and force of contraction
Which of the following results from increased secretion of epinephrine?
Increased heart rate and force of contraction
Which of the following should be present in the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule?
sodium and potassium ions
Which of the following statements about jaundice is/are true?
Four only. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins
Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
It causes a common STD
Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses
which of the following statements apply to eclampsia?
blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur
which of the following statements apply to eclampsia?
blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur
Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of adult respiratory distress syndrome?
damage leading to increased permeability of the alveolar walls, excessive fluid and protein interstitially and in the alveoli. B, 1 and 3
Which of the following statements does NOT apply to M. tuberculosis?
Microbes can survive for a long time inside tubercles.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Active TB must be treated in hospital for many months.
which of the following statements is true?
damaged cells may be able to repair themselves
which of the following statements is true?
young infants respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure
which of the following statements is true?
young infants respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure
which of the following statements is true?
damaged cells may be able to repair themselves
Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms is true?
Manifestations of aneurysms result from compression of adjacent structures. True!
Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms is true?
Manifestations of aneurysms result from compression of adjacent structures. True!
Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
Vagus nerve
Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
loop of Henle
Which of the following values for arterial blood gases would be expected in a patient with advanced emphysema?
increased PCO2, increased bicarbonate ion, serum pH 7.35
Which of the following values is always decreased with respiratory alkalosis (compensated or decompensated)?
PaCO2
which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?
Specific changes in the ECG, elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum. 1, 3
Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?
Specific changes in the ECG, elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum. 1, 3
Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?
sputum containing TB bacilli
Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
persistent bilateral glomerulonephritis
Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?
respiratory alkalosis
Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?
respiratory alkalosis
Which pathophysiologic process applies to acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
immune complexes deposit in glomerular tissue, causing inflammation
Which statement about the bladder is TRUE?
Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.
Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position
Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position
Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
may cause opportunistic infections in the body
Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?
Attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction
Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?
Attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction
Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?
The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
antidiuretic hormone
which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?
complication
which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?
complication
Which term refers to obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones?
choledocholithiasis
Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
Metastasis
Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?
HDV
Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
HBV and HCV
Why are septic emboli a common complication of infective endocarditis?
Vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.
Why are septic emboli a common complication of infective endocarditis?
Vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.
why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
to develop preventative measures
why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
to develop preventative measures
Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?
Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow
Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?
Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow
Why does blood pressure often remain near normal in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
Hypoproteinemia results in significant fluid shift to the interstitial compartment.
Why does cor pulmonale develop with chronic pulmonary disease?
Pulmonary fibrosis and vasoconstriction increase vascular resistance.
Why does cyanosis occur in children with tetralogy of Fallot?
A large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated
Why does cyanosis occur in children with tetralogy of Fallot?
A large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated
Why does hypercalcemia occur with bronchogenic carcinoma?
secretion of parathyroid or like hormone by the tumor
Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?
The immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough
Why does neurogenic, also known as vasogenic shock, result from systemic vasodilation?
Increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return
Why does neurogenic, also known as vasogenic shock, result from systemic vasodilation?
Increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return
Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed
Why does pericarditis cause a reduction in cardiac output?
Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity decreases ventricular filling.
Why does pericarditis cause a reduction in cardiac output?
Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity decreases ventricular filling.
Why does shock develop in patients with severe burns?
Pain and loss of plasma
Why does shock develop in patients with severe burns?
Pain and loss of plasma
Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?
Viral mutation reduces immunity from prior infections.
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
Insufficient blood is supplies to the myocardium
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
Insufficient blood is supplies to the myocardium
Wilms' tumor is:
an encapsulated mass in one kidney
With a flail chest injury, events during inspiration include:
the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side
With a tension pneumothorax, which factors contribute to severe hypoxia?
continually increasing pressure on the unaffected lung
With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
With shock, anaerobic cell metabolism and decreased renal blood flow cause
metabolic acidosis
With shock, anaerobic cell metabolism and decreased renal blood flow cause
metabolic acidosis