final part II
101. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
104. What is the first change in arterial blood gases with diarrhea?
decreased bicarbonate ion
105. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
106. What does esophageal atresia cause?
no fluid or food entering the stomach
107. Oral candidiasis is considered to:
be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
108. Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
110. Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
an individual with an allergy to shellfish
111. Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
112. Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.
Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
long-term exposure to certain chemicals
114. How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
chronic blood loss in stools
What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
116. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
117. To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
118. Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:
result in a small, hard stool
What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
120. When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?
serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35
Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
erosion of a large blood vessel
Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
124. Which term refers to obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones?
Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
126. Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
pruritic skin and light-colored stools
127. What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
128. When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:
Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
130. The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:
131. Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
loop of Henle
132. Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.
Which of the following functions would be impaired when tubular epithelial cells have been damaged?
reabsorbing the plasma proteins
135. Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
137. What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney?
138. Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?
139. When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:
serum pH dropping below 7.35
140. Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
congestive heart failure
141. Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
142. Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:
one kidney provides more than adequate function
Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
inability to understand what is heard
145. Where are beta-1 adrenergic receptors located?
146. What does a vegetative state refer to?
loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?
pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
148. What is the typical change in blood pressure with increased intracranial pressure?
increasing pulse pressure
A brain tumor causes headache because the tumor:
stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls
150. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?
clear and colorless fluid
151. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurologic function return?
1, 2, 3, 41. presence of collateral circulation2. immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion3. reduced inflammation in the area4. development of alternative neuronal pathways
152. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
153. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?
progressive fatigue and weakness
An accurate assessment of the extent of permanent spinal cord damage can usually be completed:
approximately 10 days to 2 weeks following injury if no complications arise
Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds.
157. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
tremors, weakness in the legs, visual problems
Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?
Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
161. Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children?
162. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson's disease?
loss of vision
What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
164. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
acidosis and hypovolemia
165. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?
2, 32. It is related to elevated serum lipids.3. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.
166. Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
Type I diabetics
167. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
deficit of T3 and T4
What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism?
1, 21. skeletal muscle twitching or spasm2. weak cardiac contraction
169. Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness
Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
staring eyes with infrequent blinking
171. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
172. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
1, 21. if conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar2. if unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%)
173. All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT:
174. Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
headache and seizures
175. Which of the following cells produce new bone?
176. What is a sign of a dislocation?
deformity at a joint
Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
steady, severe, and persisting with rest
What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
Which statement defines a sprain? A tear in a ___________:
183. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
184. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
silvery plaques on an erythematous base
186. How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?
limiting the acute stage and viral shedding
Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:
What condition does human papillomavirus cause?
Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
190. The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
noting the location and size of the lesion
191. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
both a and binfertilitytesticular cancer
Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
193. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
non invasive severe dysplasia
What is the cause of syphilis?
an anaerobic spirochete
196. How do testicular tumors usually present?
hard, painless unilateral mass
Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
pelvic lymph nodes
Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
prevent any micrometases
199. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis
200. In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?
cervical cancer in situ