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Community Health Nursing NCLEX Questions 2
Primary, Secondary, Tertiary Prevention. Immunizations. AIDS. Community Health Nursing
Terms in this set (52)
Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children
CHN (Community Health Nursing) is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?
A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems
C. The service are based on the available resources within the community
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified
Community-based practice means providing care to people in their own natural environments: the home, school and workplace, for example.
Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?
A. Community organizing .
B. Nursing, process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process
Population-focused nursing care means providing care based on the greater need of the majority of the population. The greater need is identified through community diagnosis.
RA 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from the number of employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation,: agriculture, commercial, industrial
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit
D. Sex and age composition of employees
Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be employed when there are 30 to 100 employees and the workplace is more than 1 km. away from the nearest health center.
A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees.
Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be employed when there are 30 to 100 employees and the workplace is more than 1 km. away from the nearest health center.
"Public health services are given free of charge". Is this statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services
B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services
C. The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required
D. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.
Community health services, including public health services, are prepaid paid services, through taxation, for example.
According to C.E. Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their birthrights of health and longevity
B. For promotion of health and prevention and diseases
C. For people to have access to basic health services
D. For people to be organized in their health efforts
According to Winslow, all public health efforts are for people to realize their birthrights of health and longevity.
Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services
The catchment area in PHN consists of a residential community, many of whom are well individuals who have greater need for preventive rather than curative services.
Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
C. Improve the general health status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020
You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units (LGU's). The public health nurse is an employee of the LGU.
One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to whom she should refer a patient in labor who develops a complication. You will answer, to the;
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer (Physician)
D. Any of these health professionals
A public health nurse and rural health midwife can provide care during normal childbirth. A physician should attend to a woman with a complication during labor.
As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
C. RA 1054
D. RA 1082
Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable Diseases, enacted in 1929, mandated the reporting of diseases listed in the law to the nearest health station.
According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?
A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally
B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services
C. Community health nursing in intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own place of .residence
The community health nurse develops the health capability of people through health education and community organizing activities.
The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?
A. To educate the people regarding community health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
C. To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems
Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of developing the people's self-reliance in dealing with community health problems. A, B and C are objectives of contributory objectives to this goal.
An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to:
A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern
Participation in community activities in resolving a community problem may be in any of the processes mentioned in the other choices.
Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?
Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a disease)
Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect those who are not sick (specific disease prevention).
Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe family dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conferences
C. Home visit
D. Written communication
Dynamics of family relationships can best be observed in the family's natural environment, which is the home.
Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation
C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems
D. It develops the family's initiative in providing for health needs of its members
Choice A is not correct since a home visit requires that the nurse spend so much time with the family. Choice C is an advantage of a group conference, while choice D is true of a clinic consultation.
Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around the family health .needs
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by RHU
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible-family member
The home visit plan should be flexible and practical, depending on factors, such as the family's needs and the resources available to the nurse and the family.
Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
Epidemiology is used in the assessment of a community or evaluation of interventions in community health practice.
Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?
A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease
Epidemiology is the study of patterns of occurrence and distribution of disease in the community, as well as the factors that affect disease patterns. The purpose of an epidemiologic investigation is to identify the source of an epidemic, i.e., what brought about the epidemic.
In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other countries in the Western Pacific Region, "free" of which disease?
A. Pneumonic plaque
C. Small pox
The last documented case of Smallpox was in 1977 at Somalia.
Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach?
A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families
B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health
C. Health workers are able too provide care based on identified health needs of the people
D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community
Primary health care is essential health care that can be sustained in all stages of development of the community.
Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?
Sensitivity is the capacity of a diagnostic examination to detect cases of the disease. If a test is 100% sensitive, all the cases tested will have a positive result, i.e., there will be no false negative results
In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and feminine force is termed:
Yang is the male dominating, positive and masculine force.
Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months
The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15 months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years.
Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus)
B. BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin)
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a permanent scar. BCG Immunity or protection against tuberculosis (TB). The vaccine may be given to persons at high risk of developing TB
What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 3 months
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol
C. Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies resistance
Ordinarily, measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age. During an impending epidemic, however, one dose may be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. The mother is instructed that the baby needs another dose when the baby is 9 months old.
A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do?
A. Do a tourniquet test
B. Ask where the family resides
C. Get a specimen for blood smear
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday
Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client's family resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where he/she was brought and whether he/she stayed overnight in that area.
The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets
Aedes aegypti, the vector of Dengue fever, breeds in stagnant, clear water. Its feeding time is usually during the daytime. It has a cyclical pattern of occurrence, unlike malaria which is endemic in certain parts of the country.
Secondary prevention for malaria includes?
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places
This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level prevention. The other choices are for primary prevention.
Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB (Acid Fast Bacillus)?
B. Fever for 1 week
C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week
A client is considered a PTB (Pulmonary Tuberculosis) suspect when he has cough for 2 weeks or more, plus one or more of the following signs: fever for 1 month or more; chest pain lasting for 2 weeks or more not attributed to other conditions; progressive, unexplained weight loss; night sweats; and hemoptysis
Which clients are considered targets for DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment Short-course) category?
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam
Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum examination and clients diagnosed to have a serious form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, such as TB osteomyelitis.
To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment Short-Course)?
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home
B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake
C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications
D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called because a treatment partner, preferably a health worker accessible to the client, monitors the client's compliance to the treatment.
For prevention of Hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education activities. Which of the following is Irrelevant?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections
Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral route. Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected body secretions like blood and semen.
Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions.
Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which microorganism?
A. Hemophilus Influenzae
C. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides
Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5 years. In developing countries, the peak incidence is in children less than 6 months of age. Morbillivirus is the etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but age distribution is not specific in young children.
Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella
Anopheles mosquitoes breed in slow-moving, clear water, such as mountain streams.
A 32 year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on this history/ which disease condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
A bacterial disease spread through the urine of infected animals. Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.
You are the PHN in the city health center. A client underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result was positive. What is the best course of action that you may take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the practice of high risk behavior
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to reveal the result to the client
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, since the ELISA result maybe false
A client having a reactive ELISA result must undergo a more specific test, such as Western blot. A negative supplementary test result means that the ELISA result was false and that, most probably, the client is not infected.
Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one's sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS
Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the disease by sexual contact with another infected person. Transmission occurs mostly through sexual intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues.
The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsilllopharyngitis?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease characterized by fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy.
To determine the possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview suspects
Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted diseases.
Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an action expected of these drugs?
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition
There is no known treatment for AIDS. Antiretroviral agents reduce the risk of opportunistic infections and prolong life, but does not cure the underlying immunodeficiency.
A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?
a. Advice them on the sign of German Measles
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin
Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant women.
A 43 yo female 12 weeks pregnant presents to her OB-GYN for HIV testing following recent knowledge of her husband's infidelity. She tests positive and becomes increasingly emotional stating "There is no point in me continuing this pregnancy since my baby will be born HIV positive." Given the client's statement what is the best response by the nurse?
A. If that is how you feel we can discuss different options for abortion.
B. While it is true your baby will be born HIV positive, this doesn't mean him or her can't live a happy life.
C. If we start you on a series of medications called antiretrovirals and you stick to your prescribed treatment there is a very small chance your baby will be born HIV positive.
D. There is no reason to worry, your baby can only become HIV positive if he or she is breastfed once born.
Taking treatment properly can reduce the risk of your baby being born with HIV to less than 1%. If you found out that you are HIV-positive before you got pregnant, you may be taking treatment already. If you are not, talk to a healthcare professional about starting treatment straight away. If you found out that you are HIV-positive during your pregnancy, it is recommended that you start treatment immediately and continue taking it every day for life. Your baby will also be given treatment for four to six weeks after they are born to help prevent an HIV infection developing.
A nurse in a health care clinic is preparing to conduct a nutritional session with a group of culturally diverse pregnant women. At the first session the nurse will be meeting with each client individually. The nurse prepares a list of items to be included in the session and lists which item as the first priority?
A. Review the MyPyramid food guide.
B. Weigh each client and ask the client to document the weight on a progress chart.
C. Discuss the costs of food items.
D. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation for each client.
In order to determine each client's nutritional status and needs, the first priority of the nurse is to identify each client's food preferences. Cultural background and knowledge about nutrition are important factors influencing food choices and nutritional status. Although options 1,2 and 3 may be a component of the sessions, option 4 is the first priority.
An ambulatory care nurse is discussing preoperative procedures with a Japanese-American client who is scheduled for surgery the following week. During the discussion, the client continually smiles and nods the head. The nurse interprets this nonverbal behavior as:
A. Reflecting a cultural value
B. An acceptance of the treatment
C. The client is agreeable to the required procedures
D. The client understands the preoperative procedures
Nodding or smiling by a Japanese-American client may reflect only the cultural value of interpersonal harmony. This nonverbal behavior may not be an indication of agreement with the speaker, an acceptance of the treatment, or an understanding of the procedure.
In correcting misconception and myths about certain diseases and their management, the health worker should first:
A. Identify the myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community
B. Identify the source of these myths and misconceptions
C. Explain how and why these myths came about
D. Select appropriate strategies to correct them.
These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month intervals:
A. DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus), BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin), TT (Tetanus Toxoid)
B. DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus), TT (Tetanus Toxoid), OPV (oral polio vaccine)
C. OPV (oral polio vaccine), Hep. B, DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus)
D. Measles, OPV (oral polio vaccine), DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus)
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