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microbiology chapter 12 and 13

STUDY
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Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
A. Broad-spectrum drugs
B. Semi-synthetic drugs
C. Narrow-spectrum drugs
D. Synthetic drugs
E. Antibiotics
Antibiotics
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief or prophylaxis of a disease is called
A. Selective toxicity
B. Chemotherapy
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Prophylaxis
E. Synergism
Chemotherapy
Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include
A. Low toxicity for human tissues
B. Do not cause serious side effects in humans
C. All of the choices are correct
D. Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids
E. High toxicity against microbial cells
All of the choices are correct
Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
A. Herpes zoster virus
B. HIV
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Influenza A virus
E. Hepatitis C virus
HIV
The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called
A. Synergism
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Lantibiotics
D. Prophylaxis
E. Prebiotics
Prophylaxis
Selective toxicity refers to
A. Damage to pathogenic organisms
B. Damage to nucleic acids
C. Damage to prokaryotic cell membranes
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Damage to the target organisms but not vertebrate cells
Damage to the target organisms but not vertebrate cells
What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Isoniazid
E. Vancomycin
Vancomycin
The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold
A. Penicillium notatum
B. Penicilium chrysogenum
C. Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used
D. Penicilium familiaris
E. None of the choices are correct
Penicilium chrysogenum
Each of the following effect cell walls except
A. Cephalosporin
B. Cycloserine
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Penicillin
Erythromycin
Which of the following microbials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?
A. Azidothymidine
B. Quinolone
C. Penicillin
D. Acyclovir
E. Chloroquine
Penicillin
Each of the following target prokaryotic ribosomes except
A. Streptomycin
B. Polymyxins
C. Erythromycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Tetracycline
Polymyxins
A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
A. Penicillinase
B. Synercid
C. Clavulanic acid
D. Aztreonam
E. Imipenem
Clavulanic acid
Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazid
B. Vancomycin
C. Synercid
D. Penicillin G
E. Tetracycline
Isoniazid
Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?
A. Synercid
B. Clarithromycin
C. Linezolid
D. Clindamycin
E. Azithromycin
Linezolid
Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?
A. Quinolones
B. Flucytosine
C. Macrolide polyene antibiotics
D. Griseofulvin
E. Synthetic azoles
Quinolones
The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Nystatin
C. Sulfa drugs
D. Metronidazole
E. Amphotericin B
Amphotericin B
Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A. Trimethroprim
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Tetracyclines
E. Aminoglycosides
Trimethroprim
Antimicrobials that are macrolides
A. Include azithromycin, clarithromcyin and erythromycin
B. Are very narrow-spectrum drugs
C. Are hepatotoxic
D. Disrupt cell membrane function
E. Include tetracyclines
Include azithromycin, clarithromcyin and erythromycin
Mebendazole, thiabendazole and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections
A. Fungal
B. Virus
C. Protozoan
D. Helminthic
E. Bacterial
Helminthic
The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of
A. Lantibiotics
B. Phytobiotics
C. Prebiotics
D. Probiotics
E. Riboswitches
Probiotics
The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Streptomycins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Tetracyclins
Tetracyclins
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include
A. All of the choices are correct
B. Bacterial chromosomal mutations
C. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
D. Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
E. Prevention of drug entry into the cell
All of the choices are correct
Each of the following result in drug resistance except
A. Drug used as a nutrient by the cell
B. Drug binding site altered
C. Drug inactivated
D. Drug blocked from entering cell
E. Drug pumped out of the cell
Drug used as a nutrient by the cell
Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as
A. Riboswitches
B. Lantibiotics
C. Probiotics
D. Phytobiotics
E. Prebiotics
Prebiotics
Which Therapeutic Index value would be the drug of choice?
A. 20
B. 10
C. Any would be equally effective
D. 1
E. 0.1
20
Infection occurs when
A. Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
B. All of the choices are correct
C. Contaminants are present on the skin
D. A person inhales microbes in the air
E. A person swallows microbes in/on food
Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
A. In the air
B. In the food
C. Transmitted form one person to another
D. The patient's own normal biota
E. On fomites
The patient's own normal biota
Normal biota includes each of the following except
A. Protozoan
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. All of the choices are correct
E. Viruses
All of the choices are correct
The affect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called
A. Microbial antagonism
B. Gnotobiotism
C. Infectious disease
D. Endogenous infection
E. Axenic
Microbial antagonism
A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
A. Zoonosis
B. Nosocomial infection
C. Sequelae
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Secondary infection
Zoonosis
Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
A. Micropathogens
B. Opportunistic pathogens
C. Indigenous biota
D. Normal biota
E. True pathogens
True pathogens
Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?
A. Physical and mental stress
B. Old age
C. Chemotherapy
D. Strong, healthy body
E. Genetic defects in immunity
Strong, healthy body
TORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
A. Genera of resident biota
B. Sexually transmitted diseases
C. Portals of entry
D. Vectors
E. Infections of the fetus and neonate
Infections of the fetus and neonate
An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called
A. Axenic
B. Exogenous
C. Endogenous
D. An enterotoxin
E. An exotoxin
Exogenous
An infectious agent already existing on or in the body are called
A. Axenic
B. Exogenous
C. Endogenous
D. An enterotoxin
E. An exotoxin
Endogenous
Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?
A. Fimbriae
B. Adhesive slime or capsules
C. Cilia
D. Specialized receptors
E. Surface proteins
Cilia
Virulence factors include all the following except
A. Exotoxin
B. Ribosomes
C. Capsules
D. Exoenzymes
E. Endotoxin
Ribosomes
Which is mismatched?
A. Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B. Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
C. Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
D. Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E. Hemolysins - damage red blood cells
Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
Keritinase has the greatest effect on the
A. Respiratory system
B. Gastrointestinal system
C. Skin
D. Genital system
E. Urinary system
Skin
_____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.
A. Endotoxins
B. Enterotoxins
C. Exotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. Leukocidins
Endotoxins
_____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
A. Coagulases
B. Kinases
C. Mucinases
D. Keratinases
E. Hyaluronidases
Kinases
The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
A. Prodromal stage
B. Incubation period
C. Period of invasion
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Convalescent stage
Incubation period
The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the
A. Prodromal stage
B. Convalescent stage
C. Period of invasion
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Incubation period
Prodromal stage
Which is mismatched?
A. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
B. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
D. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
E. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an
A. Sign
B. Symptom
C. Inflammation
D. Syndrome
E. Pathology
Sign
Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
A. Decrease
B. Elevation
C. Stabilization
Decrease
A _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
A. Bacteremia
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Septicemia
D. Viremia
Bacteremia
Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called
A. Malaise
B. Inflammation
C. Syndrome
D. Asymptomatic
E. Secondary infection
Asymptomatic
Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease?
A. All of these are normal exit portals
B. Coughing and sneezing
C. Skin
D. Removal of blood
E. Urogenital tract and feces
All of these are normal exit portals
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
A. Vector
B. Source
C. Reservoir
D. Fomite
E. Carrier
Vector
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
A. Fomite
B. Carrier
C. Vector
D. Reservoir
E. Source
Carrier
The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the
A. Carrier
B. Fomite
C. Vector
D. Source
E. Reservoir
Source
Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
A. Sequelae
B. Chronically
C. Latent
D. Directly
E. Indirectly
Sequelae
Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Aerosols
C. Fomites
D. Biological vectors
E. Mechanical vectors
Biological vectors
The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the
A. Epidemic rate
B. Morbidity rate
C. Mortality rate
D. Prevalence rate
E. Incidence rate
Incidence rate
_____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
A. Incubation
B. Asymptomatic
C. Passive
D. Chronic
E. Convalescent
Convalescent
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
A. Fomite
B. Source
C. Vector
D. Reservoir
E. Carrier
Fomite
The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Mechanical vectors
C. Biological vectors
D. Fomites
E. Aerosols
Droplet nuclei
A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is
A. Sporadic
B. Endemic
C. Chronic
D. Pandemic
E. Epidemic
Endemic
The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.
A. Incidence
B. Mortality
C. Pandemic
D. Endemic
E. Morbidity
Morbidity
Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
A. Broad-spectrum drugs
B. Narrow-spectrum drugs
C. Antibiotics
D. Semisynthetic drugs
E. Synthetic drugs
Broad-spectrum drugs
Clavulanic acid
A. Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Inhibits cell membrane synthesis
D. Inhibits formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages
E. Inhibits B-lactamase activity
Inhibits B-lactamase activity
All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
A. Are synthetic drugs
B. Have a beta-lactam ring
C. Greater resistance to beta-lactamases
D. Many administered by injection not orally
E. Newer generations have activity against gram negatives
Are synthetic drugs
Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. Penicillins
B. Clavamox
C. Cephalosporins
D. Vancomycin
E. Gentamicin
Gentamicin
What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Clindamycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Bacitracin
E. Streptomycin
Bacitracin
Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause
A. Superinfections
B. All of the choices are correct
C. Drug toxicity
D. Allergic reactions
E. Nephrotoxicity
Superinfections
Which of the following is not true of polymyxins?
A. Source is Bacillus polymyxa
B. Narrow spectrum
C. Can treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram negative rods
D. Toxic to kidneys
E. Target cell walls
Target cell walls
Acyclovir is used to treat
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. HIV
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Influenza A virus
Herpes simplex virus
A super-infection results from
A. Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
B. Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
C. All of the choices are correct
D. The wrong drug administered to the patient
E. An immune system reaction to the drug
Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called
the
A. Antibiogram
B. Therapeutic index (TI)
C. MIC
D. Kirby-Bauer
E. E-test
Therapeutic index (TI)
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota
A. Before birth, in utero
B. When an infant gets its first infectious disease
C. During puberty
D. When a child first goes to school
E. During and immediately after birth
During and immediately after birth
Resident biota are found in/on the
A. Skin
B. Mouth
C. Nasal passages
D. All of the choices are correct
E. Large intestine
All of the choices are correct
Each of the following are inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
A. Bottle feeding
B. All of the choices are correct
C. The birth process through the birth canal
D. Breast feeding
E. Contact with hospital staff
All of the choices are correct
The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
A. Respiratory system
B. Genital system
C. Urinary system
D. Skin
E. Gastrointestinal system
Respiratory system
The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the
A. Indigenous biota
B. Minimal dose
C. Infectious dose
D. Endotoxin
E. Virulence factor
Infectious dose
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A. Exocytosis
B. Adhesion
C. Encapsulation
D. Phagocytosis
E. Margination
Phagocytosis
Exotoxins are
A. Lipopolysaccharides
B. Proteins secreted by living bacterial cells
C. Secretions that always target nervous tissue
D. Antiphagocytic factors
E. Only released after a cell is damaged or lysed
Proteins secreted by living bacterial cells
Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Toxinosis
C. Hemolysin
D. Lipopolysaccharide
E. Collagenase
Lipopolysaccharide
The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is
A. Incubation period
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Prodromal stage
D. Convalescent stage
E. Period of invasion
Period of invasion
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
A. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents
B. Are only transmitted by medical personnel
C. Often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions
D. The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent
E. Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
...
The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
A. Pathology
B. Clinical microbiology
C. Medicine
D. Epidemiology
E. Immunology
Epidemiology
______ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease
A. Chronic
B. Asymptomatic
C. Incubation
D. Passive
E. Convalescent
Chronic