745 terms

Pumping Apparatus Driver/Operator 2nd edition ch 2-16

all in one place
Once an apparatus is placed in service it should be tested at least how often to ensure it will continue perform properly under emergency conditions?
At least yearly
What industry requires the apparatus is tested yearly to adjust the rates in its jurisdiction?
Insurance Industry
Apparatus tests can be grouped into what two groups of tests?
- Preservice tests
- Service tests
These tests assure the purchaser that the pump and pump components will operate properly under normal use. These tests can be grouped into the categories of manufacturer's tests, certification tests, and acceptance tests.
Preservice tests
What NFPA standards are used for most apparatus bid specifications?
- NFPA 1901 Auto fire apparatus
- NFPA 1906 Wildland apparatus
Who generally performs manufacturer's and certification tests?
- Manufacturer
- Underwriters Laboratories personnel
If NFPA 1901 is included in the bid specifications, what are the other two tests, other than the pump certifications tests, are to be performed?
- Road test
- Hydrostatic test
At a minimum, to meet the NFPA 1901 road test, what criteria must the apparatus be able to meet?
- accelerate to 35mph from a standing start within 25 seconds.
- Achieve a minimum top speed of 50 mph.
- Come to a full stop from 20mph within 35 feet.
- Apparatus parking break must conform to the specifications listed by the braking system manufacturer.
What is the hydrostatic test to determine?
Whether the pump and pump piping can withstand pressures normally encountered during fire fighting operations.
Pumps are tested hydrostatically at ___psi for _ minutes.
250 psi; 3
Test performed to make sure that the fire pump system operates in the manner for which it was designed after the pump and components are installed on the apparatus chassis.
Pump Certification Tests
Who conducts apparatus pump certification tests?
An independent testing organization such as Underwriters Laboratories
Where are the results the pump certification test results required to be placed?
Stamped into a plate that is affixed to the pump panel of the apparatus.
What pump certification tests does NFPA 1901 require for apparatus with 750 gpm pumps or larger?
- Pumping test
- Pumping Engine overload test
- Pressure control system test
- Priming device test
-Vacuum test
- Water tank-to-pump test
- Internal intake pressure relief valve test
According to NFPA 1901, apparatus with a pump capacity less than 750 gpm are require to do all the same tests as pumps larger, accept?
Pumping Engine Overload Test
The certification pumping test requires the pumped to be operated for _ hours, while the service pumping test requires only __ minutes of operation.
3 hours; 40 min
Test conducted to assure the purchaser that the apparatus meets bid specifications at the time of delivery.
Acceptance tests
An important acceptance issue arises when the jurisdiction purchasing the apparatus is located at an alititude in excess of ____ feet above sea level.
2,000 ft
The requirements for fire department service testing are contained in what NFPA standard?
NFPA 1911
What are the service tests contained in NFPA 1911 that a driver/operator should know to perform?
- Engine speed test
- Priming Device test
- Vacuum test
- Pumping test
- Overload test
- Pressure control test
- Gauge and flow meter test
- Tank-to-pump flow rate test
- Internal intake pressure relief valve test
When conducting the annual service tests from a static water source, what are the source requirements?
- Water at least 4ft deep
- Strainer must be submerged at least 2 feet.
- Surface of the water source can be no more than 10ft below the centerline of the pump intake
- 20' of hard intake hose should be used.
When conducting apparatus service tests, what should the air and water temperatures be for the test?
air temp of 0-100 degrees F
water temp of 35-90 degrees F
Altitude affects the pump's performance: lifting ability drops about 1 foot per ____ft increase in altitude.
1,000 ft
While pump testing, scribe a mark on the hose at the couplings, and regularly check the couplings to make sure the the hose is not pulling from them. How far must your scribe move from the coupling before you stop the test and replace that piece of hose?
Pump service tests are to be conducted at what net pump discharge pressures?
150, 165(overload), 200, 250 psi
NFPA 1911 requires that all gauges must have been calibrated within how many days of testing?
60 days
This reads the flow directly in gallons per minute, may be used instead of a pitot gauge to determine the flow from the nozzles.
The vacuum test is performed to check what?
- Priming Device
- Pump
- Hard intake hose for air leaks
In the vacuum test, if the apparatus is unable to reach __inches of mercury, the apparatus should be removed from service and repaired as soon as possible.
22 inches
The pumping test checks the overall condition of what?
Engine and pump
Any gauges that are off by more than what, should be re-calibrated, repaired, or replaced?
10 psi
The flow measured from the nozzle and the reading on a flowmeter should not be off by more than what percent?
NFPA 1901 states that the piping should be sized so that pumpers with a capacity of 500gpm or less be capable of flowing ___gpm from their booster tank.
Pumpers with capacities greater than 500gpm should be able to flow at least ___gpm from their booster tank.
Foam proportioning systems and equipment are generally checked for proper operation by one of what two ways?
-Testing the foam-to-water solution concentration that systems and equipment produce.
- Testing the rate at which foam concentrate is consumed in proportion to a known flow of water through the system.
NFPA 1901 requires foam systems accuracy testing to be performed when?
Prior to the apparatus being delivered from the manufacturer.
What four methods does NFPA1901 provide for testing foam proportioning systems for calibration accuracy?
-Foam concentrate displacement method
-Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method
- Foam solution refractivity testing
- Foam system conductivity testing
Device that operates on the principle of measuring the velocity of light that travels through a medium.
Foam solution refractometer testing is not accurate for what types of foam?
synthetic-based foams
What type of foam is refractometer testing used on to test the quality of the foam solution?
protein and fluoro-protein foams
What type of testing is used to test the quality of synthetic based foams that are produced by foam proportioning equipment and systems
Foam Solution Conductivity Testing
The ability of a substance to conduct an electrical current.
The three methods of performing conductivity testing on foam solution.
- Direct reading conductivity testing
- Conductivity comparison testing
- Conductivity calibration curve testing
Test performed by using a handheld, temperature-compensated conductivity meter.
Conductivity calibration curve test
On the fire ground, the primary objective of the driver/operator is to do what?
Provide fire suppression crews with water in sufficient volume and at the pressure needed to achieve efficient fire control and/or extinguishment.
What is the primary determinant of friction loss?
The volume of water flowing per minute.
Factors that can cause friction loss?
- Hose condition
- Coupling condition
- Kinks
- Volume of water being flowed
Combined, friction loss and elevation pressure loss are referred to as what?
Total pressure loss
Coefficient of 1 3/4" w/ 1 1/2" couplings
Coefficient of 2 1/2" hose
Coefficient of 5" hose
Assumed friction loss for all master stream appliances?
25 psi
Assumed friction loss for appliances other than master streams?
10 psi
The pressure waters exerts per foot of elevation ?
Formula for calculating elevation loss or gain?
Elevation Pressure = 0.5 x height
When two hoselines of equal length are siamesed to supply a fire stream the friction loss is approximately what percentage of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure?
When three hoselines of equal length are trimesed to supply a fire stream the friction loss is approximately what percentage of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure?
Since master streams require large amounts of water, how are they generally supplied to reach these large volumes of water?
-multiple hoselines
-siamesed hoselines
-single LDH
In reference to friction loss, how are aerial devices with waterways treated?
The same as master stream devices using friction loss of 25psi with elevation being calculated separately.
Formula for pump discharge pressure.
That pumper connected to the water supply at the beginning of the relay operation, and should be the engine with the largest pump capacity.
Source Pumper (supply pumper)
Pumper or pumpers connected within the relay that recives water form the source pumper or another relay pumper, boosts the pressure, and then supplies water to the next appararus in the relay.
Relay pumper (In-line Pumper)
Engine or other pumping apparatus located at the fire scene that will be recieving water from the relay and supplying atack lines and appliances as needed for fire suppression.
Attack Pumper
Large diameter hose ranges in what sizes? What are the most common sizes?
3-12 inches with 4" and 5" being the most common
These valves are intended to enhance firefighter safety and reduce the possibility of damge to the pump and discharge hoselinescaused by water hammer when valves are closed too quickly or intake pressures otherwise rise dramatically.
Intake Pressure Relief Valves, also called Relay Relief Valves
Pumpers with adjustable intake relief valves should be adjusted so that they are set to what?
Within 10psi of the static pressure of the water supply system or 10psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.
In the most basic sense, a relauy operation is based on what two things?
- The amount of wate required at the emergency scene.
- The distance from the emergency scene to the water source.
If it is desirable to increase the amount of water flow through a relay, one of what three things can be done?
-Increase the size of the hose or number of hoselines used in the relay.
- Increase the pump discharge pressure of the pumpers operating in the relay.
- Increase the number of pumpers in the relay.
Where should the largest hose in the relay be laid?
At the begining of the operation
If departments purchase hose that are designed for higher standard pressures, the hiose should not be pumped at pressures that exceed what?
90% of the anual service test pressure
What are the two basic designs for relay pumping operations?
- Maximum Distance Relay Method
- Constant Pressure Relay method
Relay method that involves flowing a predetermined volume of water for the maximum distance that it can be pumped through a particular hoselay.
Maximum Distance Relay Method
Pumpers are rated to flow their maximum volume at ___psi, 70% at ___psi, and 50% at ___psi.
150 psi; 200 psi; 250 psi
The relay method that provides the maximum flow available from a particular relay setup by using a constant pressure in the system.
Constant Pressure Relay Method
What are several advantages in using constant pressure relay?
- It speeds relay activation.
- It requires no complicated calculations
- Radio traffic and confusion between pump operators are reduced.
-The attack pumper driver operator is able to govern fire lines easier.
- Operators in the relay only have to guide and adjust pressure to one constant figure.
In relay operations, as a rule, the largest capacity pumper should be used where?
At the source
In relay operations it is most desirable to maintain an intake pressure of what?
20-30 psi
if a relay pumper is recieving an intake pressure greater than 50 psi, what should be done?
The valve to the jumpline should be adjusted to limit the residual pressure to 50psi.
What device is essential when operating in a relay due to the cumulative nature of pressure increases when changes in flow occur.
Automatic Pressure Control Device
If an attack pumper is equipped with a readily adjustableintake relief valve, set it between __-__psi to establish a stable operating condition.
In relay operations as long as pressures do not drop below __psi or above ___psi no action should be required.
10psi ; 100psi
With all the activity on the fire scene, too much radio traffic when setting up a relay can interfere with fireground comunications. What are two other options instead of radio use?
- When pumpers are within sight of each other, hand signals can be used.
- In extreme cases, messengers on foot can still be effective.
What is the most commonly used fire extinguishing agent?
Below what temperature does what exist in a solid form?
32 ℉
Water is it's heaviest close to it's ________ ______, and lightest close to its _______ ______.
Freezing point; boiling point
Ordinary fresh water is generally considered to weigh?
62.5 lb/ft3 or 8.33 lb/gal
A measure of the heat-absorbing capacity of a substance.
Specific Heat
Between 32℉ an 212℉ water exists in what state?
Above what temperature does water covert to Gas?
212 ℉
The primary way water extinguishes is by _______.
Specific gravity determines whether water will do what on the surface on another liquid, or visa versa?
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1℉.
The specific Heat of a substance is a ratio between what two things?
The heat needed to raise the temperature of a specified quantity of a material and the heat needed to raise the temperature of an identical amount of water the same number of degrees.
The temperature at which a liquid absorbs enough heat to change to vapor.
Boiling Point
At 212℉ water expands how many times its original volume?
1,700 times
Water absorbs ____ times as much heat as does an equal amount of carbon dioxide.
The specific gravity of water.
The quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from liquid to a vapor.
Latent heat of Vaporization
Vaporization does not completely occur when water reaches 212℉, each pound of water requires an additional ______ of heat to completely convert into steam.
970 BTU
The speed with which water absorbs heat increases in proportion to what?
The water surface area exposed to the heat.
The tendency of a liquid to possess internal resistance to flow.
The density of a liquid in relation to water.
Specific gravity
A force per unit of area.
Weight of one cubic foot of water?
62.5 pounds
The speed at which this fluid travels through a hose.
Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions.
Second Principle of Pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.
Fourth Principle of Pressure
A simple measure of of weight and is usually expressed in pounds or kilograms.
1 inch3 by 1 ft tall exerts a pressure of what at it's base?
0.434 lbs
Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.
First Principle of Pressure
Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions.
Third Principle of Pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.
Fifth Principle of Pressure
Mercury is __.__ times denser than water.
At sea level the atmosphere exerts what pressure?
14.7 PSI
At sea level a column of mercury is how tall?
29.9 inches tall
Pounds per square inch absolute
Absolute Zero pressure.
Absolute Vacuum
The pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.
Sixth Principle of Pressure
A pressure of 1psi makes a column of mercury about _.__ inches tall.
Pounds per square inch gauge
Any pressure less than actual pressure.
The fire service refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice as what?
Stored potential energy available to force water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.
Static pressure
That pressure found in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands.
Normal operating pressure
The forward velocity flow pressure can be measured by using what?
Pitot tube and Gauge
The center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level.
Atmospheric pressure _____ as height above sea level increases.
Means at rest or without motion.
Part of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose and adapters.
Residual Pressure
Forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening while water is flowing.
Flow Pressure
The position of an object above or below sea level.
Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _._psi for every ____ft.
0.5psi ; 1000ft
Both pressure loss and pressure gain are referred to as What?
Elevation pressure
The friction loss in old hose may be as much as ___ greater than in new hose.
For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.
Third Principle of Friction Loss
For a given flow velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on the water.
Fourth Principle of Friction Loss
When the diameter of the hose doubles, the area of thee hose opening increases approximately ____ times.
The total pressure lost while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.
Friction loss
If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.
First Principle of Friction Loss
When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increases in the velocity of the flow.
Second Principle of Friction Loss
With water being virtually incompressible, it requires _____psi to reduce it's volume by 1%.
30,000 psi
When the velocity or speed of a stream increases beyond it's practical limits and the friction becomes so great it causes agitation or turbulence.
Critical Velocity
What three characteristics of hose layouts cause friction loss?
- Hose length
-Hose diameter
-sharp bends (kinks) in the hose
Suddenly stopping water moving through a hose or pipe results in and energy surge being transmitted in the opposite direction. This surge is referred to as what?
Water Hammer
Three methods of moving water in a system.
-direct pumping system
-Gravity system
-combination system
When a fire hydrant receives water from two r more directions is said to have a what?
Circulating Feed
Looped Line
Large pipes, with relatively widespread spacing, that convey large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains.
Primary feeders
Realistically, a hose larger than _inches in diameter cannot be used for handlines.
3 inches
What are the four fundamental components of a Water system?
-Source of water supply.
-Means of moving water.
-Water processing or treatment facility.
-Water distribution system, including storage.
Afire hydrant that receives water from only one direction.
Dead-end Hydrant
A distribution system that provides circulating feed from several mains.
Grid System
Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers.
In residential areas there should be cross connecting mains at intervals of not more than what?
600 ft
What size mains should be used on principle streets and long mains not cross-connected at frequent intervals.
12 inch diameter
Valves for water systems are broadly divided into what two types?
What are the most common valves used on most public water distribution systems?
Non-indicating valves
In residential areas, the recommended size for fire hydrant supply mains is at least what?
6 inches in diameter
In the business and industrial districts, the minimum recommended size is an __ inch main with cross-connecting mains every ___ft.
8 inch; 600 ft
Water mains as large as __inches diameter can be found in major cities.
48 inches diameter
What are two common indicator valves?
Post Indicator Valve (PIV)
Outside Screw and Yoke (OS
What type of valves will you normally find in a water distribution system, normally installed in valve boxes or manholes?
Non-indicating valves
The average of the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.
Average Daily consumption (ADC)
The maximum amount of water used in any 1-hour interval over the course of a day.
Peak Hourly Consumption (PHC)
The peak hourly rate normally varies from _-_ times the normal hourly rate.
2-4 times
If there is any question about the reliability of a private water supply system or of its ability to provide an adequate amount of water for large-scale fire fighting operation, the department should do what?
Make arrangements to augment the private water supply.
Almost universally, private water supply systems maintain separate piping for what?
Fire protection
Domestic/industrial processes
The maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24-hour interval within a 3-year period.
Maximum daily consumption (MDC)
The maximum daily consumption is normally about _-__ times the average daily consumption.
1 - 1½ times
Private water systems exist for one of what three reasons?
-To provide water strictly for fire protection purposes.
-to provide water for sanitary and fire protection purposes.
-To provide water for fire protection and manufacturing processes
Where are private water supply systems normally found?
Large commercial, industrial, or institutional properties.
Ma be found in some residential developments.
Water pipe that is underground is generally made of what?
Cast Iron
Ductile iron
Asbestos cement
The primary function of a fire department pumper on the fireground.
Provide water for firefighting operations.
When fire is evident there is a variety considerations in positioning the apparatus, what are some of the more important ones?
-Department SOP's
-Rescue situations
-Water supply
-Method of attack
-Wind Direction
-Relocation potential
The collapse zone is equal to what height?
At least one and one half the height of the building
When laying a supply line where should it be laid if possible?
The side of the street
If a fire has the potential to grow or spread to exposures how should the apparatus be positioned?
So that it is not trapped by the advancing fire
If an apparatus arrives to a scene where no fire is evident (investigation mode), it is generally advisable to stop where?
The best access point into the occupancy, often the main entrance.
What is the one exception to positioning an apparatus uphill from the incident?
Wildland Fires
When positioning an apparatus, what is considered the safest location should a collapse occur?
The corners of the building
Signs of a serious exterior collapse.
-Bulging walls
-large cracks in the exterior
-falling bricks, blocks, or mortar
- interior collapses
"inside/outside" method
If the building is <5 stories tall= Engine inside, aerial outside

If the building is >5 stories tall= aerial inside, engine outside
Pumpers providing water for elevated stream operations should be positioned where?
As close to the aerial apparatus as possible.
When is the best time for fire departments to identify suitable drafting locations in their response district?
During pre-incident planning
If the front wheels are turned at to a __-______ angle, the driver/operator can easily adjust the distance from the hydrant.
When using the front or rear intake connections, the vehicle should be angled in the direction of What?
The hydrant
What is one of the easiest ways to ensure maximum possible flow?
By removing kinks in the supply line
Pumpers should position where if providing support to a sprinkler system or FDC?
As close to the connections as possible
What is the most common water source in most fire districts?
Fire hydrants
A good way to minimize kinks in soft intake hose is to put ___ ____ ______ in the hose when making the connection between the hydrant and the pumper.
Two full twists
What is the main disadvantage to connecting tot the 2 ½ inch outlet of a hydrant?
It limits the amount of water that you can be supplied
Multiple lines can be connected to the pumps large intake connection by using what?
A bell reducer of suction siamese fitting
When duel pumping how should the supply lines be connected between the pumpers?
intake to intake
Tandem pumping is the same as relay pumping accept the pumpers are placed closer together to increase what?
water pressure
When should tandem pumping operations be used?
When pressures needed are higher than a single engine is capable of supplying.
What are the two most Common functions for wildland fire apparatus?
Wildland/Urban Interface and making a direct attack on the fire
When positioning a Wildland Apparatus, what hazards should you not be next to or under?
- Power lines
- Trees or snags
- LPG tanks or other pressure vessels
- Structures that might burn
What is the final objective when duel pumping?
To make better use of a water supply and shorter hose lays
When hooking up the supply lines for tandem pumping, how should they be connected between the pumpers?
Discharge of pumper one to intake of pumper two with the shortest line possible
(discharge to intake)
To set up for tandem pumping, the two engines may be positioned as much as ___ft apart.
The boundary between the wildland and structural development.
urban interface
A natural or man-made barrier that will prevent the fire from spreading around and encircling the engine or crew.
Anchor point
When a vehicle operates under conditions of reduced visibility because of smoke or darkness it should be driven at an appropriately reduced _____ and may need a _______ to help locate and avoid obstacles
Speed; spotter
When positioning on wildland fires, an apparatus is positioned, what three things should be done?
-a short 1½ -1¾ should be deployed and charged for protection.
-Wheels should be chocked.
- Apparatus should be positioned facing the exit direction.
What other apparatus might be present on the fireground other than an engine or aerial apparatus?
-Command vehicle
-Breathing air supply apparatus
-EMS vehicles
Large breathing air cylinders connected into banks of 4-12 that allow air to be transferred from the large cylinders into smaller SCBA cylinders.
Cascade systems
What are the two types of EMS vehicles that may respond to a fire scene?
Rapid Response Units (non-transport)

Ambulances (transport)
What should a spotter be equipped with and stay in at all times?
-Reliable handlights
- wear highly visible clothes
-Stay within the drivers field of view at all times
On a Wildland Apparatus, what should always be kept in reserve for protection?
A small portion of water
General guidelines for positioning a command vehicle?
-provide maximum visibility of the incident.
-Provide maximum visibility of the area surrounding.
-Place so that it is easy to locate for other responders operating.
-position outside the immediate danger zone.
-Avoid blocking movement or interfering with incident operations.
- make the vehicle readily identifiable as the ICP.
Engine-driven appliances that take in atmospheric air, purify it and compress it while continuing to fill SCBA cylinders as long as the engines remains running.
Breathing-air Compressors
On fire scenes, how should the EMS vehicle always be positioned?
So that it may easily leave the scene if a victim needs transport.
Who does level I staging apply to?
The initial response to a fire or other incident involving more than one company.
If ordered to Level I staging what should you do as the driver operator?
Stop(stage) at least one block away from the scene in your direction of travel and await further orders.
What should apparatus arriving at the staging area do?
Turn of their emergency lights
According to the US DOT's Manual of Uniform Traffic Control Devices, emergency lighting should be used as needed to reach the scene, but once on scene they should be What?
Reduced as much as possible
How should the initial apparatus on a highway incident be positioned?
It should be positioned on an angle so that the operator is protected from traffic by the tailboard with the front wheels turned away from the firefighters who are working on the incident.
What is Level II staging?
Is initiated by the IC or Operations Section Chief when requesting additional resources and there will be a large number of emergency vehicles responding to the same incident.
In Level II staging who generally becomes the Staging Area Manager?
The first arriving company officer to the staging area.
On roadways where vehicles normally travel at high speeds, apparatus should not be driven against traffic unless what?
Police units have closed the roadway
On highway incidents how many lanes should be closed?
At least one next to the incident lane or all lanes may have to be shut down until there is enough of a safety barrier.
On highway incidents, Consider positioning additional apparatus ___ to ___FT behind the shielding apparatus to act as an additional barrier.
150-200 FT
The first unit arriving on a HAZMAT scene should never what?
Be driven directly into a scene without the material involved being Identified first.
If at all possible you should approach a HAZMAT incident How?
Form the upwind, uphill side
The Hot Zone is also called the........
Restricted zone
Exclusion Zone
Red Zone
The Cold Zone is also called the.......
Support Zone
Green Zone
Every railroad should be treated as how?
As a potentially active line.
What should apparatus never be stopped over when holding short on a HAZMAT scene?
Manhole covers
What are the three most common terms for hazardous materials zones?
- Hot Zone
- Warm Zone
- Cold Zone
The Warm Zone is also called the........
Contamination Reduction Zone
Limited-access Zone
Yellow Zone
When responding to repeated bomb threats and other potential terrorist incidents at a given location, what should be avoided?
Always staging in the same place.
What two options do you have if you cannot confirm that a rail line has been shut down and you need to stretch a line across them?
- Run the hose beneath the rails
- Use aerial apparatus to run hose over the top of the area.
More than __% of all the calls to which most fire departments respond are emergency medical incidents.
Why does the DOT also say that consideration should be given to reducing or extinguishing forward facing emergency lights?
To reduce distractions to oncoming drivers.
Companies in staging must be ready to respond within _____ minutes of being called.
In many jurisdictions, rescue companies, are sometimes referred to as ______.
If it is not possible to locate the medical apparatus off of the main street on a medical call, what should be done?
Position the larger apparatus between the smaller apparatus and the on coming flow of traffic.
Incidents occurring on bridges or overpasses may require what?
The use of ladders or Aerial apparatus.
Remember that apparatus using breathing air compressors to refill SCBA cylinders need to be positioned where?
Upwind of the fire in clean air space.
When wildland apparatus are used in mobile attack, Hoselines should be kept how?
As short as possible
What is one of the most critical aspects of a driver/operators responsibilities?
The ability to safely control and maneuver a fire apparatus.
What percentage of all firefighter injuries and deaths in the US caused by vehicle collisions, as historically shown by NFPA?
According to the DOT about how many civilians are killed in apparatus-related collisions compared to firefighters?
About an Equal number of civilians to
In the studies done by the Indiana University of Pennsylvania and the New York State Department of Health, what time of day did most emergency vehicle accidents occur?
What are some of the more common problems for reckless driving by the public?
-failure to obey posted traffic
-failure to yield to emergency vehicles
-excessive speed
-unpredictable behavior
What is the first goal of a driver/operator?
To get the apparatus and its crew to the scene in an expedient, yet safe and efficient manner.
Statistics compiled by NIOSH and other organizations put the annual firefighter death toll due to vehicle roll over and collision at what?
Traffic accidents are the ______ leading cause of firefighter fatalities.
Fire apparatus collisions can be grouped into what 5 basic causes?
1. Improper backing of the
2. reckless driving by the public
3. excessive speed be the engineer
4. lack of skill or experience by engineer
5. poor apparatus design or maintenance
Excessive speed in an apparatus leads to one of what two types of collisions?
-Control of the apparatus lost on a curve or adverse road surface, which may cause the vehicle to leave the road surface, roll over, or strike another vehicle or object.
-The driver/operator is unable to stop the apparatus in time to avoid a collision with another vehicle or object.
What are the factors that contribute to collisions that involve driver operator error?
-Overconfidence in ones driving ability.
-Inability to recognize a dangerous situation
-false sense of security because of good driving record
-misunderstanding of apparatus capabilities
-lack of knowledge about how to operate the controls of the apparatus
Weight of a gallon of water
8.33 lbs
Weight of a gallon of fuel oil
7.12 lbs
When can a fire apparatus proceed past a stopped school bus with it's lights on?
Only after the bus driver or a police officer gives a proper signal.
Unless the apparatus has a block heater, it should be left to idle before being put into road gear for how long on non-emergencies? And for emergencies?
3-5 min non-emergency

Only a few seconds for emergencies
In a study of commercial drivers by SAE, it was determined that what in what percentage of all collisions, was the driver operator not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct it?
42% of all collisions
Weight of a gallon of gasoline
5.6 lbs
Most driving regulations apply to what type of conditions?
Dry, clear roads during daylight conditions.
If a driver/operator if found negligent in the operation of an emergency vehicle and becomes involved in a collision, who can be found responsible?
Both the driver operator and the fire department.
What is the first thing a driver/operator needs to know before starting and apparatus, especially on emergency response conditions?
Where the apparatus is going.
What is the first step in starting a apparatus?
Disconnect all ground shore lines
The starter control should be operated in intervals of no more than __ sec, with a rest of __sec between each try if the vehicle does not start.
30 sec; 60 sec
This prohibits the parking brake from being disengaged before there is enough air pressure in the system to operate the service brakes.
When driving an apparatus with a manual transmission, what should you do when driving downhill?
Select a lower gear before starting downhill and remain in gear at all times.
What should not be attempted when manually changing gears on an automatic transmission?
Do not attempt to jump more than one gear at a time.
On an apparatus equipped with two batteries the battery switch may have what four settings?
1. Off
2. Battery 1
3. Battery 2
4. Both
Stop the engine immediately if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate a reasonable amount of pressure with-in how long?
5-10 seconds
When operating an apparatus with a manual transmission, when should you shift into a lower gear on a sharp curve or intersection?
Before they are entered.
When driving an apparatus with an automatic transmission, when would it be desirable to select a lower gear?
When operating at slow speeds for a long period of time or when driving up a steep hill.
This occurs when the throttle is applied while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions.
What occurs when a diesel motor is over-throttled?
More fuel is injected than can be burned, resulting in an excessive amount of carbon particles issuing from the exhaust, oil dilution, and additional fuel consumption.
Long idling periods can result in the consumption of how much fuel per hour?
½ gallon
When an engine must be left idling for an extended period of time, what should the idle speed be set to?
900-1100 rpm
What are the 6 steps to shutting down an apparatus?
-Place the transmission in Park or neutral
-set the parking brake
-allow the engine to cool down for 3 to 5 mins
-shut off the engine by moving the ignition to off
-turn the battery switch to off
-reconnect all ground shore lines
What are the three exceptions for when someone may ride in an apparatus without a seatbelt?
-when providing care to a patient in the back of an ambulance
-when loading hose onto a fire apparatus
-when performing training for personnel learning to drive the tiller portion of a tractor-drawn aerial apparatus
What can be engaged to limit the use of the service brakes by the driver/operator?
The engine brake or retarder
Long periods of idling can cause what to happen to the engine?
Build-up of carbon in injectors, valves, pistons, and valve seats; misfiring because of injector carboning; and damage to the turbocharger shaft seals.
How long should an engine be left to idle to cool down?
3-5 minutes
What NFPA standard requires that a seat and seatbelt be provided within the cab or body of the apparatus for every firefighter who is expected to ride in the vehicle?
NFPA 1901
What NFPA standard provides specific directions on how driving to load LDH should be performed?
NFPA 1500
What are the specific directions provided by NFPA 1500 to load LDH on the back of the apparatus while moving?
-procedure must be contained in the department SOP.
-One person, other than driver or loaders, must be assigned as a safety observer.
-the area where it is being performed must be closed to traffic.
- Apparatus must be driven in a forward direction at no >5mph.
-no one allowed to stand on any portion of vehicle while it is in motion
-Members in the hose bed must sit or kneel while apparatus is in motion.
Whenever possible, driver operators should avoid doing what? What is a safer alternative?
Avoid backing, it is normally safer and sometimes quicker to drive around the block and start again.
Driving in the oncoming lane is not recommended in situations where.....
Oncoming traffic is unable to see the apparatus.
What are five control factors in defensive driving?
-Aim high in steering
-Get the big picture.
-Keep your eyes moving.
-Leave yourself an "out."
-Make sure others can see and hear you.
The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.
Reaction distance
NFPA 1500 states that no one is allowed to ride on what places on the apparatus while it is in motion?
-Front bumper
-Running boards
If you do not have or cannot see your spotter, what?
Do not back the apparatus
Where are the most likely places for an emergency vehicle to have a collision?
In an intersection
Some departments train their driver/operators to practice looking __seconds ahead on city streets and __ seconds ahead on highways.
12 seconds
20 seconds
The sum of the driver/operator's reaction distance and the vehicles braking distance.
Total stopping distance
The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.
Braking distance
"objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force."
Law of inertia
The ABS computer makes decisions more than how many times per second until the vehicle is brought to a halt?
20 times
When an apparatus equipped with air brakes goes into a skid, what should the driver operator do?
-Release the brakes to allow the wheels to rotate freely
-Turn into the skid
-Once controllable gradually apply power to further control the vehicle by giving traction.
ATC works automatically in what two ways?
-When a wheel begins to spin, the ATC applies pressure to that wheels brake, transferring the torque to the wheels that aren't.
-when all wheels spin, the ATC reduces the engine torque to provide improved traction.
Factors that influence a driver/operator's ability to stop the apparatus
-Condition and slope of the driving surface
-speed being travelled
-Weight of the vehicle
-Type and condition of the vehicle's braking system.
Tires that are over inflated or lacking adequate tread depth make the apparatus more susceptible to what?
On vehicles equipped with air brakes, there is a momentary delay of how long from when the pedal is pushed down until sufficient air is sent to the brake to operate?
0.4 seconds
Many vehicles equipped with an ABS are also equipped with what?
(Automatic Traction Control
What guidelines should be used to ensure safe passing when a passenger vehicle does not yield the right of way?
-Always travel in the innermost lane on a multilane road.
-Avoid passing vehicles on their right side.
-Make sure you can see that the opposing lanes of traffic are clear if you must cross the center line.
-Avoid passing other emergency vehicles if possible; if you must, communicate it over the radio.
What areas should driver operators recognize as becoming slippery first?
-Bridge surfaces
-northern slopes of hills
-shaded spots
-Areas where snow is blowing across the roadway
How many more times distance does it take for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, compared to dry concrete?
3-15 times more
Civilian drivers respond better to sounds that frequently what?
Change pitch
At speeds of 40MPH, an emergency vehicle's sirens can project how far in front of them?
300 FT
When more than one emergency vehicle are traveling the same route they should travel at least how far apart?
300-500 FT
Snow chains tend to lose their effectiveness in snow deeper than what?
8 inches
Type of traction control for tandem rear axles where it allows different speeds between the two rear axles.
Interaxle, differential lock, power divider, or third differentia
At speeds above 50MPH, emergency vehicles will outrun the effective range of what?
Audible warning devices
At speeds of 60MPH, an emergency vehicle's sirens can project how far in front of them?
12 Ft
A _________ moving quickly across the back window of a vehicle may get the driver's attention.
A common system for controlling traffic signals to change them to green for an approaching emergency vehicle and red for all others directions of travel.
Preemption device
In an alley dock, the boundary lines for the restricted area should be __ft wide. Along one side and perpendicular in another area __ft wide and __ft deep.
The Confined Space Turn-around should be performed in an area that is at least __ft wide and ___ft long.
50 ft; 100 ft
NFPA 1002 states that a road test that leads to certification should have a downgrade steep enough to require what?
Downshift and braking
Spinning wheels while the interaxle differential is locked could result in what?
Damage to the axle
All fire apparatus training and testing should follow the requirements contained in what NFPA standard?
NFPA 1451 Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program.
In the serpentine course the markers should be between __-__ft apart depending on the size of the apparatus being used.
30-38 ft
NFPA 1002 states that a road test that leads to certification should have at least how many left turns, and right turns?
4 and 4
You must lift your foot from the accelerator when activating the differential lock, and do not activate it while one or more of the wheels is doing what?
Slipping or spinning
NFPA 1002 states that a road test that leads to certification should have at least how many curves?
One, either right or left
A stream of water or other extinguishing agent after it leaves a nozzle until it reaches the desired point.
Fire stream
What are the three basic types of fire streams?
Fire stream produced from fixed orifice, smooth bore nozzle.
Solid stream
Smooth bore nozzle flow formula
GPM= 29.7 x D2 x √NP
A turning or state of being turned; a turning from a straight line or given course; a bending; deviation.
During the time a stream of water passes through space, It is influenced by what things?
- Friction with the air
Type of stream from a fog nozzle that closest resembles a solid stream.
Straight stream
What pressures are solid hand-line and master streams
operated at?
50 psi
80 psi
The line bounding around a surface; outward boundary of an object distinguished from its internal regions.
To strike or dash about or against; clashing with sharp collision; to come together with force.
Most constant flow nozzles are intended to be operated at a nozzle pressure of what?
100 psi
If the gallonage to an Automatic nozzle changes, it maintains approximately the same what?
nozzle pressure and pattern
Within it's design limits, an automatic nozzle maintains a constant nozzle pressure of approximately ___ psi.
Any fire stream that is too large to control without mechanical aid.
Master Stream
What are the four major categories of master stream devices?
-Deluge Set
-Elevated Master Stream
Some constant flow nozzles operate at lower pressures of 50-75 psi for what special purpose?
High-rise Fire Fighting
Most fog nozzles are designed for a ___psi discharge pressure.
100 psi
The maximum amount of water that can safely flow through a handline nozzle.
350 gpm
What are smoothbore and fog master streams operating pressures?
80 psi
100 psi
What is the difference between a monitor and a deluge set?
The stream direction and angle can be changed while water is flowing.
What are the three basic types of monitors?
Large-capacity nozzles that are designed to be placed on the end of an aerial device.
elevated master stream
Why is movement of ladder pipe nozzles limited to vertical up and down motions?
Horizontal movement of the nozzle puts too much stress on the aerial ladder.
What is another name for a cellar nozzle?
Nozzle commonly used in aircraft fire fighting and to apply water to areas that are otherwise inaccessible to water streams.
Piercing Nozzle
A turret pipe is also called?
deck gun
deck pipe
Master stream device used in conjunction with aerial ladders where detachable ladder pipes are attached to the rungs of the ladder and are supplied by a fire hose.
ladder pipe
Stream created when water is forced through a series of small holes on the discharge end of the nozzle.
broken stream
Nozzle that produces a fan shaped stream intended to protect combustible materials from heat of an adjacent fire.
water curtain nozzle
Another name for a piercing nozzle.
Penetrating nozzle
The jet nozzle at the end of, at piercing nozzle, is capable of delivering how many Gpm?
The counterforce that pushes back on firefighters handling a hoseline is known as what?
Nozzle reaction
Practical working limits for velocity of fire streams are within........
60-120 feet per second
Nozzle reaction for a smooth bore nozzle.
NR= 1.57 X D2 X NP
Why are Water curtain nozzles are rarely used?
Because of their limited effectiveness
Nozzle made of solid brass r steel with numerous, very small impinging holes that generally produces 1.5-3 gpm of water in very fine, misty fog cone.
chimney nozzle
This law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Newton's third law of motion
The limiting velocities of fire streams are produced by what PSI?
25-100 psi
Nozzle reaction for a fog nozzle.
NR= 0.0505 X Q X √NP
What nozzles does NFPA 1901 not require to be carried on apparatus, but must be decided on by the fire department based on its jurisdictional needs.
Special Purpose Nozzles
-Water Curtain
What standard requires the driver/operator to have preventative maintenance skills?
NFPA 1002
Preventative maintenance ensures what?
-Apparatus reliability
-Reduces frequency and cost of repairs.
-Lessens out-of-service times
Standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications
NFPA 1071
Volunteer fire departments should establish a procedure by which all apparatus are inspected and maintained When?
On at least a weekly or bi-weekly schedule
During the first 6 months after an apparatus is received it should be washed frequently with what?
Cold water
Means "keeping an apparatus in a state of useful readyness."
Means "to restore or replace that which has become inoperable."
When should career fire departments typically require their driver/operators to perform inspection and maintenance checks?
At the beginning of each tour of duty
How does excessive cleaning cause problems associated with the chassis, engine, pump, and other vehicle components?
By removal of necessary lubrication
How should you never remove dust and grit from a apparatus?
By dry rubbing
Do not wash (an apparatus) with extremely ___ water or while the surface of the vehicle is___.
Apparatus pre-trip method that involves starting at the driver's door on the cab and working around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
Walk-around method
Give examples of two things that can be inspected on approaching a vehicle.
Vehicle damage

Severe leaning
On vehicle inspection, the first portion that should be specifically checked is what?
The left (driver's) side of the front, or cab, of the vehicle.
Seals that retain axle gear oil may show slight seepage and still be serviceable, what would be unacceptable?
Trails of fluid on the wheel or tire
If an apparatus requires waxes or polishes, it generally should not be applied until when?
The paint is at least 6 month old
Driver operators should actually begin their inspection process when?
When approaching the vehicle
Look beneath the vehicle for spots that indicate leaking vehicle fluids such as......
Brake fluid
Hydraulic fluid
Transmission fluid
Unusual accumulations of brake dust on the wheel can signify what?
A problem with the braking system
What are associated components of the winch that should be inspected for damage?
Remote control
In addition to checking tire conditions, also make sure that dual tires do not what?
Come in contact with each other or other parts of the vehicle.
Any hose that is stored midship should be examined for what?
Proper stowing and security
It is a general rule of thumb to keep the fuel tank how full?
At least ¾ full
This turns various lights on at specific intervals so that the start-up electrical load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.
Load sequencer
When the load monitor shuts down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload.
Load shedding
Retreaded tires should be inspected for what?
Tread separation
Why should all electrical switches be in the off position when the vehicle is started?
To avoid excessive load on the battery
Appropriate hearing protection should be worn if any personnel will be exposed to noise levels in excess of how many decibels?
This "watches" the system for added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.
Load monitor
Steering wheel play should be no more than about how far in either direction?
10 degrees
NFPA 1901 braking test requires the parking brake to hold the apparatus in place on a grade of what?
If the pressure drops below what psi, does the air pressure protection valve prevent the air horns from being operated?
Name three problems that may signify a brake problem that will require a mechanic to check the truck more thoroughly.
-vehicle pulls to one side when the brakes are applied
-the brake pedal feels mushy or un-usual when the brakes are applied.
-the vehicle does not stop within 20ft @ 5mph.
Some vehicles coolant reservoirs have two marks to indicate how full the coolant is, what do they indicate?
Full lines for when the engine is hot or when it is cold
NFPA 1901 braking test requires that new apparatus be brought to a complete stop from a speed of __mph not to exceed __ft.
NFPA 1901 requires that on vehicles with air brakes the pressure should build to a sufficient level for vehicle operations within how long?
60 seconds
To test road brakes, allow the apparatus to move forward at _mph. Then push down on the pedal firmly and the apparatus should stop within about __ft.
5 mph: 20ft
To test the parking brake, it can be tested the same as the road brakes, at _mph pull the brake and it should stop within __ft.
5 mph: 20ft
What should the cooling fan be inspected for?
Cracks or missing blades
What does the SAE number indicate?
The oil viscocity
What is step #1 in charging a apparatus battery?
Make sure the battery and ignition switches are in their off positions.
What should be avoided when connecting a battery charger to a reliable power source?
Ensure that is is away from gasoline and other flammable vapors.
Items that should be checked on a weekly basis.
-Flush the pump with clear water if department policy is to carry the pump full of water.
-Check and clean intake strainers.
-Check pump gear box for proper oil level and traces of water
-Operate pump primer with all valves closed.
-Operate changeover valve if multi-stage pump
-Check packing glands for excessive leaks.
-Operate pump pressure control devices.
-Test accuracy of foam proportioning system
-Refer to pump manufacturer's manual for additional instructions.
Corrosion on the battery terminals may be cleaned by mixing what and pouring it on the connections?
Baking soda and water
What does SAE stand for?
Society of Automotive Engineers
When charging an apparatus where should the black charger cable be attached?
To the vehicle frame
items that should be checked/performed in the daily check out of an apparatus.
-Operate the pump and drive controls
-Check that the priming pump tank is full
-Make sure the auxiliary fuel tank is full
-Ensure all gauges and valves on the pump panel are working
-Fire pump and booster lines are completely drained.
-Inspect water and foam tanks for levels and leaks
-Check for damage, leaks, or obstructions in the winterization systems
-Make sure master stream turrets operate and have full motion
-Check auxiliary fire systems if applicable
When checking automatic transmission fluid levels some manufacturer's may require what?
That the vehicle has been driven in forward gears first and the levels checked while the vehicle is still running.
What should the steering linkage be checked for? And what findings should be reported?
For looseness and free-play.
Excess free-play should be reported.
Prior to the second half of the twentieth century, foam fire fighting equipment and systems were primarily limited to where?
Shipboard, industrial, and airport fire protection.
What are the major reasons for the increased use of foam and durable agents in municipal and wildland firefighting in recent years?
-Magnitude and frequency of hazardous materials incidents
-New advances in foam concentrate technologies that have provided products which are more easily used.
-Technological improvements in foam proportioning equipment and systems.
What are the majority of foams used today?
Mechanical foams
What two things must be done to mechanical foams before they can be used?
proportioned and aerated
The raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with air and water.
Foam Concentrate
The device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make a foam solution.
Foam Proportioner
The mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air.
Foam Solution
The complete product after air is introduced into the foam solution.
Foam(also known as finished foam)
Class B fuels are divided into what two categories?
-polar solvents
Modern fuel blends that include gasoline and 10%or more solvent additives should be handled as what in emergency operations?
polar solvents
Class B foams designed solely for hydrocarbon fires will not extinguish what type of fires, no matter what the concentration of the foam?
Polar solvent fires
What are the three methods by which foam extinguishes and/or prevents fire?
- Separating
- Cooling
- Suppressing
What does the selection of foam proportioning depend on?
- Foam solution flow requirements
- Available water pressure
- Cost
- Intended use
- The agent to be used
What are the four basic methods for proportioning foam?
- Induction
- Injection
- Batch mixing
- Premixing
Method of proportioning foam that uses the pressure energy in the stream of water passed through a venturi device that drafts foam concentrate into a fire stream.
Method of proportioning foam that uses an external pump or head pressure to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the correct ratio in comparison to the flow.
Simplest method of mixing an appropriate amount of foam concentrate by pouring it directly into a tank of water.
Batch mixing
Method where premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate are mixed in a container.
Foam pails contain how much concentrate?
5 gallons
Most common size containers of foam concentrate used by municipal fire departments.
Pails (5 gallons)
How many gallons does barrels or drums of foam concentrate contain?
55 gallons
How many gallons of foam concentrate do totes contain?
275 gallons
Foam concentrate tanks on municipal pumpers range from __-___gallons.
20-200 gallons
Foam pumpers and tenders may carry ____gallons or more concentrate.
8000 gallons
The bulk of mechanical foam concentrates are divided into what two general categories?
-Those intended for class A fuels
- Those intended for class B fuels
Class A foam has been used since when?
What reduces the surface-tension of the water in the foam solution?
Hydrocarbon surfactants
Class A foam may be used with what types of nozzles?
- fog nozzles
- aerating foam nozzles
- medium- and high-expansion devices
- Compressed air systems
What is the shelf life of class A foam?
As much as 20 years
Class A foam concentrates are mixed in what proportions?
Foam concentrate percentage for fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzle?
Foam concentrate percentage for exposure protection with standard fog nozzle?
Foam concentrate percentage for any application with air aspirating foam nozzles?
Foam concentrate percentage for any application with compressed air foam system (CAFS)?
The minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to a fire per minute, per square foot of fire.
Application rate
Foam that is very fluid and is desirable for areas requiring maximum penetration.
Wet foam
Foam that is a rigid coat that adheres well. Its slow drainage rate allows it to cling to these surfaces for extended periods.
Dry Foam
Foam that has the ability to blanket and wet the fuel equally well.
Medium Foam
Class B foams are manufactured from what two bases?
- Synthetic
- Protein
Protein based class B foams are derived from what type of proteins?
Synthetic class B foams are made from a mixture of what?
Protein-based foams have a shelf life of how long?
About 10 years
Synthetic based foams have a shelf life of generally how long?
20-25 years
In general, different manufacturer's foams should not be mixed together except for what kind?
Generally what type of foams are safer for the environment?
Protein based foams
Today's class B foams are mixed in proportions from _%-_%
Class B foam concentrates are normally used at a _-_% concentration hydrocarbons and _-_% on polar solvents.
1-3% ; 3-6%
Older polar solvent mechanical foam concentrates were designed to be used at what concentrations?
6% or greater
Medium-expansion foams are typically used at either _%, _%, or _% concentrations.
1 1/2%, 2%, or 3%
The increase in volume of a foam solution when it is aerated.
Foam Expansion
The method of aerating a foam solution results in varying degrees of expansion depends on what factors?
- Type of foam
- Accurate proportioning of the foam concentrate solution.
- Quality of foam.
- Method of aspiration
Standard for low-, medium-, and high-expansion foam.
NFPA 11 states that low-expansion foam has an air solution ratio of what?
NFPA 11 states that medium-expansion foam has an air solution ratio of what?
NFPA 11 states that high-expansion foam has an air solution ratio of what?
Once foam application has started, it should be continued uninterrupted until when?
extinguishment is complete
Alcohol-resistant fluoroprotein foam maintains its alcohol resistive properties for how long?
15 minutes
What is the most commonly used foam today?
What does AFFF stand for?
Aqueous Film Forming Foam
High expansion foams are special-purpose foams that have what kind of base?
A detergent base
High expansion foams have what three basic applications?
- In concealed spaces
- In fixed extinguishing systems
- In class A fire applications
Foam proportioning devices operate by one of what two basic principles?
- The pressure of the water stream flowing through a restricted orifice creates a venturi action that inducts foam concentrate into the water stream.
- Pressurized proportioning devices inject foam concentrate into the water stream at a desired ratio and at a higher pressure than that of the water.
The three common types of portable foam proportioners are what?
- In-line foam eductors
- Foam nozzle eductors
- Self-educting master stream nozzles
In order for the nozzle and eductor to operate properly, both must have the same what?
GPM rating
Self-educting master stream foam nozzle is used in excess of ___gpm.
350 gpm
The jet ratio controller is a type of in-line eductor that allows the foam concentrate supply to be as far away as ____ft from the self-educting master stream foam nozzle.
3000 ft
The Jet ratio controller allows an elevation change of up to __ft.
50 ft
The flow of water to the jet ratio controller represents what percent of the total flow in the system?
What percentage solution does the jet ratio controller supply to the self-educting master stream nozzle?
What are the most commonly used eductors to proportion class B foams?
in-line eductors
One of the most common types of built in proportioners installed in mobile fire apparatus today.
Around-the-pump proportioners
What are the disadvantages of around-the-pump proportioners?
- On older proportioners if the inlet water supply is greater than 10psi the concentrate will not enter the pump.
- Does not allow plain water and foam to be discharged from the pump at the same time.
- When lines are shut down water can still circulate through the eductor adding more concentrate than needed.
What are the advantages to Variable-flow Variable-rate Direct Injection Systems?
-Ability to proportion at any flow rate or pressure within design limits.
- System automatically adjusts to changes in water flow.
- Nozzles may be either above or below the pump without affecting the proportioning.
- System may be used with high-energy foam systems.
In this system, a variable-speed mechanism, which is either hydraulically or electrically controlled, drives a foam concentrate pump. The foam concentrate pump supplies a venturi-type proportioning device built into a water line. When activated, the foam concentrate pump output is automatically monitored so that the flow is commensurate with the flow of water to produce an effective foam solution.
Variable-flow Demand-type Balanced Pressure Proportioners
Class A foam solutions do not retain their foam properties if mixed in the water for more than how long?
24 hours
These systems introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into the hoseline. The turbulence of the foam solution and compressed air going through the piping and/or hoseline creates finished foam.
High-energy Foam Generating Systems
In general when using CAFS, 2cfm of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution flow produces a very dry foam at flows of up to ___gpm of foam solution.
100 gpm
Foam expansion ratios for fog nozzles are what?
2:1 - 4:1
What are the techniques for applying foam to a liquid fuel fire?
- Direct application
- Roll-on method
- Bank-down method
- Rain-down method
Durable Agents can also be called what?
- Gelling Agents
- Fire Blocking Gels
- Aqueous Fire Fighting Gels
Chemically, what are Durable Agents?
Water-absorbant Polymers
What is the major differences between durable agents and class A foams?
- Considerably more expensive
- Make surfaces they are applied to very slippery
- If applied to a structure they can be rehydrated with a fine mist to extend their protection for several days.
Durable agents are applied at what percentage solution?
Durable agents are applied at what percentage for line construction?
Durable agents are applied at what percentage for construction protection?
Durable agents will adhere vertical surfaces for as much as how long?
24 hours
Main purpose of fire department pumper
To provide water at an adequate pressure for fire streams.
NFPA 1901 standard for minimum pump capacities for fire department pumpers is?
750 gpm
Municipal fire departments rarely have pump capacities exceeding ____gpm.
What apparatus features all the standard engine company equipment , and also carrys a larger than standard amount of rescue and extrication equipment?
Rescue pumper
Municipal and industrial foam pumpers may be equipped with what type of foam systems?
-around the pump
-direct injection
-balanced pressure foam proportioning
-compressed-air foam
-or any combination of these
NFPA Standard for automotive fire apparatus
Standard pump capacities are found in increments of ___gpm.
Industrial fire pumpers frequently have pump capacities in excess of ____gpm.
Industrial foam pumpers are built according to the standards provided in chapter 11 of what NFPA standard?
Industrial foam pumpers equipped with fire pumps that range in capacity from ____gpm to ____gpm or greater.
Most industrial foam pumpers have large foam concentrate tanks on board that range from ___ - ____ gallons.
500-1500 gallons of concentrate.
With the use of articulating booms or telescoping pipes, hydraulically operated towers may be mounted on pumpers to form a what?
Combination unit
What is a scaled down version of a fire department pumper called?
Initial attack fire apparatus
Smaller quick-attack pumper designed to handle small fires that do not require the capacity or personnel needed for a larger pumper.
Mobile water supply apparatus are used to do what?
Transport water to areas beyond a water system or to areas where water supply is inadequate.
The most common size foam tanks for municipal fire apparatus range from __ to ___ gallons.
20-100 gallons of foam concentrate
Pumpers with elevated water devices typically range from what heights?
50-75 ft
Initial attack apparatus standards are contained in chapter 6 of what NFPA standard?
Apparatus,often meeting the requirements of a class A pumper, well suited for nuisance fires such as small grass and trash bin fires and for service calls that do not require the capacity and personnel of a full size class A pumper.
NFPA 1901 chapter 7 contains specific requirements for what type of apparatus?
Mobile Water Supply Apparatus
The size of the water tank specified on a mobile water supply apparatus depends on what variables?
-Bridge weight limits
-monetary constraints
-size of other mobile water supply apparatus in the area
Weight distribution and load requirements generally limit tank capacity of single rear axle vehicles to what?
1500 gallons
What are the two basic methods for which a mobile supply apparatus may be used?
-as a nurse tender
-in a water shuttle operation
Wildland fire apparatus are also known as what?
-Brush trucks
- brush breakers
- booster apparatus
Both NFPA 1500 and niosh prohibit firefighters from riding where on a vehicle?
The outside
According to NFPA 1901, to be a mobile supply apparatus it must carry at least how many gallons?
1000 gallons
Tandem rear axles, tri-axles or a tractor trailer design should be considered for tanks that exceed how many gallons?
1500 gallons
Apparatus designed to perform the functions of both pumper and mobile supply apparatus are?
Tactical tenders
Attack tankers
Wildland fire apparatus usually have pump capacities and water tank sizes of less than what?
500 gallons
Most wildland fire vehicles carry booster hose, forestry hose, or small diameter attack lines that typically range from _____to _____.
1 - 1½ inches
Booster tanks for wildland apparatus vary from as little as __ gallons to in excess of ____gallons
20-1000 gallons
The method by which ICS, as defined by NIMS, categorizes pumping apparatus (including water tenders) by capability is called?
Apparatus typing
Standard for aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles
NFPA 414
Local agencies divide their ARFF apparatus into what three general classifications?
-major fire fighting vehicles
-rapid intervention vehicles (RIV)
-combined agent vehicles
Fire boats have been built to deliver as much as _____gpm.
26,000 gpm
Standard for wildland fire apparatus
NFPA 1906
ARFFapparatus are used to provide immediate suppression of what?
Flammable liquid fires and spill vapors on airport properties
NFPA 414 classifies ARFF vehicles by what?
-agent or agents carried
-agent capacity
-number of drive wheels
What are the two fire fighting operations which fireboats are best suited for?
-pumping water through large master stream devices
-providing additional water for on-shore fire fighting operations
Fire boats commonly have individual master stream turrets that discharge ____ to ____ gpm.
2000 to 3000 gpm
An aerial apparatus with a pump should always be positioned with the ______ ______ in mind as the first priority.
Aerial device
NFPA 1901 specifies that the minimum pump capacity for an aerial apparatus shall be ___gpm @ ___psi.
250 gpm @ 150 psi
Units used on incidents that do not require full size ladder trucks that are typically equipped with small tanks (<300gal) and small pumps(<300gpm).
Ladder tender
Inverters are capable of providing ____ watts or more of electric power.
1,500 watts
Vehicle mounted generators generally have ___ and ___ volt capabilities; capacities up to _____ watts are common on pumpers.
110 and 220 volts

12,000 watts
What are the components necessary on an apparatus for it to be called a Quint?
-aerial device
-ground ladders
-fire pump
-water tank
-fire hose
According to NFPA 1901, if an apparatus is going to be considered a true Quint, it must have at least a ___gpm pump.
750 gpm
An inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle's __ or __ volt DC current into ___ or ___ volt AC current.
12-24 volt DC
110-220 volt AC
Portable generators are designed with a variety of power capabilities, with ____ watts of power being the largest.
5,000 watts
Rescue vehicles generators can have capacities of _____ watts or more.
50,000 watts
Lighting equipment can be divided into what two categories?
Portable and fixed
Fixed mounted bank of lights generally has a capacity of ___ to ____ watts per light.
500-1,500 watts
Most hydraulic power units are not capable of operating the tool at full speed when the hose length between the pump and the tool exceeds how long?
100 ft.
Portable lights generally range from ___ to ____ watts.
300-1000 watts
What are the four basic types of powered hydraulic tools used by the rescue service?
- spreaders
- shears
- combination spreader/shears
-extension rams
The minimum design specifications for most pumping apparatus are contained where?
NFPA 1901, standard for automotive fire apparatus
Specifications for wildland fire fighting vehicles are contained Where?
NFPA 1906
on the fire ground, the driver/operator uses commonly relies one or more of what methods to determine pressure loss and required pump discharge pressure?
- Flowmeters
- Hydraulic calculators
- Pump Charts
- Hand method
- Condensed "Q" method
- GPM flowing
What NFPA standard allows flowmeters to be instead of pressure gauges on all discharges 1 1/2 - 3" in diameter?
NFPA 1901, if 3 -1/2 or large may have flow meters but also must have psi gauges
Two basic types of flowmeters in the fire service?
- Paddle wheel
- Spring probe
the flow meter readout must provide increments no larger then __
10 GPM
When flowmeters are calibrated and in good working condition they should be accurate to what tolerances?
/- 3%
If a discharge is equipped with a flowmeter, it will have a digital readout how far from the control valve?
When relay pumping with a flowmeter, you may increase the engine speed until what two things happen?
- The flowmeter reading no longer increases along with the engine speed.
- The intake pressure drops below 20psi.
What are the two types of hydraulic calculators?
- Manual
- Mechanical/electronic
Using the hand method for calculating friction loss for 2 1/2" hoselines, what figures are assigned to the spaces between the fingers?
Half-Hundred figures
The hand method for 1 3/4" line, what number is every finger multiplied by to calculate friction loss?
When flowing 170gpm or more through a 2 1/2" hoseline, what should you subtract from the first two numbers to calculate friction loss per 100' of line?

ie. 170gpm = 17-10 = 7
when making a pump chart round the discharge pressure to the nearest ___psi
What are some Static supply sources that are alternatives to pressurized water supply systems?
-Portable water tanks
-Swimming pools
The process of raising water form a static source to supply a pumper.
The elevation difference between a static water supply source and the pump intake.
In the customary system of measurement, at sea level a pump could theoretically lift water __._ft.
The maximum height to which any amount of water may be raised through hard intake hose to the pump.
maximum lift
In most circumstances a fire pumps lift is no more than what?
The height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow.
Dependable Lift
Every fire pump in good repair should have a dependable lift of at least what?
The pump is only able to deliver __% of it's capacity at a 15-foot lift and __% at a 20-foot lift.
70% ; 60%
What are the two primary types of static water supply sources that firefighters my draw from if necessary?
What are the two primary factors that must be considered when evaluating natural static water supply sources?
- Adequacy
The adequacy of a stream my be determined using what formula?
Q= A x V x 7.5

Q= flow in gpm
A= area in ft squared (width x depth)
V= velocity in ft/min
7.5= constant(number of gallons per ft cubed)
In small lake capacity, for every 1ft of depth per acre of surface area, water can be provided to what flow for how long?
1000 gpm for 5 hours
Regardless of the assumed water depth, all firefighters working in close proximity to bodies of water must wear what?
What are common types of man-made static water supply sources?
- Cisterns
- Private Water Storage Tanks
- Ground Reservoirs
- Swimming Pools
- Agricultural Irrigation Systems
Underground water storage receptacles that are usually found in areas that are not serviced by a hydrant system. primary purpose?
Cisterns, primary purpose is domestic or agricultural use.
Cisterns capacities range in what sizes? and how are they accessed?
10,000-100,000 gallons are common. accessed by man hole or dry hydrant arrangement
Man-made impoundments that have the same characteristics of a pond or a small lake.
Ground Reservoir
Square or rectangle pool equation
Gallons = L x W x D x 7.5
Round pool equation
Gallons= pi x R2 x D x 7.5
Agricultural irrigation systems in some locations flow in excess of ____gpm.
1000 gpm. may need special threaded adapters
Irrigation water is generally transported by what two methods?
- open canals
- portable pipes
Technically are elevated water tanks a static source?
yes, because they have EP at outlet
private water tanks are found where? sizes?
residential, industrial, agricultural properties
several 100 to several 1000 g
where are ground reservoirs found?
commercial or industrial properties and at municipal water treatment facilities.
The first step that all driver/operators must take in order to begin any pumping operation?
Make the fire pump operational
Driver operators have what three types of water sources to choose from to supply their pump?
- Onboard water tank
- Pressurized source
- Static source
Tests have indicated that the apparatus may override the parking brake system at engine speeds as low as what?
1300 rpm
IFSTA recommends that what gets done every time an engine is left running and the driver/operator exits the cab?
The wheels get chocked
What is the process for engaging auxiliary engine driven water pumps?
Starting the engine since the pump is always in gear when the engine is running.
Of the three possible types of water supply for the fire pump, most driver/operators operate solely form what on a vast majority of incidents?
onboard water tank
In most cases, a multi-stage pump should be operated in what position when operating from the onboard tank?
Some manufacturers recommend that their pumps remain in series until u to what percentage of pump capacity is required?
If the pump is normally full of water, what should the Master Pressure Gauge do as soon as the rpm is increased?
The pressure gauge should start to rise.
What should be done if RPM is increased and the master pressure gauge still fails to rise?
Immediately decrease engine speed, return to the cab and ensure that the transmission is in the right gear and the pump shift transfer has been made.
What are the two basic pressurized water sources?
- Supply hose from another fire pump.
Operating from a negative pressure can increase the possibility of what happening to the fire pump?
Damage to the pump due to cavitation.
To avoid possible damage to the water system, you should not let the intake pressure form a hydrant to drop below what?
20 PSI
What is the first consideration in selecting a hydrant?
Which hydrant is most appropriate in terms of fire fighting and safety.
The worst hydrants are typically located on what?
"Dead-end mains"
What is the NFPA standard for Recommended Practice for Fire Flow Testing and Marking of Hydrants?
NFPA 291
What are the two primary ways that a fir department may use a hydrant
- Forward Lay
- Reverse Lay
Hydrants flow rates:
Class AA Light Blue
1500 gpm or greater
Hydrants flow rates:
Class A Green
1,000-1,499 GPM
Hydrants flow rates:
Class B Orange
500-999 GPM
Hydrants flow rates:
Class C Red
Less than 500 GPM
Dry-barrel hydrants are also called what?
Frost Proof Hydrants
When using 2 1/2" or 3" hoselines to supply the pumper directly off hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than what?
When using threaded couplings, what should be the first coupling off of a hosebed loaded for a reverse lay?
When hose is laid from the fire to the water source.
Reverse Lay
When hose is laid from a water source to the fire.
Forward Lay
What is the disadvantage to reverse lays when only one company is on scene?
There is a delay in fire attack from having to remove necessary equipment, attack lines, and waiting for the pumper to get the water source and begin pumping lines.
The pressure shown on the intake gauge when connected to a hydrant and not flowing any hoslines.
Static pressure
The intake pressure gauge reading when the pumper is flowing hoselines.
Residual pressure
What are the three methods that can be used to calculated how much more water can be supplied?
- Percentage method
- First-digit method
- Squaring the lines method
What is the equation for for percentage method?
percent drop=
(static-residual)(100) / static
To successfully use the Squaring-the-lines method what must you note?
The static pressure on the water system before any of the pump discharges are open.
In the squaring-the-lines method, you may note that the pressure drop in the system is quadrupled each time the flow rate is _______.
After a hydrant is closed and before the last cap is put back on, the operator should do what?
Visually and physically check to be sure that the water is draining from the hydrant.
The friction loss in hard intake hose is dependent on what?
- The diameter of the hose
- The length of the hose
If enough air has been exhausted to reduce the pressure in the pump by 2psi, the water will rise __ feet in the intake hose
4.6 feet (the atmospheric pressure will be 12.7 psi inside the hose and 14.7 outside the hose)
What is the maximum amount of vacuum that most pumps can develop?
22" mercury (also the required amount to prime)
a vacuum of -2 psi is measured on the intake (compound) gauge as __
4 inches of "Mercury"
1 foot of lift is equal to ___ inches of Mercury
.885 inches
Max theoretical lift
33.8 feet
atmospheric pressure decreases 0.5 per _____ feet of elevation
Condition where, in theory, water is being discharged from the pump faster than it is incoming.
Indications that a pump is cavitating.
- Pulsating hose streams
- Fluctuating pump on pressure gauge
- Popping or sputtering as water leaves nozzle.
- Pump sounds like gravel is moving through it
- Lack of reaction on pressure gauge when throttle is adjusted.
What is the first consideration in establishing a successful drafting operation?
Selecting a site
If a drafting site is being selected for a water shuttle operation there may be several location choices. What factors will dictate which location to choose?
- Amount of water
- Type of water
- Accessibility of water
For a pumper to reach it's rated capacity using a traditional strainer, it is desirable for it to have how much space all around the strainer?
2 feet
all fire department pumpers must have a rated lift of ___ per NFPA and UL, but a pumper in good condition can lift up to __, max lift considered reasonable for most pumpers is ___ @ ___% of the rated capacity of the pump.
10; 23-24 Feet; 20 ft-60%
What can be done to prevent a whirlpool over a strainer in a drafting operation?
Place an object that floats over the strainer.

i.e. wooden board, capped plastic bottle, beach ball
Low level strainers are capable of allowing the water to be drafted down to what depth?
about 2"
What should be done anytime that corrosive or nonpotable water has been pumped?
The pump should be flushed with fresh water
As the amount of lift increases, what occurs when drafting through hard intake hose?
- Elevation pressure increases
- Less friction loss can be overcome
- Capacity of the pump is decreased
(capacity of the pump) if the lift is ___the capacity is higher; if the lift is ___ the capacity is decreased.
less; greater
At 20ft of lift, the amount of water that can be supplied is only about __% of the rated cpacity of the pump.
Why would it be necessary to remove the intake valve on a drafting operation?
If it is a butterfly valve, it will obstruct the waterway and reduce the drafting capacity.
The priming action should not be stopped until what has happened?
All the air has been removed and the pump s discharging a steady stream of water.
when priming set the engine RPM's between
1,000-1200 or manufactures's instruction, if using vacuum primer set rpm as low as poss w/o causing engine to stall
The entire priming action typically requires how long from start to finish?
10-15 seconds if using no more then 20' of hard intake hose, lifting a max vertical of 10'
it should not take more the 30 sec for pumps large the 1,250
if not achieved in 30 sec, stop and figure out problem.
What could cause the priming action to take longer than normal?
- More than 20 ft of hard suction
- 10ft or more of lift
- Pumps larger than 1250GPM
If prime hasn't been achieved in 30 seconds, what should be done?
stop priming and check t see what the problem is.
What is the most common cause of inability to prime?
Air leak that prevents primer from developing enough vacuum.
If no air leaks are found, what else could be possible causes for inability to prime?
- Insufficient fluid in the priming reservoir
-Engine speed is too low
- Lift is to high
- A high point in the hard intake hose creating an air pocket
when pump is primed increase throttle before opening discharges to somewhere between
50 and 100 psi. if psi drops below 50 psi pause for a moment while opening the valve.
Why should a small line be left discharging when running a drafting operation?
When no water is being discharged, even the smallest air leak may result in a loss of vacuum.
Problems that occur while operating from draft fall into one of what three categories?
- Air leak on the intake side of the pump
- Whirlpool allowing air to enter the pump
- Air leakage due to defective packing in the pump
While the pump is operating in a draft, a gradual increase in the vacuum reading may be noted with no change in flow rate. What is this an indication of?
A blockage developing
Where is the most common place for a blockage to develop in a drafting operation?
At the strainer
FDC consist of what in order for the pump to be connected?
A siamese with at least two 2 1/2" female connections or one LDH sexless connection that is connected to a clapper inlet.
It is a rule of thumb that one 1,000gpm rated pumper should supply the FDC for every __ sprinklers that are estimated to be flowing.
when charging the sprinkler system and the pump has a multistage pump, make sure it is in the _____ position
It is general rule of thumb to discharge ___psi into the FDC spinklers system
a fireman sent to the control room should have a ___and a ____ and control valves should be ___
flashlight; radio; open unless under construction
Add approximately _psi to the desired nozzle pressure for each floor above the standpipe connection that will have operating fire streams.
Pump discharges in excess ___psi are not encouraged unless the standpipe system has been designed to withstand those higher pressures.
When standpipe is equipped with pressure-reducing valves, the elevation pressure should be based on what?
Total height of the standpipe
if the fdc has a frozen swivel what can be used?
double male can be used with a double female.
Types of positive displacement pumps.
- Single action piston pump
- Double action piston pump
- Rotary Gear pump
- Rotary Vane pump
What is the most used type of pump for priming centrifugal pumps?
Rotary Vane
What classification is a centrifugal pump ?
nonpositive displacement pump
What two parts does a centrifugal pump consist of?
- Impeller
- Casing
Piston pumps are no longer used as high-capacity pumps, some are still in service for high pressure stream fire fighting, these multicylinder, PTO-driven pumps provide pressures up to ____psi
1000psi for high pressure fog lines or to inject foam concentrate line or manifold.
How fast does an impeller rotate on a centrifugal pump?
2,000-4,000 rpm
The centrifugal pump capacity is dependent on what?
The size of the eye. The larger the eye, the greater the flow capacity.
The gradually increasing water passage outside of the impeller that leads to the discharge outlet of the pump.
The three main factors that influence a centrifugal fire pump's discharge pressure.
- Amount of water being discharged.
- Speed at which the impeller is turning.
- Pressure of water when it enters the pump form a pressurized source.
The greater the volume of water being flowed, the _____ the discharge pressure.
The greater the speed of the impeller, the _______ the pressure developed.
Doubling the speed of the impeller results in _____ times as much pressure if all other factors remain constant.
What are the two basic types of centrifugal pumps?
- Single-stage
- Two-stage
To minimize lateral thrust of large quantities of water entering the eye of the impeller, what type of impeller was developed?
Double Suction impeller
If a two stage pump, in parallel, is rated to flow 1000gpm at 150psi, How many gpm does each impeller supply?
500 gpm
When pumping in series, the total amount of water that can be delivered is limited by what?
The amount that one impeller can supply.
The process of switching between pressure and volume, on a multi-stage pump, is referred to as what?
At lower flow rates, operating in the series position reduces what?
The load and required RPM of the engine.
Switching form volume to pressure, in a multi-stage pump, results in an immediate ________ of the previous discharge pressure.
What is the maximum recommended pressure for operating a transfer valve on a multi-stage pump?
50 psi
If here is any question as to the proper operation of the transfer valve, it is better to be in the ________ than in ______.
parallel; series
A very close tolerance must be maintained between the pump casing and the hub of the impeller. This opening is limited to how much?
.01" or less
some manufactures have used as many as four impellers connected in series to develop pressures up to ______ psi for high-pressure fog fire
Power-operated transfer valves can be operated at pressures as high as what?
200 psi
What is the first indication that wear on the pump case and impeller is becoming a problem?
Increased RPM s needed to pump the rated capacity in pump tests.
What is the result of allowing water to churn in the pump, without flow, for extended periods of time?
The water in the pump becomes hot and the metal parts tend to expand causing excess wear on the pump.
The driver/operator can check pump temperature by doing what?
Placing hand on the direct pump intake pipe of the pump.
If packing is too tight, water is not allowed to flow between the packing and the shaft. What is the result of this condition?
excessive heat build-up
After periods of dryness, adjustments to the pump packing should not be made until what has been done?
The pump has been operated under pressure and the packing has had chance to seal properly.
When deciding on mounting arrangements and pump drive systems, for building a pumper, what should be considered?
- Cost
- Appearance
- Space required
- Ease of maintenance
- Tradition
- Use that the system receives
What are the most common applications for auxiliary engine driven pumps?
- ARFF vehicles
- Wildland Fire apparatus
- Mobile water supply apparatus
- Trailer-mounted fire pumps
- Portable fire pumps
What is the pumping capacity of most skid-mounted assemblies on small attack fire apparatus?
500 gpm
Auxiliary engine-driven umps used on ARFF apparatus and for trailer-mounted applications tend to be large capacity pumps rated to what? and some of the diesel engines are capable of up to ___HP
4000 gpm or more; 500 horsepower
Where are trailer mounted pumps usually used?
Industrial and fire training facilities
If an apparatus is designed for pump and roll operations, where should there be a pressure gauge mounted?
In the cab in full view of the driver
If an apparatus is in a pump and roll operation, how should t be driven while hoselines are deployed?
Driven by the pressure gauge instead of the speedometer.
Conventional PTO units limit the capacity of the pump to what?
500 gpm
Why is the horsepower to a PTO limited to approximately 95?
Because the PTO is mounted on the side of the transmission and that is the limits of what the housing can take
some manufacturers are providing " full torque" power take-offs that permit the installation of pumps as large as ____
1250 gpm, the flywheel of the engine drives the pto to make this possible (more torque)
What are two disadvantages to front mount pumps? and what is the ratio gear?
- They are more susceptible to freezing temperatures.
- Obstruct the airflow through the vehicles radiator.
gear ratio is 1-1/2 to 2-1/2:1 to engine speed
On midship pumps when the power is diverted to the pump, instead of the rear axle, The gear ratio is arranged so that the impeller turns how much faster than the engine?
1-1 1/2 times faster
With the engine idling and pump engaged, most speedometers read what?
10-15 mph
What is a disadvantage to rear-mount pumps?
The Driver/operator may be more directly exposed to oncoming traffic than other pump positions.
According to what NFPA standard should all components of the piping system be of a corrosion-resistant material?
NFPA 1901
The piping system as well as the pump must be able to withstand a hydrostatic test of what pressure before being placed into service?
500 psi
What are the two ways water can enter a pump?
- Through piping from an onboard tank.
- Piping connecting the pump to an outside pressurized water source
NFPA 1901 states that pumpers with a capacity of 500 gpm or less should be able to flow ___ gpm form their booster tank.
250 gpm
NFPA 1901 states pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm should be able to flow at least how many GPM form their booster tank?
500 gpm
Why are all intake lines on a centrifugal pump located below the eye of the impeller?
Because the Priming pump is tapped into the pump at the highest point possible to remove all air from the system when drafting.
What intake pipe is the single exception to being below the eye of the impeller?
The tank to pump line which is gravity fed.
What should be considered to be auxiliary intakes to the pump-panel-mounted gated intakes unless they have been certified by the manufacturer?
Front and rear intakes
Some pumpers have a booster cooling line (bypass) that serves the same function as the circulator valve by diverting a portion of the dischage water into the take, what is the GPM of this line?
small copper line 10-20 gpm (may not be enough)
Pumps of what capacity or greater may require more than one intake connection?
1500 gpm or greater
All apparatus with a pump capacity of 750 gpm or greater are required to have how many 2 1/2 discharges?
Discharges larger than what may not be located on the pump operator's panel?
2 1/2 inches, safety reasons
Discharges to which 1 1/2 - 2" handlines are attached must be supplied by at least what size piping?
2 inch
All valves shoud be designed so they are easily operable at pressures of up to what?
250 psi
NFPA 1901 requires that tanks <1000 gallons have a __" fill line and >1000 gallons have at least a __" fill line
1" ; 2"
What is the most common type of valve found on a fire pump?
ball-type valve
NFPA 1901 requires that all intakes or discharges greater than 3" have what type of valves?
Slow acting valve controls
Where should drains be supplied?
The lowest point on the pump and lowest points on each line connected to it.
NFPA 1901 requires some type of pressure control device that must operate within what amount of time after the discharge pressure rises?
3-10 seconds; and must not allow the PSI to go above 30 psi (discharge valves)
What are the two basic concepts for pressure relief valves?
- Those that relieve pressure on the "discharge" side of the pump.
- Those that relieve pressure on the "intake" side of the pump.
While discharge pressure relief valves are quick to react to over pressure conditions, they are sometimes slower to do what?
Reset back to "all closed" positions
What are the two basic kinds of "intake" pressure relief valves?
-Supplied by the manufacturer ad an integral art of the pump intake manifold.
- Add-on device that is screwed onto the pump intake connection.
It is generally recommended that "intake" valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than __psi above the desired operating pressure.
10 psi
Newer apparatus may be equipped with electric governors. These use a pressure sensing element connected to the discharge manifold called what? and ranges?
Pressure Transducer; controls any pressure set on the control knob above 50psi; returns to idle speed when pressure drops below 50 psi
also has a cavitation protection mode that returns the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below 30psi
Electric governors are so accurate and quick to respond that they virtually eliminate the need for the pump to be equipped with what?
Discharge pressure relief valve
Primers fall into what three categories?
- Positive displacement
- Exhaust
- Vacuum
Which requires a higher RPM to operate? Rotary Vane primer or Rotary Gear primer?
Rotary Vane Primer
Engine driven primers should generally be able to operate with engine speeds of what?
1,000-1,200 RPM
NFPA 1901 requires the what controls to be on the operator's pump panel?
- Master pump intake pressure
- Master pump discharge pressure
- Engine Tach
- Engine coolant temp
- Engine oil pressure indicator
- Pump pressure controls (discharge valves)
-Engine throttle
- Primer control
- Tank to pump valve
- Tank fill valve
- Water tank level indicator
What is not required by NFPA 1901, but recommended to be located on the operator's pump panel?
- Engine fuel gauge
- Automatic transmission temperature gauge
What type of gauge should be on the intake side of the pump?
Master Intake gauge
(also referred to as the vacuum or compound gauge)
What is the master intake gauge usually calibrated to?
0-600 psi positive pressure
0-30 inches mercury (vacuum) negative pressure
The Master Pump Discharge pressure gauge should measure ___psi unlessthe pumper is equipped to supply high-pressure fog streams; in which case the gauge may be calibrated up to ____psi.
600si ; 1000psi
What indicates wear in the pump and the need for repairs?
A gradual increase in the amount of RPM required to pump the rated capacity.
When can overheating of the pump occur?
When it is ran for prolonged periods of time when no water is being discharged.
The throttle knob is also called what?
What is the most reliable way to insure that the water tank is full?
Visually check it during your routine daily inspection.
What are the two types of auxiliary coolers commonly found on older apparatus?
- Marine type
- Immersion type
In situations where a dramatic failure of a radiator hose or other cooling system element occurs while the pumper is supplying hoselines for crews in dangerous positions, what can be done to keep the operation up for a short time?
A hoseline can be directed onto the engine to maintain some form of cooling.