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Paw Paw Village Pharmacy: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Flashcards

Terms in this set (177)

The study of science that deals with the origin, nature, chemistry, effects, and uses of drugs ...

The act or process of combining two or more drug products or chemicals into a single preparation.

Drug Interactions

____ _________ occur when one drug affects or is affected by another substance or condition in the body.

The _____ of a drug is the amount of drug contained in a specified unit.

Dose or Doseage

The ______ is the quantity of drug taken by a patient.

Tablets, capsules, creams, drops, solutions, aerosol, etc. are all types of _______ ______.

______ _______ refers to the schedule of medication administration. (e.g. tid, q4h, qhs).

Route of Administration

_________ ___ ____________ refers to the way the drug gets into the body. (E.g. by mouth, by injection).

Administration Routes

Buccal, epidural, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous, nasal, oral, otic, rectal, sublingual, topical, vaginal, etc. are all types of ________ _________.

Therapeutic Equivalence

The term _________ __________ refers to the process that certifies that a generic drug has the same active ingredients, dosage form, standards for purity and quality, and standards for manufacturing, and the same amount of drug is absorbed in the body over the same time as with the proprietary (brand name) drug.

Proprietary or Trade-name Drug

Another name for a brand name drug.

Non-Proprietary Drug

Another name for a generic drug.

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) ____ book assigns therapeutic equivalence ratings to generic drugs.

Drug-Drug (Interaction)

This type of drug interaction occurs when one drug (prescription or non-prescription) affects the action of another drug... (Ex. Some antibiotics increase levels of the blood thinner warfarin by changing how warfarin is metabolized).

Drug-Disease (Interaction)

This type of drug interaction occurs when a patient's disease affects a drug's action of the drug worsens a patient's disease... (Ex. Patients with uncontrolled high blood pressure should avoid oral pseudoephedrine decongestants because they may increase blood pressure).

Drug-Dietary Supplement (Interaction)

This type of drug interaction occurs when a dietary supplement interacts with the drug ... (Ex. St. John's wort can decrease levels of some birth control pills).

Drug-Laboratory (Interaction)

This type of drug interaction occurs when a drug affects a patient's laboratory test ... (Ex. drugs that change urine color and affect urinalysis results).

Drug-Nutrient (Interaction)

This type of drug interaction occurs when a nutrient interacts with a drug or the drug affects nutrient levels ... (Drugs that decrease levels of some vitamins)

Drug Indication

The reason the agent is prescribed for a patient or the purpose of a drug's use for self treatment.

A harmful or undesirable effect caused by administration of a medication.

The result of a body's immune system in reaction to a drug.

Contraindication

A reason why a specific drug either cannot be used or should be used only with caution in a specific patient population.

Central nervous system medications

Which category of medications include antidepressants, anti-psychotics, anxiety medications, Alzheimer' medications, Parkinson's medications, anti-seizure, ADHD medications, centrally acting pain medications and more?

Respiratory medications

Which category of medications include inhaled corticosteroids, asthma medications, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease medications and more?

Gastrointestinal medications

Which category of medications include acid-reducing medications, proton pump inhibitors, and immune modulating drugs?

Endocrine medications

Which category of medicines include diabetic, and thyroid medications, corticosteriods, and more.

Hormonal medications

Which category of medications include estrogens, progestins, and testosterone.

Cardiac medications that affect blood pressure

Which category of medications include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, diuretics, and more?

Cardiac medications that modify lipid levels

Which category of medications include statins, ezetimibe, niacin, fenofibrate, and gemfibrozil?

Cardiac anti-clotting medications

Which category of medications include aspirin, warfarin, heparin, low-molecular weight heparins, newer anticoagulants?

Genitoruinary medications

Which category of medications include drugs for overactive bladder, erectile dysfunctions, and prostate enlargement?

_______ ___________ occurs when the body's immune system reacts to a drug.

Contraindication (therapeutic contraindication or warning)

__________ is a reason why a specific drug either cannot be used or should be used only with caution in a specific patient population or in patients with an existing condition.

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorderr

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Congestive heart failure

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Erectile dysfunction

Gastroesophagel reflux disease

Hydrochlorothiazide

Human immunodeficiency virus

Myocardial infarction

Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Postherpetic neuralgia

Percutaneous transluminal coronary anginoplasty

Any drug consisting of altered, dirty, or unclean product; or a drug that is prepared, packaged, or stored under sanitary conditions, or prepared in unsafe containers.

Package labeling that is false or misleading about the identity of what is in the container, or fails to carry required warnings or instructions on product labeling.

Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

Classified drugs with the potential for abuse or dependence into schedules. Legal requirements for controlled substances are generally stricter than those for non-controlled medications.

Federal food, drug, and cosmetic act (of 1938)

Which act stated that new drugs must be approved by the FDA?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment (of 1951)

This amendment separated drugs into prescription and no-prescription categories.

Poison Prevention Packaging Act (of 1970)

This act required most prescription and nonprescription drugs to be packaged in child-resistant containers.

Occupational Safety and Health Act (of 1970)

This act established the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), which ensures a safe and healthful work environment.

This schedule of drugs is reserved for drugs with extremely high potential for abuse, and no accepted medical use

This schedule of drugs is reserved for drugs with a high abuse potential which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence (e.g., methadone, oxycodone, morphine).

This schedule of drugs is reserved for drugs with a lower abuse potential than schedules 1 & 2, but may lead to psychological or physical dependence (e.g., hydrocodone combination products).

This schedule of drugs is reserved for drugs with a low potential for abuse relative to schedule 3 substances (e.g., alprazolam).

This schedule of drugs is reserved for drugs with a low potential for abuse relative to schedule 4 substances (e.g., cough preparations containing minimal codeine)

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (of 1990)

This act required pharmacists to perfrom a drug therapy review and offer medication counseling to patients or their caregivers for all prescriptions filled.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) (of 1996)

This act required that health care providers ensure patient confidentiality.

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (of 2005)

This act subjected pseudophedrine and other agents used in the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine ("crystal meth") to restricted sales, storage, and record keeping requirements.

3.6 g/day or 9 g/30-day period

Pseudoephedrine sales limit is ....

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

This act provides guidance for disposal of hazardous and nonhazardous waste.

Which agency enforces prescriber and pharmacy compliance with the Controlled Substances Act?

What agency oversees drug purity, safety, and effectiveness; issues and monitors drug recalls if products are adulterated or misbranded; regulates patient package inserts; and reviews applications for new and investigational drugs?

The Joint Commission (the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO))

This commission sets standards and grants accreditation to health care organizations to promote patient safety and quality of care.

State Boards of Pharmacy (BOP)

This board regulates pharmacy practice within each state.

Which form is required for ordering or transfering schedule II controlled substances, with records maintained for 2 years

Which form is required for the destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances, including documentation of witnesses present for the destruction.

Which form is required for theft of controlled substances, after the local DEA diversion office and police are notified?

Pharmacy Technicians

The NABP defines _______ _________ as "personnel registered with the Board who may under the supervision of the pharmacist, assist in the pharmacy and perform such functions as assisting in the dispensing process; processing medical coverage claims,; stocking medications; cashiering, but excluding drug regimen review; clinical conflict resolution; prescriber contact concerning prescription drug order clarification or therapy modification; patient counseling; dispensing process validation; prescription transfer; and receipt of new prescription drug orders."

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)

What does REMS stand for? (used to help manage serious risks associated with drug products, such as transmucosal immediate-release fentanyl products, and topical testosterone agents.

Patient package inserts

This was the FDA's first formal effort to communicate specific drug risks to patients through additional labeling.

7-14 day supply

The clozaril national registry is required prior to dispensing a ___ - ___ day supply of clozapine. A cuttent and acceptable white blood cell count is required, with routine monitoring.

Clozaril, Tikosyn, Thalomid, Accutane, Amnesteem, Claravis, Sotret.

Name some products that require a REMS program ....

Patient profile

A ____ ____ is a record containing information about a specific patient including demographic information, medical history, medication use chronology, allergies, and chronic illnesses.

The identified disease of health condition determined by the prescriber through assessment of the patient's signs and symptoms.

Desired therapeutic outcome

The desired result of drug therapy is referred to as the _____ _____ _____ .

Medication reconciliation

The process of reviewing a patient's complete medication list for accuracy each time the patient undergoes a transition of care is called _____ _____ .

Electronic health records

These type of records are defined as pharmacy-related computer applications for documenting the dispensing or prescriptions or medication orders (e.g., maintaining the electronic medical record, patient adherence, risk factors, alcohol and drug use, drug allergies, side effects).

A ________ is an order for the preparation and administration of a drug or non-drug remedy issued by a licensed medical practitioner who is authorized by state law to prescribe.

Patient information, date, name of the product, strength of the product, dosage form, quantity of medication to be dispensed, directions for preparation, directions for labeling, directions for the patient on the prescription label, refill information, prescriber information, prescriber signature.

Prescriptions should contain the following information ...

The process of entering new prescription or medication information into a patient profile or creating a new patient profile.

Drug Utilization Review (DUR) (or drug utilization evaluation (DUE))

A ___ _______ ______ are automatic pharmacy computer system warnings used to alert pharmacists and technicians to potential medication errors or problems.

A ______ is a list of preferred or acceptable medications set by an individual or group of third-party payers or institutions

____-____ is a form of packaging used to package individual doses of a medication (e.g., blister packing).

Step 1: Add the 1st, 3rd, and 5th digits.
Step 2: Add the 2nd, 4th, and 6th digits. Multiply this number by 2.
Step 3: Add the two totals together.
Step 4: The second digit in that total should equal the last digit in the DEA number
(referred to as the "check digit").

What is the formula used to verify the validity of a DEA number?

Name and address of pharmacy, date the prescription was filled, prescription number, drug name (generic or trade), strength, and quantity, directions for patient (administration route, schedule, duration), patient's name, prescriber's name, expiration date, number of refills (if authorized), lot number, pharmacist's initials, Auxiliary labels providing additional information, any additional information required by state or federal laws.

Prescription labels should include ...

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

An HMO or _____ _______ _______ offers subscribers a range of medical services for a predetermined fee.

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

A PPO or ______ ______ ______ offers subscribers a range of medical services for a predetermined fee. (Patients may receive a wider range of providers than with HMO's, and out of pocket costs are often less)

Pharmacy Benefits Manager (PBM)

A PBM or _____ _____ ______ is a third-party administrator of prescription drug programs that processes and pays prescription drug claims; develops and maintains formularies; and contracts with pharmacies.

Prior Authorization

A PA or _____ ________ by the insurer may be needed for a patient to receive some drug products or services.

A ______ _____ may occur to verify proper billing practices and verify compliance with third-party requirements.

A patient's _____ is the amount the patient pays for a prescription. This amount is set by the patient's prescription insurer as either a fixed dollar amount or a percentage of the total prescription cost. This amount may also vary based on the drug's formulary status or other factors.

A ______ is a predetermined amount that the patient must pay during each benefit period before insurance benefits are administered.

A prescription that has been billed for the full amount, but the patient only receives a portion of the prescription is referred to as a ____ fill.

(USP) Chapter 795

The United States Pharmacopia chapter ____ provides standards for nonsterile compounding of pharmaceutical products.

_______ is the act or process of combining two or more drug products or chemicals into a single preparation.

Nonsterile (products)

______ products includes solutions, suspensions, ointments, creams, powders, suppositories, tablets, or capsules that are prepared for external or oral use.

_____ uses a mortar and pestle to grind a drug solid to reduce particle size, or to mix two or more solids together.

_____ disperses a drug solid in a small amount of mineral oil, glycerin, or other liquid before incorporating it into a compounding base, such as an ointment.

Geometric (dilution)

______ dilution is a method for mixing a small amount of a potent drug with a large amount of a nonpotent or inactive compound.

Single (compounding)

_____ compounding is defined by USP as making a preparation according to an established monograph or formula and applying published stability data for that specific formulation, or reconstituting or manipulating commercial products according to manufacturer instructions (e.g., reconstitution of an antibiotic suspension).

Moderate (compounding)

_____ compounding is defined by USP as making preparations that require special calculations or procedures to determine the amount of each component per preparation or dosage unit or making a preparation that does not have published stability data for that specific formulation (e.g., mixing two or more creams together when the stability of the final product is unknown).

Complex (compounding)

_____ compounding is defined by USP, requires advanced training and special equipment, preparation environment, and procedures (e.g., making transdermal patches).

(USP) Chapter 797

The United States Pharmacopia chapter ____ provides standards for sterile compounding of pharmaceutical products.

Sterile products must be ____, (free from pathogenic microorganisms, and contain no bacterial or viral contaminants)

Intravenous (IV)

_____ (IV) admixtures are IV solutions compounded with two or more ingredients (e.g., one or moer additives mixed with the primary IV solution)

Laminar / Horizontal / Vertical

____ airflow hoods are used to prevent contamination by microorganisms with preparing sterile products. These hoods can filter air horizontally or vertically. _____ airflow hoods are used to prepare most products. _____ airflow hoods are used to protect the operator from exposure to harmful agents when preparing cytotoxic drugs.

_____ agents or cytotoxins are drugs that are "toxic" to cells of susceptible organs. These agents commonly treat many forms of cancer (neoplasms).

________ agents refer to specialized drugs used to treat cancers.

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

PPE's or _____ _______ ________ refer to special equipment (e.g., gloves) and procedures for handling or compounding hazardous drugs.

Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) & Isopropyl alcohol (isopropanol or "rubbing alcohol")

____ alcohol and ____ alcohol are commonly used agents to sterilize the compounding surface.

____ are sealed glass containers that hold a small amount of drug.

Incompatibility

An ________ can occur when one drug is mixed with another and the product is unsuitable, because of physical or chemical changes such as drug precipitation.

______ is a process of using aseptic techniques to inject an appropriate amount of diluent (most commonly normal saline) into a vial. Then, shake the container and leave it on the hood surface until every particle of the powder has dissolved and the resultant solution becomes clear.

_______ most commonly describes drugs that kill causative organisms, such as cancer cells.These agents may be toxic at any exposure level, and technicians need to take special precautions when preparing these sterile products.

Medication Error

A ______ _____ includes any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm, while the health care professional , patient, or consumer has control of the medication.

A _____-_____ medication has a high risk of causing injury if involved in an error.

A _____-_____ cause of a medication error is a factor common to a health care, pharmacy, or patient care system that increases the likelihood of an error.

(Institute for) Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)

Technicians can report medication errors externally to the Institute for ____ ______ ______ (ISMP) Medication Errors Reporting Program (MERP)

Technicians can report serious adverse drug events, potential and actual product use errors, and product quality problems to the FDA ________ program.

The Five "Rights" of Safe Medication Use

1. right drug is administered to the
2. right patient
3. right time in the
4. right dose by the
5. right route of administration.

Quality assurance

_____ _______ refers to all factors that influence the quality of medication and related products, pharmacy services, and patient care in the medication use process. (Measures may include tracking customer wait times, improving efficiency in prescription or medication order processing, using customer satisfaction surveys, and analyzing communication practices within the pharmacy).

Quality improvement

_____ ________ is achieved by defining specific outcomes that are measured and monitored over time as changes are made in the system.

Continuous quality improvement

_____ _____ _____ is the philosophy of continually improving the processes associated with providing any good service.

Quality indicator

A ____ _____ measures a particular process or outcome.

(The) Joint Commission, (and the) Center (for) Pharmacy Practice Accreditation

Organizations such as the ____ _______ and the ____ for ______ ______ ________ accredit pharmacies in an effort to continuously improve the quality of pharmacy care.

Theft and diversion

Drug _____ and drug ______ are terms for illegally obtaining any medication. The drugs usually affected are controlled substances.

Pharmacy ______ includes any product or merchandise (e.g., drugs, devices) available to meet future demand.

Expiration Date

The manufacturers _______ ____ indicates the date until which the manufacturer can guarantee the full potency and safety of the drug, provided it is stored under required conditions.

Inventory ______ ____ refers to the number of times a product is purchased, sold, and replaced during a specific accounting period.

____ _____ denotes the inventory level at which a drug is automatically reordered.

Reverse _______ assist in returning expired or unusable products to help maintain compliance with the manufacturer's return policies. They also receive and process return credits.

A pharmaceutical ___ ____ describes the specific type of waste generated by a pharmacy and how the waste gets disposed.

Material Safety Data Sheet

The ______ _______ ______ _____ (MSDS) gives information on the storage, handling, and disposal of hazardous drugs products, such as chemotherapy agents.

National Drug Code

The _______ ____ ____ (NDC) number is a unique 3-segment, 10-digit identification number assigned to each medication. Each human drug must have an NDC number as a unique product identification number.

The first segment of the NDC is called the _____ _____, and is assigned by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and identifies the labeler (manufacturer, repackager, or distributor)

The second segment of the NDC is called the _____ ____, and is assigned by the labeler and identifies the drug product, including its strength and dosage form for the specific manufacturer.

The third segment of the NDC is called the _____ _____, and is also assigned by the labeler and identifies package size and type.

Manufacturers use ___ ______ to identify internal production batches of drugs and other products. Lot numbers help trace specific products that require recall or removal from inventory.

Beyond-use date

The ____-___ ____ indicates the date after which the prepared or dispensed prescription may not be used by the patient. Technicians must clearly differentiate this date from the manufacturer's expiration date.

Inventory management

______ ________ is the system of ordering, storing, repackaging, and disposing of pharmacy products and merchandise.

Inventory Control

Pharmacies use specific _____ _____ procedures to purchase products in sufficient quantity to meet the anticipated demands of the customer, while controlling inventory size and costs.

____ ______ involves managing inventory costs by first using drug products that will expire soonest. This will minimize the risk of a product expiring and the needing to be returned to the wholesaler for a partial credit.

Automated order systems

Some pharmacies use _______ _______ _______ along with their inventory systems. These system reconcile actual drug inventory levels in the pharmacy computer when a drug gets dispensed, using a bar code or other technology. When a drug quantity reaches a predetermined par level, that drug is automatically added to a daily order list or ordered electronically.

Controlled substances require additional steps for monitoring ongoing inventory levels. Federal and state law require that pharmacies conduct a biennial inventory (every 2 years) of all controlled substances, including an exact count of Schedule II medications and an approximate count of Schedule III, IV, and V drugs.

Perpetual Inventory

A _____ _____ of Schedule II medications shows all drugs received or dispensed at any time and gives the actual quantity of any Schedule II medication on hand. Some states require an ongoing perpetual inventory count of Schedule II drugs.

Proper fraction

A fraction in which the numerator (top number) is smaller than the denominator (bottom number)

Improper fraction

A fraction in which the numerator (top number) is larger than the denominator (bottom number)

Simple fractions

Proper fractions reduced to lowest terms

Complex fractions

fractions in which the numerator (top number) and the denominator (bottom number) are fractions.

Roman numerals for 1/2

Roman numerals for 1

Roman numerals for 5

Roman numerals for 10

Roman numerals for 50

Roman numerals for 100

Roman numerals for 500

Roman numerals for 1000

Roman numerals rule: When a smaller numeral is placed before a larger numeral, it is ______ from the larger numeral.

Roman numerals rule: When a smaller numeral is placed after a larger numeral, it is ______ to the larger numeral.

parts in one hundred

Percent and its corresponding sign (%) mean "____ ___ ___ _____"

A ____ _____ refers to the schedule of medication administration (e.g., every 4 hours, 3 times a day, at bedtime)

____ is the total amount paid for an item or items received, as noted on an invoice.

The ____ ____ is 100% of the amount you will receive for the sale of an item (this includes your cost plus whatever amount you want as profit).

____ is the difference between teh cost for a product and its actual selling price (selling price = cost + markup)

_____ _____ must be stated as either " ____ _____ on the selling price" or as "_____ _____ on the cost" In retail practice, "____ ____" usually means percent of sales, not of cost.

Percent Gross Profit

____ ____ _____ is the percent markup based on the selling price, instead of the cost.

_______ includes operating costs such as utilities, taxes, insurance, and technician salaries.

____ _____ can be defined as: Selling price - (cost of goods + overhead)

______ includes all items on hand and their total cost.

_____ refers to the number of times that merchandise is sold in a given length of time, normally 1 year.

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