How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

261 terms

CN

STUDY
PLAY
The ____ layer of the TCP/IP model maps to both the Data Link & Physical layer s of the OSI reference model.

a. Transport
b. Internetwork
c. Network Interface
d. Application
C. Network Interface
The _____ layer in the TCP/IP model handles software, or logical, addressing.

a. Network Interface
b. Application
c. Transport
d. Internetwork
D. Internetwork
Many network devices maintain tables of the MAC and IP addresses of other devices on the network. These tables are called _____.
C. ARP tables
_____ provides the same basic functionality as RARP.

a. DHCP
b. HTTP
c. SNMP
d. IP
A. DHCP
The _____ utility uses ICMP echo request/reply messages and can verify Internetwork layer (OSI-Network layer) connectivity.

a. Find
b. Path
c. Trace
d. Route
C. Trace
A(n) _____ is caused by a malicious user or program that sends a large quantity of ICMP echo requests (pings) to a target device in an attempt to crash or greatly reduce the performance of the target device.

a. SYN flood
b. ICMP flood
c. Ping of Death
d. smurf attack
B. ICMP flood
_____ protocols allow the routers to be updated automatically.

a. Internetwork
b. MAP
c. Routing
d. smurf attack
C. Routing
_____ is the process of assigning unique IP addresses to devices on the network.

a. Virtual addressing
b. Network addressing
c. IP access
d. IP addressing
D. IP addressing
It seems that 127.0.0.1 (decimal) is the highest assignable Class A address, but that particular address range is reserved as the _____ address.

a. multicast
b. loopback
c. broadcast
d. unicast
B. Loopback
To determine how many digits are used for the network identifier, you must look at the _____, which is a required component for all IP hosts.

a. subnet mask
b. MAC mask
c. network mask
d. TCP/IP mask
A. Subnet mask
When the host portion of an IP address is all binary zeros, that address is the _____ identifier.

a. subnetwork
b. broadcast
c. class
d. multicast
A. Subnetwork
_____ is based on assigning IP addresses on criteria other than octet boundaries.

a. ARIN
b. IANNA
c. CIDR
d. VLSR
C. CIDR
_____ tell the computer or router which part of an IP address is the network portion & which part is the host portion.

a. CIDR tables
b. Summarization tables
c. Subnet masks
d. Router masks
C. Subnet masks
The decimal number 192 expressed in binary is _____.

a. 10000101
b. 11000000
c. 11010010
d. 11100100
B. 11000000
Although the base _____ numbering system seems foreign at first glance, largely due to the addition of letters, it really is an efficient way to express large numbers such as MAC & IPv6 addresses.

a. 2
b. 16
c. IP2
d. IPNext
B. 16
_____ is the most important layer 3 security protocol.

a. IPSec
b. ARP
c. DNS
d. NAT
A. IPSec
The ____ transition method involves enabling IPv6 on all routers, switches, & end nodes but not disabling IPv4--so both version 4 & version 6 stacks run at the same time.

a. scheduling
b.tunneling
c. dual stack
d. natting
C. Dual stack
Provides TCP/IP host name to IP address resolution.
DNS serivce
A distributed file system developed by Sun Microsystems that allows data to be shared across a network.
NFS
Indicates that a TCP connection is to be terminated without further interaction.
RST
Verifies connectivity between two points
Ping utility
A connectionless protocol that permits remote tracking & management of TCP/IP hosts.
SNMP
Used by TCP to establish a reliable connection between two points.
Three-way handshake
A portion of memory where the device store incoming packets until they can be processed.
Buffer
Contains enough information in its header to be routed through an internetwork.
Routed protocol
Provides IP address to MAC address resolution in a manner similar to that of ARP.
RARP
A classless routing protocol.
OSPF
The next generation of IP
IPv6
Indicates how much of the IP address represents the network or subnet.
Subnet mask
Also known as route aggregation.
Summarization
A global, government-independent entity with overall responsibility for the Internet.
ICANN
Four bits, which is half of a byte.
Nibble
Manages IP addresses in the United States.
ARIN
Developed to slow the exhaustion of IP addresses.
CIDR
A classful routing protocol.
RIP version 1
Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model?

a. Data Link
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Network
D. Network
Bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?

a. Network
b. Data Link
c. Session
d. Transport
B. Data Link
Which of the following is a reliable communications protocol?

a. UDP
b. TCP
c. IP
d. ICMP
B. TCP
Which of the following is used by the TFTP protocol?

a. UDP
b. TCP
c. ICMP
d. Telnet
A. UDP
Which of the following is a layer in the TCP/IP protocol? (Choose all that apply)

a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Physical
d. Data Link
e. Internetwork
A. Application
B. Presentation
E. Internetwork
Which of the following is a TCP/IP Application layer protocol? (Choose all that apply)

a. DNS
b. FTP
c. UDP
d. IP
E. ICMP
A. DNS
B. FTP
Which of the following is a TCP/IP Transport layer protocol? (Choose all that apply)

a. ARP
b. RARP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. TCP
D. UDP
E. TCP
What are the well known port numbers?

a. 1024 - 49151
b. 49152 - 65535
c. 0 - 1021
d. 1 - 1023
D. 1 -1023
What is the purpose of the three-way handshake?

A. To establish a reliable connection between points.
B. To establish an unreliable connection between two points
C. To establish a relationship at the Application layer between two points.
D. To establish a relationship at the internetwork layer between two points.
A. To establish a reliable connection between points.
What is an ARP table?

a. Destination & source MAC addresses.
b. MAC & corresponding IP addresses.
c. Destination & Source IP addresses.
d. Routes to networks.
B. MAC & corresponding IP addresses.
What do computers do with the information in an ARP request when they are not the destination IP?

A. Update their ARP caches with the destination information.
B. Update the ARP caches with the source information.
C. Update their routing tables with the ARP information.
D. None of the above
B. Update the ARP caches with the source information.
An ARP request is a _____.

a. Multicast
b. Unicast
c. Broadcast
d. Anycast
C. Broadcast
The IEEE standard that defines port switching designed to shut down a switch port to all frames unless they are authentication frames.
802.1x
The IEEE standard that defines wireless networking in the unlicensed frequency bands 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz.
802.11
An ARP reply is a _____.

a. Multicast
b. Unicast
c. Broadcast
d. Anycast
B. Unicast
RARP has largely been replaced by?

a. BOOTP
b. ARP
c. DHCP
d. DNS
C. DHCP
Ping and Trace both reply on what protocol?

a. SMTP
b. DNS
c. ICMP
d. TFTP
C. ICMP
When sending packets to remote segments, router rely on information in _____.

a. ARP tables
b. Routing tables
c. Switching tables
d. ROM
B. Routing tables
Distance-Vector algorithms & Link-state algorithms are used in _____.

a. DHCP
b. ARP
c. Static Routing
d. Dynamic Routing
D. Dynamic Routing
True or False:

Each interface on a router represents an IP address on a different network.
True
The TCP acknowledgement process is _____.

a. Expectational
b. Sequential
c. Exceptional
d. Sesquicentennial
A. Expectational
Which of the following are not ICMP message types?

a. Echo & destination unreachable
b. Source quench & redirect
c. Relay & reroute
d. Parameter problem & information
e. Timestamp & time exceeded
C. Relay & Reroute
Which layer of Cisco's Three-Layer Hierarchial model provides services such as traffic control & security the network?

a. Access layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Core layer
d. All layers can provide these functions, traffic control & security are not addressed by this model.
B. Distribution layer
A fast ethernet implementation over multimode fiber-optic cabling. The maximum segment length is 412 meters.
100BaseFX
A 100-Mbps fast ethernet implementation that uses four pairs of either Caterory 3, 4, or 5 UTP cable. The maximum segment length is 100 meters.
100BaseT4
A fast ethernet implementation that use two pairs of either Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (STP). It also operates at the 100 Mbps with a maximum segment distance of 100 meters.
100BaseTX
An IEEE 802.3z Gigabit Ethernet implementation that uses balanced copper cabling to achieve 1000 Mbps.
1000BaseCX
An IEEE 802.3z Gigabit Ethernet implementation that uses single-mode fiber to achieve 1000 Mbps.
1000BaseLX
An IEEE 802.3z Gigabit Ethernet implementation that uses multimode fiber to achieve 1000 Mbps.
1000BaseSX
An IEEE 802.3z Gigabit Ethernet implementation that uses all four pairs of Category 5 or better UTP cable to achieve 1000 Mbps.
1000BaseT
A device that connect multiple nodes and/or networks, is connected to external power, & repeats & regenerates signals on a network.
Active hub
A wireless mode where client devices connect directly to each other without an access point.
Ad hoc mode
Works with 802.1x to carry the authentication information between the user, the access point, & the security server.
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
True or False:

Routers can choose the best path across an internetwork using dynamic routing techniques.
True
True or False:

Routers work only with routable network protocols; most but not all protocols are routable.
True
A devices that connects network segments but does not perform signal regeneration.
Passive hub
A delay on a network caused by variety of factors, including the addition of devices.
Latency
A network device that uses LEDs or diode lasers to amplify optical signals.
Optical repeater
A 32-bit signal that is sent by the first station to detect a collision on an Ethernet network; ensure that all other stations are aware of the collision.
Jam signal
A wireless mode in which the access point is wired back into a switch so that the client has access to the LAN and WAN, not just the WLAN.
Infrastructure mode
A wireless network with m ultiple access points connected to switches. The access point are typically configured with the same network name (SSID) to facilitate roaming.
Extended Service Set (ESS)
A device that functions as a bridge for nonroutable protocols & a router for routable protocols. Which operate at both the Data Link & Network layers.
Brouter
What is TCP port 20 7& 21?
FTP data transfer
What is TCP port 23?
Telnet
What is TCP port 25?
SMTP
What is TCP & UDP 53?
Domain Name System (DNS)
What is UDP port 67 & 68?
DHCP
What is TCP port 80?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Web services
What is TCP & UDP port 123?
Network Time Protocol (NTP)
What is TCP port 110?
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)
What is TCP port 119?
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
What is UDP port 69?
TFTP
What is UDP port 161?
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Well known ports are those from ___ thru ____.
1 thru 1,023
Registered ports are those from _____ thru _____.
1,024 thru 49,151
Dynamic/Private ports are those from _____ thru _____.
49,152 thru 65,535
For a class B broadcast, which octets will be completely binary ones?

a. 2nd
b. 2nd & 3rd
c. 1st & 2nd
d. 3rd & 4th
D. 3rd & 4th
Which of the following is a Class A Broadcast?

a. 11.255.255.255
b. 127.75.255.255
c. 193.255.255.255
d. 14.25.255.255
A. 11.255.255.255
Which of the following address classes allows you to borrow a maximum of 14 bits to create a subnet mask?

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. None of the above
B. Class B
Assuming that the address 165.24.3.6 uses the correct default mask, what is the host identifier?

a. 165.24
b. 24.3.6
c. 3
d. 3.6
D. 3.6
What is True regarding IPv6? (Choose all the that apply).

a. Addresses are expressed in binary
b. Addresses are expressed in hexadecimal
c. Its difficult to transition to IPv6
d. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits rather than 32 bits like IPv4 addresses
e. Most Cisco systems support IPv6.
B. Addresses are expressed in hexadecimal
E. Most Cisco systems support IPv6
What are some reason to switch to IPv6?
(Choose all that apply).

a. The equipment costs less.
b. IPv6 is inherently more secure.
c. There is more address space available with IPv6
d. IPv6 will handle NAT configurations automatically
e. Broadcasting will be replaced with multicasting.
B. IPv6 is inherently more secure.
C. There is more address space available with IPv6.
E. Broadcasting will be replaced with multicasting.
True or False:

Routers are slower than other devices because they must analyze a data transmission from the Physical through the Network layer.
True
Network administrators typically access the router directly through the console port (also known as the _____) located on the back of the router.

a. DB-9
b. VTY
c. console
d. AUX
C. Console
The console port connects directly to a PC through a(n) _____ rollover cable.

a. RJ-45 to RJ-10
b. RJ-45 to RJ-45
c. RJ-9 to RJ-45
d. RJ-9 to RJ-10
B. RJ-45 to RJ-45
The _____ port allows a remote administrator to dial into the router through an external modem.

a. auxiliary
b. console
c. virtual
d. terminal
A. Auxiliary
User mode does noe allow you to configure the router. To do this, you must go into the _____ EXEC mode.

a. privileged
b. config
c. user
d. router
A. Privileged
To enter privileged EXEC, you cant type the _____ command at the user mode prompt.

a. sudo

b. setup
c. enable
d. privileged
C. Enable
With _____ configuration mode, you can configure the virtural terminals, console, and AUX lines that let you access the router.

a. global
b. interface
c. router
d. line
D. line
True or False:

The ststem configuration dialog presents a series of prompts that guide you through the inital configuration for the router.
True
True or False:

The content of ROM is maintained even when the router is rebooted.
True
True or False:

Most types of computer equipment perform some type of POST immediately after being turned on.
True
True or False:

There is no copy command that copies between flash and a running or startup configuration file.
True
True or False:

Using CDP can help you quickly determine the network topology.
True
The _____ command is typically used as a legal means of warning anyone who accesses the banner that they will be held accountable.

a. banner legal
b. legal motd
c. banner motd
d. motd on
C. Banner motd
You can configure a description for each of the interfaces physically attached to your router by using the ____ command.

a. banner
b, description
c. motd
d. interface
B. Description
_____ is a special type of RAM that is not cleared when the router is rebooted.

a. DRAM
b. Flash memory
c. ROM
d. NVRAM
D. NVRAM
_____ contains the working copy of the current Cisco IOS and is the component that initalize the IOS for normal router operations.

a. ROM
b. Flash memory
c. DRAM
NVRAM
B. Flash memory
A(n) _____ server is a computer, such as a PC, UNIX workstation, or laptop that is running TFTP server services.

a. Web
b. TCP
c. SSH
d. TFTP
D. TFTP
Somethines the _____ file is referred to as the backup configuration because it is the saved version of the configuration file.

a. rom-config
b. startup-config
c. tftp-config
d. router-config
B. Startup-config
If you want to see your working or running configuration, type _____ at the enable prompt.

a. run running-config
b. show rom-config
d. show running-config
D. show running-config
The command _____ copies the configuration from the TFTP server to the startup configuration.

a. copy run start
b. copy tftp running-config
c. copy tftp startpu-config
d. copy start run
C. copy tftp startup-config
Trace use _____ messages to verify that the desitination host is reachable, and if not give possible reason for the problem.

a. TFTP
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. ICMP
D. ICMP
You can chek the configuration of a specific interface from the encable mode prompt with the ____ command.

a. show interface
b. show ip
c. interfaces ip
d. show interface-config
A. show interface
You can use the _____ command in enable mode to retrieve the statistics that CDP will report on the local router's interfaces.

a. show cdp running
b. show cdp startup
c. show cdp config
d. show cdp interface
D. show cdp interface
You can examine the configuration register by typing _____ at either the enable mode or user mode prompt.

a. show configuration
b. show reg
c. show version
d. show register
C. show version
Specifies that users must log in when they access the console line.
login command
Helps you remember which network the interface services.
Interface description
Network management software used to manage Cisco routers.
Cisco Works
Allow you to configure the Ethernet & serial interfaces on your router.
Interface configuration mode
Editing command that moves the cursor to the geginning ot the current line.
Ctrl + A
The software that interprets the Cisco IOS commands.
EXEC
Basic configuration mode in Cisco IOS
Global configuration mode
Provides a command-line interface (CLI), which allows network operators to check the status of the router and network administrators to manage and configure the router.
Cisco IOS
Message that you can configure to display each time someone attempts to log in to the router.
Banner
The routner configuration file that loads during the boot process.
startup-config
Copies the IOS in flash memory to a TFTP server.
copy flash tftp
Verifies connectivity at the Internetwork layer of the TCP/IP model.
Ping
A simple connection less potocol that is less complex than FTP.
TFTP
One of the most powerful tools you can use to obtain information from your router.
debug command
Diagnostic test that determines if the hardware is opearint correctly.
POST
Cisco proprietary Data Link layer protocol that shares configuration information between Cisco devices that are connected directly to each other.
CDP
Copies the working configuration file in RAM to the startup configuration file in NVRAM.
copy run start
Utility that connects at the highest layer of the OSI model and provides remote access to other devices.
Telnet
The running configuration is also known as the _____.
(Choose all that apply)

a. Startup configuration
b. Working configuration
c. Current configuration
d. Backup configuration
B. Working configuration
C. Current configuration
If you type E? at the router(config) # prompt, What is the result of the command?

A. You will sell a list of usable commands at the Global configuration mode prompt.
B. You will see a list of usable commands at the Global configuration mode prompt that begins with the letter "E".
C. You will see a list of usable commands at any prompt that begins with the letter "E".
D. You will see the configuration register settings.
B. You will see a list of usable commands at the Global configuration mode prompt that begin with the letter "E".
If you need to abort a command in the middle of execution, which key sequence should you press simultaneously?

a. Ctrl + Esc
b. Ctrl + X
c. Ctrl + Shift + 6
d. Ctrl + Alt + Del
C. Ctrl + Shift + 6
Which of the following commands will alllow you to type a banner for your router:

a. Router(config-if)# banner message$
b. Router(config)#banner motd@
c. Router(config)#banner msg#
d. Router#banner config !
e. Router#banner motd#
B. Router(config)#banner motd @
By default, which of the router's components stores the backup configuartion file.

a. ROM
B. Flash
c. ISO
d. NVRAM
D. NVRAM
If you are in global configuration mode, which router prompt will you see?

a. Global#
b. Router(config) #
c. Router(config-if)#
d. Router#
e. Router(config-gl) #
B. Router(config)#
By default (During normal boot operations), Where does the router look first for a working version of the Cisco IOS?

a. NVRAM
b. TFTP
c. Flash
d. ROM
C. Flash
What three commands can you use in privideged EXEC mode to alter the router configuration?

a. setup, erase, & copy
b. Enable, setup, & TFTP
c. setup, show version, and shown burrers
d. erase, copy, & show run
A. setup, erase & copy
From which of the following prompts can your modify the terminal VTY passwrd?

a. Router(config-line)#
b. Router#
c. Router>
d. Router(config)>
A. Router (config-line)#
What does VTY1 stand for?

a. the first virtual Y connector
b. Virtural termainal one
c. Virtural test connection yes on 1 V-Modem terminal 1
B. Virtual terminal one
How do Network administrators access a VTY?

a. FTP
b. SMTP
c. Telnet
d. HTTP
C. Telnet
If, after connecting to the router via hyperterminal, You see only illegal characters in the terminal window, What should you try?

a. adjust the baud rate.
b. change connectors
c. use a telnet session
d. turn on parity
A. Adjust the baud rate
If you enter a Virtual Terminal password during the automated setup routine, to which VTY will it apply?

a. VTY 0
b. VTY 1
c. VTY 2
d. VTY 3
e. VTY 4
All of them.
What are the two different levels of setup when using the system configuration dialog?

a. Initial & Basic
b. Enbale & Enable secret
c. Basic & extended
d. None or the above
C. Basic & extened
How do you save your changes to the configuration file to NVRAM?

a. copy start run
b. copy run start
c. copy start flash
d. copy run flash
B. copy run start
From the router# prompt and the terminal, What must you type to enter the global configuration mode?

a. CON 0
b. Term GF
c. conf t
d. Global conf
C. conf t
If you are at the router (config-if) # prompt and you press the Ctrl + Z keys simultaneoulsy, which prompt will you see next?

a. Router>
b. Router#
c. Router(config)#
d. press return to continue
B. router#
Which of the following commands will allow you to enter privileged EXEC mode form the router> prompt? (Choose all that apply.)

a. en
b. ena
c. enable
d. enab
e. enabl
All the above
What does the SH RU command show you?

a. remote users
b. running configuration
c. startup configuration
d. remote boot procedure
B. running configuration
Which password would you use instead of the enable password?

a. VTY 0
b. console
c. AUX
d. enable secret
e. login
D. enable secret
Which password is encrypted by default?

a. login
b. MD5
c. enable
c. enable secret
e. console
f. VTY 0
D. enable secret
True or False:

Dynamic router communications (inter-router communication) cause additional network overhead, which results in less bandwidth for user data.
True
True or False:

Routers are more expensive than other devices.
True
True or False:

Routers can connect different network architectures, such as Ethernet & Token Ring.
True
True or False:

Routers reduce network traffic by creating collision domains.
True
True or False:

Routers reduce network traffic by creating broadcast domains.
True
If you want to see the hexadecimal boot setting for configuration register, which command would you use?

a. Router> sh int
b. Router> sh ver
c. Router#sh ver
d. Router#sh int
B. Router> sh ver
C. Router#sh ver
When the trace command is used, multiple packets are sent to a remote destination with:

a. Progressively higher TTL values until a packet reaches the destination.
b. Progressively lower TTL values until a packet is returned from the destination.
c. Projressively smaller hop counts.
d. Full routing tables.
A. Progressively higher TTL values until a packet reaches the destination.
If you want to configure the values that ping uses & have acccess to extended mode pint options, which of the following represents the appropriate prompt and the command you would type before pressing the Return key?

a. router#ping
b. router#ping ex md
c. router#ping motd
d. router# ping -e
A. router#ping
What is usually stored in NVRAM?
(Choose all that apply)

a. Configuration register
b. Backup copy of the IOS
c. Limited version of the IOS
d. Configuration file
A. Configuration register
D. Configuration file
Which of the following connectivity utilities use ICMP messages for troubleshooting the connection?
(Choose all that apply)

a. Ping
b. Telnet
c. Trace
d. Ip route
e. Show version
A. Ping
C. Trace
Which layer of the OSI model contains the telnet utility?

a. Application
b. Network
c. Data link
d. Physical
e. Transport
A. Application
D. Physical
Which of the following information is not visible after you issue a ping?

a. Quantity of ICMP packets sent
b. Timeout duration
c. Success rate
d. MAC address
e. Roundtrip times
D. MAC address
If the packet type is unknown what does ping report?

a.!
b. .
c. ?
d. U
C. ?
Which of the following commands are considered incomplete or will not be recognized by the router's IOS?
(Assume that the Return key is pressed immediately after the command)
(Choose all that apply)

a. router> ping 192.168.1.1
b. router#ping
c. router > ping
d. router#config
e. router> config
C. router > ping
D. router#config
E. router> config
Which of the following maps the router from HostA to HostB across the Internet to an unknown destination?

a. Show ip route
b. Ping
c. Trace
d. Finger
C. Trace
If the configuration register is to 0X2102, where will the system look for boot instructions?

a. Flash
b. NVRAM
c. RAM
B. NVRAM
If there are not specific instructions to the contrary, where does the system attempt to load the IOS from?

a. ROM
b. RAM
c. NVRAM
d. Flash
D. Flash
If you want to see information about other Cisco devices attached to your router, which of the following commands would you use?

a. show cisco neighbor
b. show cdp neighbor
c. show cdp config
d. initate cdp scan
B. show cdp neighbor
What is the purpose of CDP?

a. To communicate hardware information between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
b. To communicate hardware informatin between switches and hubs
c. To communicate hardware informatin between Cisco routers & switches
d. To update routing tables.
C. To communicate hardware information between Cisco routers and switches.
Which of the following is the final step in the router boot process?

a. Locate & load Cisco IOS
b. Load bootstrap
c. Locate and load router configuration file.
d. POST
C. Locate & load router configuration file.
What is another name for the enable mode?

a. Enable secret mode
b. Privileged EXEC mode
c. Login mode
d. User mode
B. Privileged EXEC mode
By default, what will happen if the IOS cannot be found is flash memory?

a. The router attempts to load a minimal copy from ROM.
b. The router uses CDP
c. The router contacts an HTTP server.
d. The router automatically shuts down.
A. The router attempts to load a minimal copy from ROM.
If the router is configured to load the IOS from a TFTP server, where will the router look next for the IOS?

a. ROM
b. Flash
c. FTP server
d. HTTP server
d. CDP
B. Flash
Which command could you used to back up the IOS to a TFTP server?

a. copy IOS tftp
b. copy flash tftp
c. copy rom tftp
d. copy running-config tftp
B. copy flash tftp
If you want to see information about other Cisco devices attached to your router, including their IP addresses, which of the following commands would you use?

a. show cisco neighbor
b. show cdp neighbor
c. show cdp neighbor detail
d. show cdp neighbor Ethernet
C. show cdp neighbor detail
What is the command to erase the configuration file on a Cisco router?

a. erase startup config
b. delete start
c. disable nvram
d. delete nvram
A. Erase startup config
The show interfaces command displays the following output: Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is administratively down. What do you infer?

a. There is no cable attached to the Ethernet) interface on the router.
b. The no shutdown command needs to be configured on the Etherent0 interface.
c. Incompatible routing protocols have been configured on the router.
d. There is a physical problem with the Etherent0 interface on the router.
B. The no shutdown command needs to be configured on the Etherent0 interface
What is the purpose of a host file on a router?

a. To allow you to use hostnames instead of IP addresses when referring to network devices.
b. To facilitate ARP on the router
c. To allow routers to seed other devices on the network
d. To block unwanted hosts from using the router.
A. To allow you to use hostnames instead of IP addresses when referring to network devices.
What is the purpose of SDM?

a. To allow configuration of a Cisco router using the CLI.
b. To all configuration of a Cisco router using a Web-based tool.
c. To allow configuration of a Cisco router using menu codes.
d. To allow remote password recovery.
B. to allow configuration of a Cisco router using a Web-based tool.
_____ are often referred to as count-to-infinity problems because loops, without preventive measures, will cause packets to bounce around the internetwork infinitely.

a. Hop loops
b. Routing hops
c. Routing loops
d. Hop counts
C. Routing loops
_____ is a distance-vector routing protocol that broadcasts entire routing tables to neighbors every 30 seconds, out f every interface.

a. RIP
b. OSPF
c. BGP
d. EIGRP
A. RIP
The _____ is the time at which a route will be totally removed from the routing table if no updates are received.

a. rip interval
b. administrative distance
c. hop count
d. flush interval
D. Flush interval
The _____ command allows you to set the maximum hop count for IGRP.

a. metric maximum-hops
b. igrp maximum-hops
c. metric hops
d. maximum-hops
A. Metric maximum-hops
The _____ command allows you to configure an administrative distance.

a. ip distance
b. ip route
c. adm distance
d. adm route
B. ip route
_____ routing protocols cannot adapt to work in an environment where discontiguous networks or VLSM exist.

a. RIPv1
b. Classless
c. Classful
d. Class-oriented
C. Classful
The four bytes set aside for the _____ field allow RIPv2 send the full 32-bit subnet mask for each network configured on the router's interfaces.

a. Next Hop
b. IP Address
c. Address Family Identifier
d. Subnet Mask
D. Subnet Mask
Although it is often described as a hybrid protocol containing the features of both distance-vector and link-state protocols, EIGRP is still a _____ routing protocol at its core.

a. link-state
b. distance-vector
c. link-vector
d. distance-state
B. Distance-vector
_____ allows EIGRP to support multiple Network layer routed protocols such as IP, IPX, and Apple Talk.

a. Neighbor discovery and maintenance
b. Protocol Dependent Modules
c. Reliable Transport Protocol
d. Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
B. Protocol Dependent Modules
Because EIGRP is protocol-independent, it cannot use existing Transport layer protocols to carry its various packet types. Instead, Cisco developed an entirely new layer 4 protocol, the _____, for use by EIGRP.

a. OSPF
b. EIGRP
c. RIPv1
d. IGRP
a. OSPF
In OSPF, a(n) _____ is the portion of a network within which LSAs are contained.

a. domain
b. segment
c. container
d. area
D. area
A common technique used to stop routing loops.
Hold-down timer
The most commonly used distance-vector protocol.
RIP
Developed to support networks consisting of multiple networks or subnetworks.
Routed protocols
The number of routers a packet must pass through to reach a particular network.
Hop count
Value used to determine the reliablility of the information regarding a particular route.
Administrative distance
Packets used to send out LSAs.
Link-state packets
Value used to define the suitability of a particular route.
Metric
An example of an EGP
BGP
The most common nonroutable protocol.
NetBEUI
The speed of the link.
Bandwidth
A classful routing protocol
RIPv1
Allow EIGRP neighbors to determine if routing peers are still online and available.
Hello packets
Allow RIPv2 to authenticate a routing peer without sending the secret key (a text string) across the link between the two peers.
MD5
A classless routing protocol.
EIGRP
A number generated by MD5 from the secret key.
Hash
A feature of RTP that requests an acknowledgement via unicast to a multicast message.
Reliable multicast
An example of an EIGRP packet type that uses reliable multicast via RTP.
Routing table updates
The maximum datagram size allowed on a link.
MTU
The ____ command is optional, but provides a domain suffix for the names.

a. ip domain-name
b. ip suffix-name
c. ip domain-suffix
d. ip suffix
A. ip domain-name
You can point you router to a DNS server for name resolution simply by configuring the _____ command.

a. ip name-server
b. ip domain dns
c. ip dns-server
d. ip domain-server
A. ip name-server
When making changes, you must remove the access list, using the _____ command.

a. no access-list [list number]
b. access-list off [list number]
c. off access-list [list number]
d. access-list [list number] no
A. no access-list [list number]
To apply the inbound access list 1 to an interface, you use the following command: _____.

a. ip access-group 1 out
b. ip access-group 1 int
c. ip access-group 1 ext
d. ip access-group 1 in
D. ip access-group 1 in
The following command sets an outbound access list filter: _____.

a. ip access-group 1 ext
b. ip access-group 1 out
c. ip access-group 1 int
d. ip access-group 1 in
B. ip access-group 1 out
It is possible to replace the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 entry, which represents all hosts and all networks, with the _____ keyword.

a. all
b. any
c. each
d. none
B. any
Use the _____ command to remove the application of the list.

a. no accessgroup [ip] [list #] [direction]
b. no ip [accessgroup] [list #] [direction]
c. no ip access-list [list #} [direction]
d. no ip access-group [list #] [direction]
D. no ip access-group [list #] [direction]
Regarding extended IP access lists, the _____ keyword is short for a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0.

a. host
b. any
c. none
d. all
A. host
To apply a standard IP named list to an interface, use the following syntax: ____.

a. ip standard access-group [name] [in | out}
b. ip standard-group [name] [in | out]
c. ip apply access-group [name] [in | out]
d. ip access-group [name] [in | out]
D. ip access-group [name] [in | out]
_____ provides a GUI-based configuration tool for Cisco devices.

a. CLI
b. SDM
c. CCL
d. ACL
B. SDM
Translates names into IP addresses.
DNS
Forwarding of a DHCP request.
DHCP relay
A combination of the IP address and port.
Socket
Message broadcasted on the network when hosts are configured to use DHCP.
DHCP DISCOVER
A one-to-one mapping of private IP addresses to public IP addressses.
Static NAT
Provides IP configuration information to hosts on bootup.
DHCP
A special form of dynamic NAT; also known as overloading.
Access lists
Provides name resolution on a Cisco router.
ip host command
A Web-based tool for advanced configuration on Cisco routerss.
Security Device Manager (SDM)
Permit or deny packets based only on the source address.
Standard IP access lists
The mixing of 0s and 1s in a wildcard mask octet.
Partial masking
Built into the Cisco IOS; solve many problems associated with traffic flow and security.
Access lists
Use names instead of numbers to identify themselves.
Named access lists
One of the most common problems associated with access lists.
Lack of planning
Filter by source IP address, destination IP address, protocol type, and application port number.
Extended IP access lists
Removes an access list.
no access-lost [list #1]
The default for standard IP access lists.
Single host wildcard mask
Determines which bits of the source address are significant.
Wildcard mask
True or False:

Access list begin working the second they are applied to an interface.
True
True or False:

With careful planning, you can create access list that control which traffic crosses particular links, and which segments of your network will have access to others.
True
True or False:

Most people prefer to use names, not IP addresses, when communicating with network devices.
True
True or False:

Cisco developed NAT, and today the technology is used by routers, firewalls, and even individual computers with multiple network connections.
True
Used to establish, configure, maintain, and terminate PPP connections.
Link Control Protocol (LCP)
The process of opening and configuring a PPP connection before any data can transferred over the link.
Link establishment
True or False:

Frame relay engineers designed Local Management Interface (LMI) in 1990 to enhance standard Frame Relay.
True
The piece of information in the LCP field of the PPP packet that allows PPP to encode its transmission properly for the recipient host.
Asynchronous character map
The query packet, or the action of tsending the query packet over a CHAP connection, that is used to verify the participants of the PPP connection.
Challenge
PPP authentication protocol that provides better security than PAP in authentication devices on PPP connections.
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Data compression that can be performed on the PPP packet at the source and then uncompressed at the destination.
Compression
The former name of International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T).
Consultative Committee on International Telephony and Telegraphy (CCITT)
The LCP field is also known as the Data field. This location contains the LCP information and the data that has been encapsulated from the higher layers. The default size of this field is 1500 bytes, but PPP implementations can negotiate a larger size for this field.
Data
PPP authentication protocol that provides some security in verifying the identity of devices using PPP connections.
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
The configuration of one or more interfaces or subinterfaces to connect to multiple virtual circuits. Each circuit will be on its own subnet. Acts like a leased line.
point-to-point