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110 terms

Imaging Procedures

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Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral Forearm
3. Lateral humerus
A. 1 only
B. Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad
What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2-22?
A. The left kidney is more parallel to the IR.
Which of the following statements regarding the image in Figure 2-4 is correct?
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

C. Lateral weight-bearing
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
A. 15° to 20° caudad
The right anterior oblique of the cervical spine requires which of the following combinations of tube angle and direction?
The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except
B. the occipital bone
Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
1.Have patient empty the bladder.
2.Review the patient's allergy history.
3.Check the patient's creatinine level.
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
1.When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
2.The axiolateral projection should be avoided.
3.To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.
B. 1 and 3 only
How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?
B. Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.
The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR
B. AP, external rotation
What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2-41?
Synovial fluid is associated with the
D. bony articulations.
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?
1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
C. 1 and 3 only
Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas?
C. Barium enema (BE)
B. Coronoid process
What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6-20?
To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
B. Recumbent
An autoclave is used for
D. steam sterilization
C. Baseline 3
Which of the four baselines illustrated in Figure 6-15 should be used for a lateral projection of facial bones?
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
D. Trochlea
The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh
D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
C. 2 and 3 only
With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-2, which of the following will be visualized?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Patellofemoral articulation
3. C. 2 andTangential patella
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
D. Emergency and trauma radiography
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
A. Avulsion fracture
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
A. Lateral oblique foot
When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed
A. 20° to 25° caudad.
All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the
C. fibula.
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
D. adduction
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
B. Medial oblique foot
AP erect left and right bending images of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 inch of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate
C. scoliosis
Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?
1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.
2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia.
3. CR enters 1/2 in. distal to base of patella.
A. 1 only
Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?
C. IVU
A. Medial malleolus
What does the number 8 in Figure 6-14 identify?
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
A. Left sacroiliac joint
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
B. avoid superimposition on the apices
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion,
A. the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.
D. anterior arch of C1
The structure labeled 5 in Figure 2-32 is the
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine?
1. The MSP is parallel to the tabletop.
2. The vertebral foramina are well visualized.
3. The pedicles are well visualized.
C. 1 and 3 only
The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist?
1. PA oblique
2. PA with radial flexion
3. PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees
A. 1 only
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
B. Diarthrodial
All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except
C. the tubercles.
What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
C. Inferior and medial
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
During atrial systole, blood flows into the
1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
C. 2 and 3 only
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
B. Tangential metatarsals/toes
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
A. right main stem bronchus
The lateral aspect of the obturator foramen is formed by the
B. ischium
Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except
C. each lung is enclosed in peritoneum.
The hard palate is formed by the
1. ethmoid bone.
2. maxillary bone.
3. palatine bone.
C. 2 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) evaluation criteria for a PA chest radiograph of the heart and lungs?
1. Ten posterior ribs should be seen above the diaphragm.
2. The medial ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the vertebral column.
3. The scapulae should be seen through the upper lung fields.
B. 1 and 2 only
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the
C. T5
Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?
1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch
2. Between the capitulum and the radial head
3. The proximal radioulnar joint
D. 1, 2, and 3
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
epicondyles parallel to the IR
lesser tubercle in profile
superimposed epicondyles
C. 2 and 3 only
During studies of the soft tissue of the neck, the exposure can be made
1. during phonation before/after opacification.
2. during Valsalva maneuver.
3. at the height of swallowing motion with opacification.
D. 1, 2, and 3
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
C. coronal plane 70° to the IR.
D. 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in Figure 2-33?
1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?
1. Femur
2. Tibia
3. Patella
A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions may be used to effectively demonstrate the right posterior axillary ribs?
C. RPO
A. Mandibular angle
What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 1 in the radiograph shown in Figure 6-20?
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
A. the right lung has two lobes
If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen?
C. Lateral cross-table recumbent
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms
C. 2 and 3 only
Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the
1. subscapularis.
2. infraspinatus.
3. teres minor.
D. 1, 2, and 3
The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.
2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.
3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).
B. 1 and 2 only
D. angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad
The mediolateral projection of the knee shown in Figure 6-1 could best be improved by
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
C. Myelogram
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Hepatic flexure
2. Gallbladder
3. Ileocecal valve
B. 1. and 2 only
The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the
B. T2-3 interspace
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
B. 1 and 2 only
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR.
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be
C. cathartics and cleansing enemas
C. Zygomatic arch
Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure 2-21?
C. Olecranon fossa
What is the name of the structure indicated as number 5 in Figure 7-7?
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
B. 30-degree oblique
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2.Apophyseal joints
3.Intervertebral foramina
C. 1 and 3 only
A. RPO
In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-9 taken?

Figure 2-9.
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
B. the inferior portion of the lung is the apex.
B. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2-10 is (are) true?
1. Correct degree of rotation is present.
2. Midphalanges are foreshortened.
3. Fingers are parallel to the IR.
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
B. 1 and 2 only
All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except
single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium
2. immediately available images
3. increased resolution
B. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8-10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?
1. Abdominal survey
2. Upper GI series
3. BE
C. 2 and 3 only
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?
C. RAO
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
B. 1 and 3 only
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
D. 1, 2, and 3
The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the
B. AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.
Using the PA projection, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
D. 15 to 30 degrees caudad
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Dorsum sella
3. Posterior arch of C1
C. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Tibial condyles
3. Tibial tuberosity
C. 2 and 3 only
Use your mouse to drag the following body habitus types into order (A-D) from largest to smallest.
A. Hyposthenic
B. Sthenic
C. Hypersthenic
D. Asthenic
C. Hypersthenic
B. Sthenic
A. Hyposthenic
D. Asthenic
B. Renal pelvis
The number 1 in the radiograph in Figure A represents which of the following renal structures?
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
B. Lateral
During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to
1. suppress filling of the superficial veins.
2. coerce filling of the deep veins.
3. fill the anterior tibial vein.
A. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the position illustrated in Figure 2-19?
1. The right (adjacent to the table) ureter is parallel to the IR.
2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR.
3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees.
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
B. Compound
Differences between body habitus types are likely to affect all the following except
D. the degree of bone porosity
D. Number 4
Which of the positions illustrated in Figure A will best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the
1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
D. 1, 2, and 3
During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely
D. LPO
Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography?
Creatinine
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Red blood cells (RBCs)
B. 1 AND 2 ONLY
During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate
1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach.
2. barium-filled fundus.
3. double-contrast body and antral portions.
C. 2 AND 3 ONLY
That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
C. metaphysis
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue?
A. A postpubertal adolescent
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed
C. 3/4 inch distal to the nasion
C. erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degree from horizontal
Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2-6?
The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated
A. 15 degrees toward the affected side.
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
A. Ventral decubitus position
Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when
C. the patient is in the recumbent position.
The femoral neck can be located
C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.