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Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include

All of the choices are correct (chromosomes, plasmids, mitochondrial DNA, chloroplast DNA)

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called


RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

All of the choices are correct (has ribose, has, uracil, is typically one strand of nucleotides, does not have thymine)

If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is


A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a

nonsense mutation

If the DNA sequence is ATTCCGGA, the mRNA transcript would


The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is
A. genetic engineering


The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab is called

genetic engineering

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called

recombinant DNA

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are

gene probes

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is

gel electrophoresis

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves

All of the choices are correct (larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells, DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole, DNA fragments are stained to see them, an electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate)

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with

All of the choices are correct (enzymes, fluorescent dyes, radioisotopes)

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by

polymerase chain reaction

The Western Blot technique detects


The primers in PCR are

synthetic DNA oligonucleotides

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called

gene therapy

Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special __________ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.


When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90oC - 95oC),

the two DNA strands separate completely

All species of Staphylococcus

lack spores

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is

exfoliative toxin

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of

Staphylococcus aureus

This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States:

Streptococcus agalactiae

This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females:

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is
A. all over the skin.
The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is

anterior nares (nostrils)

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all the following except

sore throat

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the

catalase test

Streptococcus pneumoniae is

a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is

All of the choices are correct (the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum, the cause of gonorrhea, called the gonococcus, virulent due to pili, and a protease that inactivates IgA)

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except

it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"?


Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots?


All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus except

the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response

The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except


All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except

petri dish

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is


Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?

solid medium

Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?

pour plate

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is

blood agar

A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed


Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?


For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective?


The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is

hanging drop

The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to

add contrast in order to see them better

The Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have the following in common:

are differential stains

A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of

simple staining

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called


A media is designed that allows only Staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is

both selective and differential

All of the following are examples of basic dyes except

crystal violet

Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile?


Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi?

Sabouraud's agar

Which of the following puts the Five "I"s in their correct order?

inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification

Why is oil of immersion often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?

to increase the resolution

All bacterial cells have

a chromosome

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's

cell wall

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?


If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is

cell wall

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial

cell walls

A procaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is

gram positive

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is


All of the following pertain to endotoxins except they

are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram positive bacterial cell wall structure is

predominance of unique, waxy, lipids

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of

gram negative bacteria

The function of bacterial endospores is

protection of genetic material during harsh conditions

Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure?


Bacterial endospores are not produced by


What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?

crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol, safranin

Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by

hydrolyzing peptidoglycan in cell walls

In the Gram stain, the mordant is


Which cell structure is an important agent in modern genetic engineering techniques?


All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called


Enzymes are

proteins that function as catalysts

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called


When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called

negative feedback

Mixed acid fermentation

produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases

The process of alcoholic fermentation produces

alcohol and carbon dioxide

Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:


An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an

growth factor

The term phototroph refers to an organism that

uses CO2 for its carbon source

The term autotroph refers to an organism that

uses CO2 for its carbon source

The term chemotroph refers to an organism that

gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called


The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called


Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?


Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?


Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37 C incubator and on the shelf of a 50 C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 C and 50 C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?


Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an

facultative anaerobe

A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with


The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between

pH 6 and 8

Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate

high atmospheric pressure

Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to detect live cells?

viable plate count

You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture must be

facultative anaerobe

You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be


Facultative anaerobes usually possess

both catalase and superoxide dismutase

Filamentous fungi are called


All of the following pertain to monkeypox except

the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes

All of the choices are correct (genital lesions; intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals; symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching; infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal)

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is


Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?



All of the choices are correct (is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions, is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material, has an incubation of 10 to 20 days, has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops)

Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the


If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with


Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except

it infects the respiratory epithelium

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include

sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.

The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following except

individuals with hypertension


All of the choices are correct (is among the most common of human infections; is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions; can be sexually transmitted; is commonly carried in the latent state)

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except

it causes Kaposi's sarcoma

Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called


Hepatitis B virus

All of the choices are correct (is principally transmitted by blood; transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse; is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers; has many chronic carriers)

Hepatitis B infection

increases risk for hepatocellular cancer

Adenoviruses are

All of the choices are correct (nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses; transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions; causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children; causes of outbreaks among military recruits)

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes


Viruses have all the following except


The core of every virus particle always contains

either DNA or RNA

Which of the following represents a virus family name?


The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is

adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.

nucleus, cytoplasm

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called

cytopathic effects

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called


Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?

All of the choices are correct (inclusions in the nucleus; multinucleated giant cells; inclusions in the cytoplasm; cells round up)

Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered

naked viruses

DNA polymerases used in PCR

include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

heat target DNA to 94 C

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72⁰ C

Which step involves transformation?

cloning host receives plasmid

Which step can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:

DNA fingerprinting

The Southern Blot technique detects


This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand:

messenger RNA

Influenza vaccines include all the following except

provides lifelong immunity

Influenza infection can be treated with

All of the choices are correct (amantadine; rimantadine; zanamivir; oseltamivir)

Parainfluenza virus

causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia

Rubella is

associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects

All arboviruses involve

arthropod vectors

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve

All of the choices are correct (fever, headache, and rash; coma, convulsions, paralysis in severe cases; myalgia and orbital pain; muscle aches and joint stiffness)

Documented transmission of HIV involves

unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is


Spongiform encephalopathies are

All of the choices are correct (associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain; chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system; caused by prions; Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome)

The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through

heterosexual sex

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