icnd2 dikt v2 trouble questions and new stuff
Terms in this set (31)
Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an 802.1D STP Hello BPDU message?
a. The Hello timer as configured on that switch.
b. The Hello timer as configured on the root switch.
c. It is always every 2 seconds.
d. The switch reacts to BPDUs received from the root switch by sending another BPDU 2 seconds after receiving the root BPDU.
B. Nonroot switches forward Hellos received from the root; the root sends these Hellos based on the root's configured Hello timer.
Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional 802.1D STP? (Choose two answers.)
B, D. RSTP uses port states forwarding, learning, and discarding. Forwarding and learning perform the same functions as the port states used by traditional 802.1D STP.
The port on a nonroot switch that provides the best path to the root bridge. (based on lowest path cost)
replaces root port when it fails in rstp
switch port designated to forward into a collision domain
replaces a designated port when a designated port fails
port that is administratively disabled
4. An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands?
D. IOS uses the channel-group configuration command to create an EtherChannel. Then, the term etherchannel is used in the show etherchannel command, which displays the status of the channel. The output of this show command then names the channel a PortChannel. The only answer that is not used somewhere in IOS to describe this multilink channel is Ethernet-Channel.
The following output shows the last lines of output of a show spanning-tree command extracted from a Cisco switch running IOS:
SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 10
! lines omitted
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -----------------------
Fa0/1 Desg FWD 100 128.1 P2p Edge
Fa0/2 Desg FWD 19 128.2 Shr
Gi0/1 Desg FWD 4 128.25 P2p
Gi0/2 Root FWD 4 128.26 P2p
The answers all mention an interface and the state listed in the Type column of the output, along with a reason why that port should be listed as that type of STP port. Which answers list what could be a correct reason for the interface to be listed as that type of STP port? (Choose two answers.)
a. Fa0/1 is P2p Edge because of the spanning-tree rstp edge interface subcommand.
b. Fa0/2 is Shr because Fa0/2 uses half duplex.
c. Gi0/1 is P2p because it is a VLAN trunk.
d. Gi0/2 is P2p because the switch had no reason to make it Shr or P2p Edge.
B, D. This question requires that you work through the reasons why a port is listed as a particular type of STP port per the Type column in the output of the show spanning-tree vlan 10 command. To begin, keep in mind that a port must have PortFast enabled to be listed as an edge port. That configuration requires either the spanning-tree portfast interface subcommand or through setting the switch to use PortFast as a default with the spanning-tree portfast default global command. Answer choice A shows a type that includes "edge" and the reason listed has nothing to do with PortFast, so that answer is incorrect.
For the other incorrect answer, C, the trunking status of a port does not impact the STP Type as listed in the output.
Answer B is correct because any port that is using half duplex, either through negotiation or by configuration, is considered to be a shared port, as noted with "Shr" in the type column. Answer D is correct because if a switch has no reason to make a port act as a shared port, or as an edge port, the switch treats it as a point-to-point port.
10 Mbps ; whats root cost
1 Gbps ; whats root cost
10 Gbps ; whats root cost
An engineer compares the output of the show vtp status command on two neighboring switches. One switch, SW1, acts as VTP server, while the other, SW2, acts as a VTP client. What items in the command output confirm that synchronization has completed? (Choose two answers.)
a. Both list the same "last updater" IP address and timestamp.
b. Both list the neighbor's MAC address and the word "synchronized."
c. SW2 (the client) lists the phrase "synchronized with server."
d. Both list the same configuration revision number.
A, D. VTP synchronization causes two neighboring VTP server and/or client switches to update the switch with the configuration database that has the lower revision number to use the newer database from the neighbor that has the higher revision number. Once completed, the show vtp status command on both switches will list the same revision number. Because both use the same configuration database, both will list the same information about the "last updater," which is this command's method of referring to the VTP server that last changed the configuration.
The two incorrect answers list text that does not occur in the output of the show vtp status command.
Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its IP routing table?
a. Each LSA lists a route to be copied to the routing table.
b. Some LSAs list a route that can be copied to the routing table.
c. Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.
d. R1 does not use the LSAs at all when choosing what routes to add.
C. LSAs contain topology information that is useful in calculating routes, but the LSAs do not directly list the route that a router should add to its routing table. In this case, R1 would run a calculation called the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm, against the LSAs, to determine what IP routes to add to the IP routing table.
When sitting at the CLI of a router that uses OSPF, the ______________ command lists information about the LSDB on that router by listing some of the information in each of the LSAs in the LSDB.
show ip ospf database
Hello packets for ospf are sent to multicast IP address of ___________, a multicast IP address intended for all OSPF-speaking routers.
Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP feasible distance?
a. A route's feasible distance is the calculated metric of a feasible successor route.
b. A route's feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.
c. The feasible distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router's perspective.
d. The feasible distance is the EIGRP metric associated with each possible route to reach a subnet.
B. The feasible distance (FD) is, for all known routes to reach a subnet, the metric for the best of those routes. The best route is called the successor route, and it is added to the IP routing table.
two routers, R1 and R2, connect to each other using three serial links. The network engineer configures these links to be part of the same multilink PPP group, along with configuring CHAP configuration, IPv4, and OSPFv2 using interface configuration. Which of the following answers list a configuration command along with the correct configuration mode for that command? (Choose two answers.)
a. encapsulation ppp while in multilink interface configuration mode
b. ip address address mask while in serial interface configuration mode
c. ppp authentication chap while in multilink interface configuration mode
d. ip ospf 1 area 0 while in serial interface configuration mode
e. ppp multilink while in serial interface configuration mode
A, E. Both the multilink interface and each of the serial interfaces need the encapsulation ppp and ppp multilink commands, which account for both of the correct answers to this question. Two of the three incorrect answers list a command related to a Layer 3 feature (ip address and ip ospf), which are useful, but would be used in multilink interface mode instead of serial interface configuration mode. The other incorrect answer lists ppp authentication chap, which would not be used on the Layer 3 multilink interface, but instead on the serial interfaces
An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company headquarters connected plus ten remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.)
a. The WAN uses one IP subnet.
b. The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets.
c. A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.
d. A remote site router would have ten or more EIGRP neighbors.
B, C. A Layer 3 MPLS VPN creates an IP service with a different subnet on each access link. With one headquarters router and ten remote sites, 11 access links exist, so 11 subnets are used.
As for the EIGRP neighbor relationships, each enterprise router has a neighbor relationship with the MPLS provider edge (PE) router, but not with any of the other enterprise (customer edge) routers. So each remote site router would have only one EIGRP neighbor relationship.
An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. A network engineer connects to the console of one router at a retail office, issues the show pppoe session command, and the router just returns a command prompt, with no lines of output. If you knew the problem was related to the configuration on the local router, which one of the four following areas would be the best area to recommend for your colleagues to investigate in their next troubleshooting step?
a. Look at the commands on the physical Ethernet interface
b. Look at the dialer interface commands specific to PPP
c. Look at the commands specific to IPv4 address learning
d. Look at the commands in the running-config file for the virtual-access interface
A. The show pppoe session command lists a short group of messages about each PPPoE session once the router is trying to establish that session. However, a router does not even attempt to start a PPPoE session until PPPoE has been enabled on the physical interface using the pppoe enable command. (Note that the pppoe-client dial-pool-number number interface subcommand on the physical interface causes IOS to automatically add the pppoe enable command as well.) Until these commands are added, the router makes no attempt to create a PPPoE session, and as a result, the show pppoe session command lists no output at all.
For the incorrect answers, if the dialer interface's commands related to PPP were incorrect or missing, there might be a problem, but those problems would not result in no output at all from the show pppoe session command. Instead the command would list some status messages. Similarly, any errors in the configuration related to IP address learning would not prevent the show pppoe session command from listing output. Finally, the virtual-access interface does not have any specific configuration; its configuration is generated by the router.
Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two answers.)
d. MPLS EXP
B, C. The Class of Service (CoS) field exists in the 802.1Q header, so it would be used only on trunks, and it would be stripped of the incoming data link header by any router in the path. The MPLS EXP bits exist as the packet crosses the MPLS network only. The other two fields, IP Precedence (IPP) and Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP), exist in the IP header, and would flow from source host to destination host.
A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.)
a. A different STP cost (spanning-tree cost value)
b. A different speed (speed value)
c. A default setting for switchport (switchport)
d. A different access VLAN (switchport access vlan vlan-id)
B, C. With a Layer 3 EtherChannel, two configuration settings must be the same on all the physical ports, specifically the speed and duplex as set with the speed and duplex commands. Additionally, the physical ports and port-channel port must all have the no switchport command configured to make each act as a routed port. So, having a different speed setting, or being configured with switchport rather than no switchport, would prevent IOS from adding interface G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel.
As for the wrong answers, both have to do with Layer 2 configuration settings. Once Layer 2 operations have been disabled because of the no switchport command, those settings related to Layer 2 that could cause problems on Layer 2 EtherChannels do not then cause problems for the Layer 3 EtherChannel. So, Layer 2 settings about access VLANs, trunking allowed lists, and STP settings, which must match before an interface can be added to a Layer 2 EtherChannel, do not matter for a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and IPv6, using OSPF as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 enabled on both interfaces for area 0 and the router ID explicitly set for both protocols. Comparing the OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 configuration, which of the following statements is true?
a. The OSPFv3 configuration, but not OSPFv2, uses the router-id router-id router subcommand.
b. Both protocols use the router-id router-id router subcommand.
c. Both protocols use the network network-number wildcard area area-id router subcommand.
d. Both protocols use the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id interface subcommand.
B. The OSPFv3 configuration would use ipv6 router ospf process-id, router-id router-id, and then, under each interface, the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id command. OSPFv2 uses the exact same syntax on the router-id command. Only OSPFv3 uses the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id interface subcommand, and OSPFv3 does not use the network command.
R1 and R2 are routers that connect to the same VLAN. Which of the answers list an item that can prevent the two routers from becoming OSPFv3 neighbors? (Choose three answers.)
a. Mismatched Hello timers
b. Mismatched process IDs
c. IPv6 addresses in different subnets
d. Equal router IDs
e. One passive router interface (used on this link)
A, D, E. OSPFv3 uses the same rules as OSPFv2 in regard to all these items except the addresses; OSPFv3 does not require that the neighbors have IPv6 addresses in the same subnet. Mismatched Hello timers prevents neighbor relationships, as do duplicate router IDs. Also, neither can have its interface set to passive; otherwise, the neighbor relationship fails to complete. The PIDs can be different or the same because they are not checked as part of the choice to become neighbors.
The example shows an excerpt from the show ipv6 route ospf command on a router (R1). Which of the answers are correct about the interpretation of the meaning of the output of this command? (Choose two answers.)
R1# show ipv6 route ospf
OI 2001:DB8:1:4::/64 [110/129]
via FE80::FF:FE00:1, Serial0/0/1
a. 110 is the metric for the route.
b. S0/0/1 is an interface on R1.
c. FE80::FF:FE00:1 is a link-local address on R1.
d. OI means that the route is an interarea OSPF route.
B, D. The second line lists the forwarding instructions for the route, specifically the link-local address of the neighboring router and the local router's outgoing interface. These facts identify one correct and one incorrect answer. The OI code indeed means OSPF and interarea; intra-area routes simply omit the I. In brackets, the first number is the administrative distance, and the second number (129 in this case) is the metric.
Which of the following packet header fields can be filtered using IPv6 extended access control lists?
a. TCP source and destination port number
b. ICMPv6 type and code values
c. IPv6 extension header numbers
d. IPv6 flow label values
e. All of the other answers are correct.
E. IPv6 ACLs can filter on any field in the IPv6 header (including flow label, next-header, etc.). IPv6 ACLs can filter ICMPv6 packets and IPv6 ACLs can filter on the TCP or UDP packets with various source or destination port numbers.
2. A router has been configured with the global command snmp-server community textvalue1 RO textvalue2. Which of the following statements are true about the meaning of this command? (Choose two answers.)
a. The router's read-only community is textvalue1.
b. The router's read-only community is textvalue2.
c. The router filters incoming SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.
d. The router filters outgoing SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.
A, C. The first parameter after the community keyword defines the community value. At the end of the command, if a text value is listed but without an ipv6 keyword, the text value is the name of an IPv4 ACL. The ACL (textvalue2 in this case) filters incoming SNMP messages received by the SNMP agent on the device.
A router has been configured with the following command: snmp-server group one v3 auth write v1default. Which of the following answers lists a command that would correctly define a user to associate with this SNMPv3 group to correctly define security parameters to work with an SNMP manager?
a. snmp-server user fred1 one auth md5 pass1 priv des keyvalue1
b. snmp-server user fred2
c. snmp-server user fred3 one auth 3des pass1
d. snmp-server user fred4 one auth sha pass1
D. To work correctly with an SNMP manager, the snmp-server user command must configure its parameters based on the security level in the referenced group as defined in the referenced snmp-server group command. In this case, the referenced snmp-server group command lists a security level of auth, so the snmp-server user command needs the auth keyword and associated parameters, but not the priv keyword and its associated parameters.
Two answers are incorrect because they either do not include the auth keyword and associated parameters, or because it also includes the priv keyword. Of the two answers that include only the auth option, one is incorrect by referencing 3des as an authentication hash algorithm; this keyword refers to an encryption type that could follow the priv keyword, but it is invalid as an authentication option. The correct answer correctly lists sha as a valid authentication hash option, along with the user-defined password (pass1).
4. Which of the following commands primarily lists counters and status information, instead of configuration settings?
a. show snmp
b. show snmp community
c. show snmp group
d. show snmp user
A. Of these, only show snmp lists status and counter variables about the operation of the SNMP agent. The other commands list configuration details.
Which of the following are allowed when configuring Local SPAN sessions? (Choose two answers.)
a. Using more than one SPAN source port in one SPAN session
b. Using a SPAN source port and SPAN source VLAN in one SPAN session
c. Using an EtherChannel port as a SPAN source port
d. Using one SPAN destination port in two different SPAN sessions
A, C. Local SPAN has a variety of configuration dependencies. Each Local SPAN session can have multiple sources, but they must be either interfaces or VLANs, and not a mix. Source ports can include both access and trunk ports as well as EtherChannel interfaces. Finally, each SPAN destination port can be used in only one SPAN session at the same time. To reuse that destination port, you must first unconfigure the destination port from the original SPAN session (no monitor session destination) and then configure it to be part of another SPAN session.
Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service?
a. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only
b. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service
c. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer
d. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service
C. A virtual network function (VNF) is a virtual version of a networking appliance, such as a virtual router (like the Cisco CSR) or virtual firewall (like the Cisco ASAv). VNFs are deployed as a VM, with customer access to the user interface, so that customers can then configure the VNF to meet their needs.
Cloud providers can implement many networking services that create the cloud network, but not give the customer direct access to the VM or appliance. For instance, public cloud providers typically provide DNS services and address assignment services that use DHCP behind the scenes, but without giving the customer direct access to a VM that implements a DNS or DHCP server.
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