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96 terms

MB Final Lecture Exam

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Which is mismatched?
scavengers - feed on live to dead cells and wastes
The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to the ammonium ion (NH4+) occurs during
nitrogen fixation
Which of the following is a nitrifying microbe?
Nitrobacter
Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called
bioremediation
Potable water is
safe to drink
Indictor bacteria are
All of the choices are correct (coliforms; gram-negative rods; evidence of fecal contamination; used in water quality tests)
Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called
most probable number (MPN) procedure
Which is the first step in water purification?
sedimentation
Water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal in this step of water purification:
filtration
The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
These bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle the milk:
Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
This organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut:
Leuconostoc mesenteroides
This organism is used to make Swiss cheese:
Propionibacterium
What is made by adding Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus to milk?
yogurt
Which step in making beer involves sprouting and softening the barley to release amylases to act on starch, and proteases to digest protein?
malting
All of the following are foodborne pathogens except
Streptococcus
Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes
All of the choices are correct (high temperature and pressure; pasteurization; refrigeration and freezing; irradiation)
Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
antibiotics
All of the following foods are preserved using high osmotic pressure except
bread
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
neuraminidase
Symptoms of influenza include
fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge
Influenza infection can be treated with
All of the choices are correct (amantadine; rimantadine; zanamivir; oseltamivir)
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
measles (rubeola)
Which is incorrect about rabies?
average incubation in human is 1 week
Rubella is
associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is
encephalitis
Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
interferon
Chickenpox
All of the choices are correct (is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions; is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material; has an incubation of 10 to 20 days; has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops)
Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include
severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis
Hepatitis B virus
All of the choices are correct (is principally transmitted by blood; transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse; is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers; has many chronic carriers)
Adenoviruses are
All of the choices are correct (nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses; transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions; causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children; causes of outbreaks among military recruits)
Polyomaviruses
All of the choices are correct (cause common asymptomatic to mild infections; cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; cause problems in renal transplant patients; include the JC virus and BK virus)
The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
respiratory and cutaneous
Dermatophytoses are
All of the choices are correct (fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails; also called ringworm; also called tineas; often time-consuming to eradicate completely)
Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils
The chancre of syphilis
develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
urine
Cholera symptoms are
All of the choices are correct (copious watery diarrhea; loss of blood volume; acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst; hypotension, tachycardia, shock)
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is
water and electrolyte replacement
Helicobacter pylori causes
All of the choices are correct (gastritis; duodenal ulcers; stomach ulcers; increased risk for stomach cancer)
Characteristics of rickettsias include
All of the choices are correct (obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth; arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors; gram negative coccobacilli; host cells are required for ATP metabolism)
Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
blue-green
Brucellosis is
All of the choices are correct (a zoonosis; seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness; associated with pathogen in the blood; an occupational illness of people that work with animals)
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent
brucellosis
Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include
ferment glucose
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
legionellosis
All coliforms are
rapid lactose fermenters
Salmonelloses are
All of the choices are correct (not caused by Salmonella typhi; associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces; gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea; enteric fevers that often include septicemia)
The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is
Pasteurella multocida
Anthrax is
All of the choices are correct (a zoonosis; transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion; a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia; only seen sporadically in the United States)
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
botulism
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of
Clostridium tetani
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
Clostridium botulinum
This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
Clostridium perfringens
All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
sporeformer
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
all species are human pathogens
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages
Tuberculin skin testing
All of the choices are correct (injects PPD intradermally; uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis; will be positive if person has had previous exposure; will be positive in active TB)
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves
All of the choices are correct (chest X-ray; acid fast stain of sputum; sputum culture; tuberculin skin test)
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
coagulase
The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is
mouth
The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes
protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence
The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is
erysipelas
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is
sensitivity
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is
specificity
When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called
immunelectrophoresis
Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
gram stain
All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except
motility
Sputum is obtained by
the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system.
The bone marrow is where
blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
Plasma cells
secrete antibodies.
Lymphocytes
All of the choices are correct (possess MHC antigens for recognizing self; have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens; gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self; develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity)
Superantigens are
bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is
IgA.
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
IgG.
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is
IgE.
The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
IgD only.
When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
IgG.
The most significant cells in graft rejection are
cytotoxic T cells.
These lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells:
natural killer (NK) cells
Monoclonal antibodies
All of the choices are correct (originate from a single B cell clone; have a single specificity for antigen; are secreted by hybridomas; are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy)
Cytotoxic T cells
secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
An example of artificial active immunity would be
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?
helper T cells
In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
IgM.
In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
IgG.
Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens?
IgA
Immunotherapy is the
All of the choices are correct (use of antitoxins; use of immune serum globulin; conferring of passive immunity; administering of preformed antibodies)
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
Live, attenuated vaccines
All of the choices are correct (include the Sabin polio vaccine; include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR); contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person; require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines)
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
contain selected antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
Toxoids
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
adjuvant
Antitoxins
contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?
attenuated vaccines