1. A/C Pack Failure 2. Cargo Comp. Extinguishing Fail. 3. Engine &/or Wing Anti-Ice Fail. 4. Dual IRS Failure 5. Dual EFIS Failure 6. Dual FMC Failure 7. Fail of Center (767) or Left (757) HYD system with loss of Generator
Minimum O2 for Dispatch
Approximately how long does the passenger O2 generators last?
About 12 minutes and up to 22 minutes in some aircraft.
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically drop?
When the Cabin altitude goes above 14,000 feet.
Reasons to abort engine start
1. EGT Fails to rise in 25 seconds (767), 20 seconds (757) 2. EGT rapidly rising or approaching limits 3. No oil pressure upon reaching stabilized idle (757) or within 30 seconds of stablized N2 (767).
1. Left electric Hyd. pump prior to engine start. 2. Center tank fuel pump prior to engine start 3. Utility Busses during engine start
Non-Normal Electrical load shedding
1. Utility Busses on engine failure 2. Center tank fuel pump on engine failure 3. Cabin ceiling lights after engine failure
Four busses on the Batt/Stby system
1. Hot Battery Buss 2. Battery Buss 3. Stby AC Buss 4. Stby DC Buss
When does the HDG activate?
Loss of power of both left and right Main AC Busses
What powers the HDG on the B767?
The Center HYD system
HDG provides power to what AC busses?
1. Left AC transfer buss 2. Right AC transfer buss 3. Stby AC bus (thru left AC transfer buss) 4. Captain's flight instruments transfer buss
HDG provides power to what DC busses?
1. Hot Battery Buss 2. Battery Buss 3. Stby DC Buss
What powers each respective auto-pilot during an autoland?
1. Left Gen powers the left autopilot and captain's flight instruments transfer buss 2. Right Gen powers the right autopilot and FO's flight instruments transfer buss 3. Batt/Stby system powers the center autopilot
What happens when a generator fails during an autoland above 200' radio altitude?
1. Both BTB close and the operating GEN powers the L&R AC busses. 2. Left Main AC buss powers the Center autopilot 3. NO Land 3
What happens when a generator fails during an autoland below 200' radio altitude?
1. Both BTB remain open 2. The center A/P is powered by the STBY AC and Hot Batt buss. 3. The affected A/P remains unpowered. 4. No change on ASA and autoland continues on 2 A/P's.
What powers the Main Battery Buss before establishing electrical power to the aircraft?
The Main Battery.
What powers the Main Battery Buss after establishing electrical power to the aircraft?
The Left DC system, and the Main Battery provides a source for backup.
What happens when the STBY POWER switch is turned to the "OFF" position?
Power is removed from the STBY AC and STBY DC busses.
What happens when the STBY POWER switch is turned to the "AUTO" position?
1. Left AC & DC power has priority to supply STBY AC & DC busses. 2. With BATT switch "ON", Main BATT & APU BATT & Battery Chargers act as backup for STBY AC & DC busses.
What happens when the STBY POWER switch is turned to the "BAT" position?
1. Cuts off Main power to the STBY system. 2. Battery only provides power to the STBY system. 3. Battery Chargers are unpowered. 4. With BATT switch "ON", batteries supply STBY power thru the static inverters.
What two sources do the LEFT/RIGHT HYD systems get fluid pressure?
1. Engine driven pumps 2. Electric demand pumps
What three sources does the CENTER HYD system get fluid pressure?
1. 2 Electric pumps 2. 1 Air demand pump driven by engine bleed air.
When does the ADP operate when in the "AUTO" position?
When the Center HYD system pressure is low or when operating large demand systems (gear, flaps, ground spoilers)
When does the ADP operate when in the "ON" position?
What happens to the ADP when the HDG is operating?
The ADP operates continuously to ensure that the large demand systems receive pressure because the 2 electric pumps will be unpowered.
With a HYD leak in the center system, what system will still have fluid from the center reservoir?
The reserve brakes and steering, below the standpipe.
What does the Pitch Enhancement System do?
With loss of Left and Center HYD system, valve opens to allow Right system pressure to provide power for the left HYD system STAB TRIM at 1/4 rate
When does the RAT deploy?
Failure of both engines (N2's drops below 50%)
The RAT supplies HYD power to what system?
The flight controls only
What is the minimum aircraft speed needed to supply adequate HYD pressure via the RAT?
What systems are the source for NORMAL, ALTERNATE and RESERVE brakes?
Right - Normal, Center - Alternate, Center - Reserve. The Reserve brakes are just the Alternate brakes on the standpipe fluid and powered by the isolated C1 pump.
Do you have ANTI-SKID on ALT or RES brakes?
What is the only brakes system that AUTO BRAKES works on?
APU battery supplies power to what items?
1. APU starter 2. APU inlet door 3. APU control circuitry
What APU items does the aircraft battery supply power to?
1. Fire protection 2. APU fuel valve 3. DC fuel pump 4. APU control circuitry during heavy start loads
What is the APU start sequence when the APU switch is turned to start?
1. APU fuel valve opens (FAULT & RUN lights flash > self test) 2. APU inlet door opens 3. DC fuel pump starts in left main fuel tank 4. Electric starter engages
What is the APU starter duty limit?
3 starts in 60 minutes
What altitude can the APU bleed be used?
Up to 17,500 feet
If the APU has inadvertantly been turned "OFF", how can you stop the shutdown process?
Turn the APU switch to "START" and release to "ON"
What are the minimum power sources to start the APU?
Main Battery and APU Battery
How many spoiler panels are there?
6 panels on each wing -GND - all panels extend -FLT - all panels extend except #4 and #9
What are the conditions to be met for the auto speedbrakes to deploy?
1. Speedbrake lever in armed position 2. HYD pressure to both truck tilt actuators (gear) 3. Tilt sensors detect ground condition 4. Both thrust levers to IDLE
What is the engine type?
GE CF6-80C2B (6F) (7F) 61,500 lbs of thrust
In order to command REVERSE THRUST, what conditions need to be met?
Forward thrust in IDLE position
What altitude does Reduced Climb terminate automatically?
What powers the Engine EEC?
A PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) independant from aircraft power.
What engine protection does the EEC provide?
N1 and N2 overspeed protection but no EGT protection
Aside from the obvious, what two functions does pressurized fuel provide?
1. Positions the variable pitch stator vanes 2. Cools the Oil in the IDG's
When does the Outflow Valve close completely?
When the cabin altitude climbs above 11,000 feet
What actuates the Thrust Reversers on the GE CF6 engines?
Pneumatic engine bleed pressure
What systems become armed at 80 knots?
1. RTO for autobrakes 2. Auto speedbrakes 3. RAT
When are the Master Caution lights and aurals inhibited on the ground roll?
Beginning at 80 knots and ends at 20 seconds or 400 feet, which ever comes first.
When are the Master Warning lights and aurals inhibited on ground roll?
Truck tilt (air/ground transition) to 20 seconds or 400 feet, which ever comes first.
With the Equipment Cooling selector switch in AUTO, if the Supply fan fails, what happens?
The exhaust fan works as a backup.
When is the Equipment Cooling selector switch position "STBY" used?
1. With an OVERHEAT indication in the AUTO mode or, 2. With a VALVE light with both engines started.
What happens when the Equipment Cooling switch is placed in the STBY position?
All valves signaled to CLOSE except the bypass valve - on ground - both fans to ON - in flight - supply fan to ON with exhaust as a backup
When is the Equipment Cooling selector switch position "OVRD" used?
1. With and OVERHEAT indication in the STBY mode or, 2. If smoke is detected in the equipment cooling system.
What happens when the Equipment Cooling switch is placed in the OVRD position?
1. Opens SMOKE/OVRD valve 2. Closes all other valves 3. Both fans OFF, diff pressure flows thru cooling system 4. NO COOLING light if no diff pressure flow detected 5. Horn sounds if OVRD selected on the ground.