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256 terms

500 questions

STUDY
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Keratin
cordlike protein that helps to waterproof the skin
Meissner corpuscles
receptor is responsible for detecting light touch
Pacinian corpuscles
receptor is responsible for detecting deep pressure
Common peroneal nerve
endangerment site on the posterior knee
Sternocleidomastoid
neck muscle you use extra caution while massaging due to its close proximity to the carotid
artery
Infraspinatus
muscle located directly inferior to the scapular spine
Lateral
In an injury to the acromioclavicular joint, which end of the clavicle is involved?
Hip
If a client is experiencing pain in the inguinal region, which joint is MOST LIKELY affected?
Quadriceps
Which muscle group resists knee flexion?
Behind the abdominal peritoneum
The kidneys lie in a retroperitoneal position. What does that mean?
Ascends
During exhalation, the diaphragm does what?
Reflex
What is an instantaneous, involuntary response to a stimulus, either inside or outside the body?
Tibialis anterior
lower leg muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion
A nerve must stimulate a muscle
For a skeletal muscle to contract, what must happen first
Psoriasis
is NOT a contagious skin condition
Malignant melanoma
One of the most lethal types of skin cancer is
Flexion and extension
A hinge joint is capable of making which of the following movements?
Pivot
joint moves in one plane only
Flexion
position shortens the muscles of the anterior neck
pectoralis minor & serratus anterior
Muscles that can entrap the brachial plexus
Golgi tendon organs
receptor measures the amount of tension produced at the musculotendinous junction and
inhibits contraction
Rectus femoris
NOT a member of the hamstring muscles
Triceps brachii
muscle extends the elbow
Biceps femoris
hamstring muscle attaches to the fibula
Endocrine
system's primary function is to support the nervous system in its regulation of bodily functions
through hormone production and secretion
Chyme
Pyloric sphincter allows transport of what substance
Active range of motion
A client rotating his head is an example of which of the following?
Masseter, pterygoids, temporalis
muscles most likely involved in temporomandibular joint dysfunction
Pain, swelling, redness, heat
Which are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
A. Ischemia, heat, redness, pain B. Pain, swelling, redness, heat C. Cyanosis, pallor, pain, swelling D. Ischemia, swelling, heat, pain
C. Right ventricle
What heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?
A. Right atrium C. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium D. Left ventricle
A. Femoral artery
When massaging the sartorius and adductor longus, the therapist needs to avoid pressure on what
structure?
A. Femoral artery C. Common peroneal nerve
B. Radial artery D. Trigeminal nerve
B. Shorter treatments more frequently
What massage considerations are best used for a terminally ill client?
A. Longer treatments more frequently C. Longer treatments less frequently
B. Shorter treatments more frequently D. Shorter treatments less frequently
B. Inversion
When you have a lateral sprain of the foot, what position was the foot in when injured?
A. Plantar flexion C. Dorsiflexion
B. Inversion D. Eversion
A. Hands over the throat
What is the universal sign of an obstructed airway?
A. Hands over the throat C. Coughing
B. Hands over the chest D. Waving arms overhead
C. Triceps brachii
Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process?
A. Biceps brachii C. Triceps brachii
B. Coracobrachialis D. Brachioradialis
B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be
supportive, obtain permission before
resuming massage
What is an appropriate response if a client has an emotional release during treatment?
A. Find out why the client is crying, counsel
client about the issue
C. Leave the room, tell the client to let you
know when s/he is finished
B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be
supportive, obtain permission before
resuming massage
D. Continue with the massage, ignoring the
emotional release
B. Constipation
Circular gliding strokes applied on the abdomen in clockwise movements is helpful in what condition?
A. Ulcerative Colitis C. Hiatal Hernia
B. Constipation D. Urinary Incontinence
C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb
What is an example of a saddle joint?
A. Proximal radioulnar joint C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb
B. Talocrural joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint
B. Confidentiality
A client approaches you at a social function and asks about another one of your clients' progress with
treatment. This conflicts directly with which code of ethics principle?
A. Disclosure C. Networking
B. Confidentiality D. Dual relationships
C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the
pain level, work within his or her
tolerance
During a technique requiring direct sustained pressure, the client complains of pain. What is the best
approach?
A. Explain to the client why the amount of
pressure is needed and continue
C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the
pain level, work within his or her
tolerance
B. Continue with massage, going deeper
during client exhalation
D. Apply ice next to painful area, using
distraction techniques
D. Client may have allergies or scent
sensitivities
Why should you avoid scented massage lubricants?
A. It may interfere with releasing energy
blocks
C. They often stain linens
B. They are cost prohibitive D. Client may have allergies or scent
sensitivities
A. Mineral oil-based lubricants
Which should a therapist avoid when choosing a massage lubricant?
A. Mineral oil-based lubricants C. Hypoallergenic lubricants
B. Nut-based lubricants D. Vegetable-based lubricants
D. Shoulder
If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely involved?
A. Elbow C. Hip
B. Knee D. Shoulder
B. Adduction
Movement toward the midline is known as which of the following?
A. Medial C. Abduction
B. Adduction D. Lateral
C. Softens and distends
What affect does heat have on the body's fascia?
A. Shortens and thickens C. Softens and distends
B. Lengthens and repairs D. Increases conductivity
C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness
If you come across an unconscious adult, what should you do first?
A. Try to locate a pulse in the person's throat C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness
B. Clear the person's airway by tilting the
head back
C. 100%
What percentage of income from bartered services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Service?
A. 50% C. 100%
B. 90% D. None is reportable
B. Client record keeping
APIE and SOAP are examples of what?
A. Massage organizations C. Bookkeeping methods
B. Client record keeping D. Advanced certifications
C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus,
infraspinatus
Which muscles are parts of the rotator cuff?
A. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major,
subclavius
C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus,
infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis
minor, subscapularis
D. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major,
supraspinatus
B. Passive range of motion
example which of the following?
A. Active resisted range of motion C. Active assisted range of motion B. Passive range of motion D. Active range of motion
C. Reciprocal inhibition
A muscle is inhibited by contraction of its antagonist; this is an example of which of the following?
A. Active resisted range of motion C. Reciprocal inhibition
B. Hilton's Law of Bilateral Symmetry D. Law of facilitation
D. Latissimus dorsi
What is the antagonist to pectoralis major?
A. Serratus anterior C. Coracobrachialis
B. Rhomboids D. Latissimus dorsi
A. Serratus anterior
What is the antagonist to the rhomboids?
A. Serratus anterior C. Levator scapulae
B. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis minor
B. Gastrocnemius
What is synergist to the Biceps Femoris?
A. Peroneus longus C. Rectus femoris
B. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis anterior
B. Location and condition of the victim
When calling Emergency Medical Services (EMS: 911), always give them what two items of
information?
A. Your name and your credentials C. Time and place of the accident
B. Location and condition of the victim D. Your name and your location
A. Request that the intake is conducted
verbally
If a client refuses to fill out the intake form, what is the next action that should be taken?
A. Request that the intake is conducted
verbally
C. Fill out the intake form after the session
B. Conduct the intake objectively D. Refuse to treat
A. Flexed
To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the therapist should keep his or her knees slightly
A. Flexed C. Locked
B. Rigid D. Hyperextended
D. Signed medical release form by client's
spouse or family member
A client's records can be released under these circumstances, EXCEPT by
A. Court ordered (subpoena) C. Signed medical release form by client
B. Request made by parent or guardian (if the
client is a minor)
D. Signed medical release form by client's
spouse or family member
B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen
During the intake, if your client states he or she is constipated, what is an appropriate treatment
modification?
A. Avoid the lower back C. Deep cross-fiber friction over the
abdomen
B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen
D. Counterclockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen
D. Listening
Crepitus can be detected by what means?
A. Observation C. Palpation
B. Range-of-motion D. Listening
A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure
If you suspect that a client is intoxicated, what are appropriate treatment modifications?
A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure C. Work on known trigger points only
B. Refuse to treat
D. Ask the client to drink 16oz of water
beforehand
B. Blood plasma, C. Interstitial fluid
From which of the following is lymph derived?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Interstitial fluid
B. Blood plasma D. B and C
C. Air absorption
The functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Air filtering C. Air absorption
B. Air warming D. Air conduction
D. Pyloric sphincter
Which structure lies between the stomach and the small intestines?
A. Esophageal sphincter C. Gastric sphincter
B. Ileocecal sphincter D. Pyloric sphincter
B. Rectus femoris
What muscle is synergist to the iliopsoas?
A. Piriformis C. Gluteus maximus
B. Rectus femoris D. Tensor fascia latae
A. Femoral artery
When working the insertion of psoas major, on what structure should the therapist avoid applying direct
pressure?
A. Femoral artery C. Peroneal artery
B. Floating ribs D. Vagus nerve
B. Cerebellum
Body balance and voluntary muscle movement are controlled by which part of the brain?
A. Midbrain C. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum
A. Gastrocnemius
Which muscle spans two joints?
A. Gastrocnemius C. Popliteus
B. Soleus D. Piriformis
C. Biceps femoris
Contraction of which muscle causes your knee to bend?
A. Biceps brachii C. Biceps femoris
B. Rectus femoris D. Pectineus
D. Lack of skin color
You note that a client has skin pallor. What does that mean?
A. Skin redness C. Localized tenderness
B. Bluish tint to the skin D. Lack of skin color
B. Soleus
Contraction of which muscle causes your toes to point downward?
A. Flexor digitorum longus C. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Soleus D. Tibialis anterior
A. Coracobrachialis
Which muscle spans only one joint?
A. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii
B. Pectoralis major D. Triceps brachii
C. Isotonic
Skeletal muscle movement occurs with which type of contraction?
A. Tonic C. Isotonic
B. Isometric D. Rhythmic
C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity
What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament?
A. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity
B. Ischial spine to the sacrum D. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter
D. Triceps brachii
Contraction of which muscle causes you to straighten your arm?
A. Brachialis C. Coracobrachialis
B. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii
A. Lack of oxygen
Hypoxia refers to
A. Lack of oxygen C. Swelling
B. Dehydration D. Inflammation
B. Elevated right shoulder
While examining a client and recording intake notes, which would be considered objective data?
A. Pain at end of rotation of cervical
vertebra
C. Frequent headaches
B. Elevated right shoulder D. Dizziness upon standing
B. Raynaud disease
What syndrome is characterized by cycles of vasospasm, typically in the fingers and toes?
A. Guillain Barré syndrome C. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Raynaud disease D. Postpoliomyelitis
C. Quarterly
If a therapist is self-employed, how often does he or she pay self-employment tax?
A. Weekly C. Quarterly
B. Monthy D. Annually
B. Angina pectoris
Which of the following conditions is frequently caused by constriction of coronary arteries and lack of
oxygen to the heart muscle and is often felt as chest pain?
A. Arrhythmia C. Heartburn
B. Angina pectoris D. Tachycardia
C. Aneurysm
Which of the following is a weakness in the wall of a blood vessel?
A. Phlebitis C. Aneurysm
B. Peripheral vascular disease D. Stenosis
D. Myocardial infarction
What is a synonym for a heart attack?
A. Angina pectoris C. Hypertension
B. Arteriosclerosis D. Myocardial infarction
C. Varicose veins
Which of the following describes dilated veins, causing their valves to become incompetent?
A. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Varicose veins
B. Hemangioma D. Anemia
A. Lupus
Which is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body's connective tissues?
A. Lupus C. Urticaria
B. Icterus D. Transient ischemic attack
B. Migraine headaches
Which type of headaches is caused by dilation of extracranial blood vessels?
A. Menstrual headaches C. Contraction headaches
B. Migraine headaches D. Sinus headaches
C. Phlebitis
What is inflammation of the veins called?
A. Myocarditis C. Phlebitis
B. Lymphangitis D. Telangiectasia
C. Contact dermatitis
Which type of dermatitis results from the skin coming into contact with irritants or allergens?
A. Atopic dermatitis C. Contact dermatitis
B. Topical dermatitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis
A. Athlete's foot
Which of the following is a contagious superficial foot fungus characterized by skin discoloration and a
ridge of red tissue?
A. Athlete's foot C. Plantar ringworm
B. Plantar tinea D. Dorsalis fungi
A. Acute
Which of the following describes diseases that have an abrupt onset of severe symptoms and run a brief
course (less than 6 months)? The disease then either resolves or brings death.
A. Acute C. Local
B. Chronic D. Systemic
B. Chronic
Which of the following describes diseases that develop slowly and last longer than 6 months to a lifetime?
A. Digital C. Complex
B. Chronic D. Acute
D. Subjective data
Which of the following refers to information gained from the client?
A. Pertinent data C. Empirical data
B. Objective data D. Subjective data
C. Informed consent
What is the client's authorization for professional services based on information provided by the
therapist?
A. Referral consent C. Informed consent
B. Client intake form D. Treatment record
B. Objective data
Which of the following refers to data that are measurable and quantitative?
A. Subjective data C. Empirical data
B. Objective data D. Intake data
D. Pinching and releasing the skin
What is the best way to evaluate turgor?
A. Observing client's breathing patterns C. Client intake form
B. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen
D. Pinching and releasing the skin
D. Edema
If the skin leaves pits after pressure application, what does it suggest?
A. Low platelet count C. Dehydration
B. Active trigger points D. Edema
B. Dehydration
A therapist is testing for turgor and the client's skin leaves an elevation or a tent after it is pinched. What
does this suggest?
A. Edema C. Active trigger points
B. Dehydration D. Low platlet count
C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia
that can refer pain when pressed
What are trigger points?
A. Areas of numbness brought on by
dehydration and fatigue
C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia
that can refer pain when pressed
B. Where two nerves connect to transmit
information
D. Where nerves terminate on muscles
D. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen
What is the best way to test for rebound tenderness?
A. Client intake form C. Pinching the skin
B. Observing client's breathing pattern D. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen
A. Endfeel
What is the term used to describe sensations felt at the end of passive range of motion?
A. Endfeel C. Crepitus
B. Isometric D. Fulling
D. Local contraindications
Conditions in which massage can be administered while avoiding an affected area or area in question are
A. Absolute contraindications C. Restricted contraindications
B. Confined contraindications D. Local contraindications
B. Endangerment sites
Areas of the body containing superficial delicate anatomical structures that are unprotected and prone to
injury meriting caution during are
A. Trigger points C. Muscle spasms
B. Endangerment sites D. Synaptic end bulbs
A. Professional liability
Malpractice insurance is also known as
A. Professional liability C. Business activity
B. Term life insurance D. Disability
B. Muscular tension headaches
Massage helps to reduce the pain in which kind of headaches?
A. Migraine or vascular headaches C. Menstrual headaches
B. Muscular tension headaches D. Hangover headaches
A. Fifteen seconds
How long should the therapist wash his or her hands before and after a regular massage?
A. Fifteen seconds C. Two minutes
B. Five seconds D. One minute
B. Countertransference
An emotional reaction of the therapist that reflects the therapist's inner needs and conflicts defines
A. Intimacy C. Transference
B. Countertransference D. Integrity
D. Hand washing
The best thing a massage therapist can do to control the transmission of disease is
A. Vitamin supplements C. Crepitation
B. Inoculations D. Hand washing
B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries
Why should a massage therapist refuse to date his or her clients?
A. It violates the therapist's scope of practice C. It violates the therapist's Ling oath
B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries D. It is illegal in most states
C. Two minutes
If the therapist comes into contact with body fluids or fluids of unknown origin, what is the recommended
time lenght for the handwashing procedure?
A. One minute C. Two minutes
B. Fifteen seconds D. Thrity seconds
A. Lower extermities
What general body area should be avoided if the client has had surgery as a cancer treatment?
A. Lower extermities C. Scalp
B. Upper extermities D. Neck
B. Massage with gloves
What treatment modifications should the therapist use if a cancer patient, who has been cleared for
massage, has received the chemotherapeutic drug thiotepa or cyclophosphamide within 24 hours of his or
her scheduled appointment?
A. Avoid sustained pressure C. Avoid vibration
B. Massage with gloves D. Massage is contraindicated
D. Are asymmetrical in shape
Common moles have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. Even borders C. Are smooth to the touch
B. Evenly shaded brown color D. Are asymmetrical in shape
C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas
with neuropathy
If a cancer patient, who is receiving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy, is
experiencing neuropathy, what treatment modifications should the therapist use?
A. Neuropathy is an absolute contraindication C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas
with neuropathy
B. The area with neuropathy is locally
contraindicated
D. There are no modifications
B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after
treatment
If a cancer patient with edema has received clearance for massage therapy, treatment modifications
include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Elevating the affected limb C. Stroke lightly and rhythmically toward
heart on the affected limb
B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after
treatment
D. Work the affected limb proximally, then
distally
D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and
jostling that would cause a rocking motion
If a cancer patient, who is receiving radiation or chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage
therapy, what treatment modifications can the therapist use if the client is nauseated when he or she
arrives for a massage and still wishes to receive a massage?
A. Offer ipecac in a 10 to 1 solution C. Use aromatherapy in the lubricant
B. Lower the table D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and
jostling that would cause a rocking motion
A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate
for osteoporosis
If the client indicates that she is taking steroids for a chronic condition, what treatment modifications
should be used?
A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate
for osteoporosis
C. Have her doctor approve the lubricant
B. Don gloves as her medications can leave
residue on her skin
D. Avoid aromatherapy as it can act as an
antidote for her medication
C. Peripheral vascular disease and
neuropathy
What two conditions are likely to occur in a client with long-term diabetes?
A. Osteoporosis and trigeminal neuralgia C. Peripheral vascular disease and
neuropathy
B. Pericarditis and varicosities D. Cirrhosis and gout
C. Four years
According to NCBTMB, how long should the therapist maintain client records after the client
discontinues service?
A. Six months C. Four years
B. Three years D. Ten years
B. Malpractice
What type of insurance protects the therapist if he or she injures a client?
A. Disability C. Health
B. Malpractice D. HMO
B. Decubitus ulcers
Which of the following represents cell necrosis due to local ischemia resulting from prolonged pressure?
A. Sebaceous cysts C. Furuncles
B. Decubitus ulcers D. Stretch marks
C. Ringworm
Which of the following is a contagious fungal disease characterized by itching and scaling, sometimes
manifesting as a raised red-ringed patch?
A. Impetigo C. Ringworm
B. Rosacea D. Lice
B. Herpes simplex
This highly contagious viral infection appears as fever blisters or cold sores on the skin and mucous
membranes.
A. Impetigo C. Folliculitis
B. Herpes simplex D. Psoriasis
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
What condition is failure of the lower gastroesophageal sphincter to close normally after food has entered
the stomach, which, in turn, causes a burning in the chest region?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Costal chondritis
B. Pectoris angina D. Hiatal hernia
D. Hernias
Which of the following are protrusions of tissues or part of an organ through a weakness in a membranous
or cavity wall?
A. Aneurysms C. Diverticula
B. Ulcers D. Hernias
A. Repetitive strain injuries
What of the following is a spectrum of injuries related to prolonged repetitive or constant motion, usually
combined with compressive forces? Types include carpal tunnel syndrome, thoracic outlet syndrome, and
tennis elbow.
A. Repetitive strain injuries C. Contractures
B. Compartment syndromes D. Torticollar injuries
A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics
What type of medications depress sensory information entering the nervous system?
A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics C. Platelet inhibitors
B. Corticosteroids D. Nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs)
C. Fibromyalgia
What disease causes tender points within the muscle? This disease is more common in women.
A. Multiple sclerosis C. Fibromyalgia
B. Scleroderma D. Chloasma
D. Tendinitis
Inflammation of a tendon is called what?
B. Osteoarthritis
Which of the following is a chronic, progressive erosion of the articular cartilage caused by long-standing
inflammation often called "wear and tear" arthritis?
A. Lyme arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis D. Polyrheumatica arthritis
D. Torticollis
Which of the following is a condition involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid muscles?
A. Anterior compartment syndrome C. Posterior compartment syndrome
B. Tetanus D. Torticollis
C. Herniated disc
What is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus from the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Herniated disc
B. Itinerant disc D. de Quervain spondylitis
B. Bursitis
Which is acute or chronic inflammation of the bursae?
A. Synovitis C. Spondylolisthesis
B. Bursitis D. Tendonitis
D. Osteoporosis
Which of the following is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone mass with a subsequent
increase in the susceptibility to fractures?
A. Hallux valgus C. Still disease
B. Scoliosis D. Osteoporosis
A. Baker's
What is a cyst behind the knee caused by escape of synovial fluid, which becomes enclosed in a
membranous sac?
A. Baker's C. Dupuytren
B. de Quervain D. Volkmann
D. Multiple sclerosis
What is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively
destroyed?
A. Alzheimer disease C. Palsy
B. Myasthenia gravis D. Multiple sclerosis
A. Bulging disc
What condition is similar to a herniated disc, but less severe as the nucleus pulposus remains contained
within the annular wall?
A. Bulging disc C. Nerve in situ
B. Nerve compression D. Nerve entrapment
D. Peripheral neuropathy
What is degeneration of the peripheral nervous system called?
A. Alzheimer disease C. Vertigo
B. Insomnia D. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Quadriplegia
What is paralysis of the trunk, arms, and legs?
A. Hemiplegia C. Paraplegia
B. Synplegia D. Quadriplegia
D. Paraplegia
Which paralysis involves the trunk and lower extremities?
A. Quadriplegia C. Heteroplegia
B. Hemiplegia D. Paraplegia
B. Asthma
What is a chronic, inflammatory disorder caused by airway sensitivity to various stimuli?
A. Apnea C. Cystic fibrosis
B. Asthma D. Pneumonia
B. Cigarette smoking
What is the most common cause of chronic bronchitis?
A. Alcohol overconsumption C. Insufficient mucous production
B. Cigarette smoking D. Mineral deficiency
A. Emphysema
What disease results from the gradual destruction of elasticity in the alveolar walls due to long-term
exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke, air pollution, or industrial dust?
A. Emphysema C. Pleurisy
B. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
What is a group of pulmonary disorders characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow
that worsens with exertion?
A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Pulmonary distress syndrome
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Lung membrane disease
C. Pneumonia
What is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States?
A. Cystic fibrosis C. Pneumonia
B. Polio D. Tuberculosis
B. Could pass through both ears
A coronal plane through the head
A. Could pass through both the nose and the
occipital region
C. Must pass through the mouth
B. Could pass through both ears D. Could lie in a horizontal plane
A. C1
What number cervical vertebrae corresponds to the atlas?
A. C1 C. C2
B. C3 D. C7
D. Ischial tuberosity
What is the origin of the biceps femoris?
A. Fibular head C. Femoral condyle
B. Biceps tuberosity D. Ischial tuberosity
C. Pancreatic hormones
Insulin and glucagon are examples of what?
A. Thyroid hormones C. Pancreatic hormones
B. Pituitary hormones D. Adrenal hormones
B. Place a cushion under the arms
How would you best relax the pectoralis major muscle while the client is in a supine position?
A. Place a cushion under the head C. Place a cushion behind the knees
B. Place a cushion under the arms D. Place a cushion behind the ankles
D. Gastrocnemius
If you're standing on your tip toes and have pain in your leg, which muscle is most likely involved?
A. Semitendinosus C. Rectus femoris
B. Quadratus lumborum D. Gastrocnemius
C. Cross fiber friction
If when palpating a tight muscle, you discover bands of fibrous adhesions, what would be the best
technique to relieve the fibrosity?
A. Gliding C. Cross fiber friction
B. Kneading D. Cupping percussion
B. Piriformis
Spasm in which of the following muscles can lead to irritation of the sciatic nerve?
A. Obturator internus C. Gluteus minimus
B. Piriformis D. Gemellus superior
D. Xiphoid process
Which of the following would you avoid when compressing the sternum?
A. Manubrium C. Sternocostal joints
B. Sternal body D. Xiphoid process
B. Biceps brachii and deltoid
If a client has difficulty actively flexing the elbow and abducting the shoulder, which muscles are most
likely involved in the restriction?
A. Supraspinatus and deltoid C. Pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid
B. Biceps brachii and deltoid D. Coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi
D. Turning the humerus inward
Which of the following best represents medial rotation?
A. Turning the head to the side C. Bending the knee
B. Turning the leg outward D. Turning the humerus inward
D. Upper right
In what abdominopelvic quadrant is the liver and gallbladder located?
A. Upper left C. Lower right
B. Lower left D. Upper right
B. Elbow extension
Which of the following is an example of concentric contraction of the triceps brachii?
A. Elbow flexion C. Shoulder flexion
B. Elbow extension D. Shoulder abduction
A. Supraspinatus
Which of the following muscles are most likely involved in a rotator cuff injury?
A. Supraspinatus C. Brachioradialis
B. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae
C. Common insertion of three thigh muscles
on the medial proximal tibia
The term pes anserinus refers to which of the following?
A. Type of seizure disorder C. Common insertion of three thigh muscles
on the medial proximal tibia
B. Nerve involved in Bell palsy D. Type of muscle contracture
B. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus
Where is the bony landmark for the type of tendonitis found in tennis elbow?
A. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Coracoid process of the ulna
B. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus D. Olecranon process
D. Subscapularis
Which muscle would MOST likely be the source of pain and limited range of motion found in frozen
shoulder?
A. Rhomboids C. Trapezius
B. Pectoralis major D. Subscapularis
D. Brachialis
When flexing the elbow, which muscle is concentrically contracting?
A. Triceps brachii C. Deltoids
B. Coracobrachialis D. Brachialis
B. 100%
If you gave a massage to a fellow licensed massage therapist, what percentage of the cost of the massage
you gave is recorded on your accounting ledger?
A. 50% C. If it is a massage trade, nothing is
recorded
B. 100% D. The difference between the two massage
costs
A. Bolster behind her knees
A client who has lordosis complains of back pain while in the supine position. What modifications would
most likely increase her comfort?
A. Bolster behind her knees C. Bolster between her shoulders
B. Bolster beneath her sacrum D. Bolster behind her ankles
D. Senescence
At which life stage does circulation of blood and lymph decrease in the lower extremities?
A. Infancy C. Adolescent
B. Childhood D. Senescence
A. Abducts and laterally rotates
What is the action of the piriformis on the hip?
A. Abducts and laterally rotates C. Abducts and medially rotates
B. Adducts and laterally rotates D. Adducts and medially rotates
B. Lordosis
Tight iliopsoas muscles can create or exacerbate which condition?
A. Kyphosis C. Halitosis
B. Lordosis D. Paget disease
C. Aponeurosis
Which of the following is a broad flattened sheet of connective tissue?
A. Epithelium C. Aponeurosis
B. Tendon D. Adipose
D. Physical therapy
In Western medicine, which is NOT considered treatment for a malignancy?
A. Surgery C. Medication
B. Radiation D. Physical therapy
C. Confidentiality
While at a social function, you run into a client and ask him about his progress with treatment. This is a
breach of the following?
A. Scope of practice C. Confidentiality
B. Dual relationships D. Self-disclosure
C. Cushion under her shoulders
While in the prone position, a client who has a dowager's hump complains of discomfort at the base of
her neck. Which of the following would provide the most comfort for this region?
A. Cushion under forehead C. Cushion under her shoulders
B. Cushion under abdomen D. Cushion under the sternum
A. Blocks sweat glands and may cause body
to overheat
Why is oil NOT recommended for pre-event sports massage?
A. Blocks sweat glands and may cause body
to overheat
C. Creates a buildup of lactic acid
B. Blocks calcium channels in sarcomeres D. Causes an overproduction of ATP
C. Ligament
What is the primary structure injured during a sprain?
A. Tendon C. Ligament
B. Scar tissue D. Superficial fascia
B. Low back over kidneys
Use of vigorous percussion is NOT recommended over which area?
A. Quadriceps C. Shoulders
B. Low back over kidneys D. Soles of feet
D. Has properly cooled down
Postevent sports massage should be postponed until the athlete
A. Can walk a straight line C. Has drunk 16 oz of fluids
B. Has removed his or her shoes and socks D. Has properly cooled down
C. Sympathetic nervous system
Which of the following is activated during the stress response?
A. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Sympathetic nervous system
B. Visceral reflex D. Somatic inverse response
B. Trachea
What structure lies anterior to the esophagus?
A. Sternum C. Thymus
B. Trachea D. Pylorus
A. Spleen
Which organ stores blood cells and destroys old, worn-out red blood cells and platelets?
A. Spleen C. Kidneys
B. Gallbladder D. Thyroid
B. Hyperemia
Which of the following best describes increased blood flow?
A. Ischemia C. Hematuria
B. Hyperemia D. Polyemia
D. External intercostals
Which muscle elevates the rib cage during inspiration?
A. Subscapularis C. Diaphragm
B. Internal intercostals D. External intercostals
D. Muscular
What body system produces heat, creates movement, and maintains posture?
A. Integumentary C. Nervous
B. Circulatory D. Muscular
A. Sternoclavicular joint & C. Sacroiliac joint
Which joint connects the appendicular skeleton to the axial skeleton?
A. Sternoclavicular joint C. Sacroiliac joint
B. Acromioclavicular joint D. A and C
C. Between a bone and a tendon
Where are bursa sacks usually located?
A. Between a muscle and a tendon C. Between a bone and a tendon
B. Within the joint capsule D. Between a muscle and a bone
A. Hinge
Which of the following joints moves in only one plane?
A. Hinge C. Gliding
B. Saddle D. Ellipsoid
D. Isometric
What describes a muscle contraction where the muscle does NOT lengthen or shorten?
A. Eccentric C. Isotonic
B. Concentric D. Isometric
C. Pronation
What is the term used to describe medial rotation of the forearm?
A. Radial deviation C. Pronation
B. Supination D. Protraction
C. Depression
Which movement is associated with opening the jaw or dropping the shoulder?
A. Anterior tilt C. Depression
B. Retraction D. Upward rotation
B. Inversion
Which term represents movement of the feet where the soles are facing each other and the persons weight
is on the lateral edges?
A. Eversion C. Supination
B. Inversion D. Pronation
B. Radiocarpal
Which of the following is an example of an ellipsoid joint?
A. Patellofemoral C. Radioulnar
B. Radiocarpal D. Talocrural
D. Atlantooccipital
Name the joint between the skull and the first cervical vertebra.
A. Atlantoaxial C. Occipitocervalis
B. Intervertebral D. Atlantooccipital
B. Nerve roots
What structure(s) emerge(s) from intervertebral foramina?
A. Blood vessels C. Spinal cord
B. Nerve roots D. Intervertebral discs
C. Cheekbone
What is another name for the zygomatic arch?
A. Chin C. Cheekbone
B. Forehead D. Occipital ridge
A. Metacarpals
Which bones in the hand are positioned distal to the carpals?
A. Metacarpals C. Ossicles
B. Metatarsals D. Palatines
C. Radius
Which bone moves during supination and pronation?
A. Humerus C. Radius
B. Ulna D. Clavicle
D. Medial epicondyle
From which bony marking do the flexors of the wrist originate?
A. Lateral epicondyle C. Radial tuberosity
B. Deltoid tuberosity D. Medial epicondyle
B. Proximal radioulnar
Which joint allows supination and pronation of the forearm?
A. Distal radioulnar C. Humeroulnar
B. Proximal radioulnar D. Humeroradial
D. Tibiofemoral
Which of the following is the scientific name for the knee?
A. Talocrural C. Iliofemoral
B. Tibiofibular D. Tibiofemoral
C. Acetabulum
What is the scientific name for the hip socket?
A. Glenoid C. Acetabulum
B. Olecranon D. Flavum
A. Meniscus
What is the name given for the cartilage inside the knee?
A. Meniscus C. Innominate
B. Cruciate D. Intrapatellar
C. The ribs
The term costal refers to
A. Vertebrae C. The ribs
B. The great toe D. The sternum
A. Body
To what part of the sternum do most ribs attach?
A. Body C. Xiphoid process
B. Manubrium D. Costal
B. Sternoclavicular joint
What is the medial clavicular joint called?
A. Scapoclavicular joint C. Vertebroclavicular joint
B. Sternoclavicular joint D. Acromioclavicular joint
D. Radiocarpal
Which of the following joints is considered to be biaxial?
A. Glenohumeral C. Acromioclavicular
B. Humeroulnar D. Radiocarpal
C. Pernicious anemia
Which of the following occurs when the stomach is unable to manufacture intrinsic factor, a substance
needed for absorption of vitamin B12 from the digestive tract?
A. Sickle cell anemia C. Pernicious anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia D. Aplastic anemia
B. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and
releasing of tissue, working parallel to the
muscle fibers
Which of the following best describes kneading strokes?
A. Rubbing one surface over another; skin
over skin or skin over underlying
structures
C. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or
rocking movements
B. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and
releasing of tissue, working parallel to the
muscle fibers
D. Gliding movements that are repeated and
follow the contour of the client's body
D. Tilt her body to the left by placing a
pillow or cushion under her right flank
when supine
Which of the following statements is true regarding precautions when massaging a pregnant client?
A. Place a cushion under her abdomen while
she is prone
C. Apply only hacking percussion on her
abdomen in the second trimester
B. Avoid massage on her right calf
D. Tilt her body to the left by placing a
pillow or cushion under her right flank
when supine
B. They have brittle bones
Clients who have osteoporosis should only receive lighter-than-normal massage. Why?
A. They are usually elderly C. They will also have neuropathy
B. They have brittle bones D. Their skin will be overly sensitive
C. Rubbing one surface over another; skin
over skin or skin over underlying
structures
Which of the following best describes friction?
A. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and
releasing of tissue, working parallel to the
muscle fibers
C. Rubbing one surface over another; skin
over skin or skin over underlying
structures
B. Repetitive staccato striking movements of
the hands, moving either simultaneously
or alternately
D. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or
rocking movements
D. Reschedule the massage
A client complains of being very tired and is running a low-grade fever. How should the therapist
proceed?
A. Perform a light massage, avoiding her
head and neck
C. Proceed with the massage avoiding the
prone position
B. Offer her a few C vitamins tablets and
proceed with the massage
D. Reschedule the massage
C. VII
Bell palsy is a type of paralysis of which cranial nerve?
A. I C. VII
B. V D. X
C. Bacteria
What is the most common cause of a urinary tract infection?
A. Virus C. Bacteria
B. Direct trauma D. Vitamin deficiency
B. Postmenopausal women
Which population group is prone to have osteoporosis?
A. Men over 50 of Asian decent C. Adolescents
B. Postmenopausal women D. Nursing mothers
A. Fibromyalgia
Which of the following conditions is indicated for massage?
A. Fibromyalgia C. Fever
B. Abnormal lumps D. Acute inflammation
D. Knees flexed while shifting weight
between the feet
Proper body mechanics is extremely important to prevent injury to the therapist. Which of the following
demonstrates good body mechanics?
A. Feet close together and bent at the waist C. Body weight always on the right foot
B. Knees locked with back straight D. Knees flexed while shifting weight
between the feet
D. Adjust the massage to his vitality and
stamina and avoid any open sores
A client comes into your office and states during the premassage interview that he is HIV positive. Which
of the following is part of a safe treatment this client?
A. Obtain medical clearance prior to giving
him a massage, then use vibration over the
sternum to stimulate the thymus
C. Proceed with the massage, following
universal precautions with only these
clients
B. Massage is contraindicated D. Adjust the massage to his vitality and
stamina and avoid any open sores
C. Repetitive staccato striking movements of
the hands, moving either simultaneously
or alternately
Which of the following best describes percussion?
A. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and C. Repetitive staccato striking movements of
releasing of tissue, working parallel to the
muscle fibers
the hands, moving either simultaneously
or alternately
B. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or
rocking movements
D. Rubbing one surface over another; skin
over skin or skin over underlying
structures
A. External iliac
Blood traveling through the femoral artery must first pass through which artery?
A. External iliac C. Sciatic
B. Basilic D. Saphenous
D. Hepatitis B
A therapist who works in a hospital setting and is exposed to body fluids such as blood is more likely than
a therapist who works in a spa to contract which disease?
A. Hepatitis A C. Leukemia
B. Hemophilia D. Hepatitis B
C. Ballistic
Which of the following types of stretching is no longer recommended in sports or clinical settings?
A. Assisted C. Ballistic
B. Static D. Strain-counterstrain
D. Sartorius
Which of the following muscles does NOT flex the hip?
A. Rectus femoris C. Gluteus maximus
B. Iliopsoas D. Sartorius
A. Sliding movements of the hand that are
repeated and follow the contour of the
client's body
Which of the following best describes gliding strokes?
A. Sliding movements of the hand that are
repeated and follow the contour of the
client's body
C. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and
releasing of tissue, working parallel to the
muscle fibers
B. Rubbing one surface over another; skin
over skin or skin over underlying
structures
D. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or
rocking movements
B. Strongly urge him to see his physician as
this is characteristic of skin cancer
You notice a large mole on a client's posterior upper arm, which has changed over his past few visits.
What is the best course of action?
A. Treat it with tea tree essential oil C. Proceed with the massage as moles are not
contagious
B. Strongly urge him to see his physician as
this is characteristic of skin cancer
D. Proceed with the massage and avoid the
area
D. Gluteal muscles
Deep massage of which muscle group may relieve sciatic pain?
A. Hamstrings C. Adductors
B. Quadriceps D. Gluteal muscles
B. Income of an independent contractor
A 1099 tax form is used to notify the federal government of what?
A. Business property depreciation C. Capital gains
B. Income of an independent contractor D. Income of an employee
C. Proceed with the massage and avoid the
affected area
If a client with phlebitis comes in to your office for a massage, which of the following is part of a safe
treatment plan for this client?
A. Massage is contraindicated C. Proceed with the massage and avoid the
affected area
B. Proceed with the massage, using vibration
over the affected area to stimulate
leukocyte migration
D. Proceed with the massage, working deeply
over the affected area
D. Lordosis
Which of the following is hypercurvature of the spine in the lumbar region?
A. Scoliosis C. Spondylosis
B. Kyphosis D. Lordosis
A. Centripetally
In Swedish massage, massage applied on the extremities should be applied
A. Centripetally C. Centrifugally
B. In sequence D. Using slow rhythm
C. Set of guiding moral principles
How is a code of ethics best described?
A. Federal rules and regulations C. Set of guiding moral principles
B. Common business practices D. Set of universal truths
B. Address any medical conditions in the
treatment plan, then position the client for
comfort and use lighter-than- normal
pressure
An elderly female client with a stooped posture is referred to you for a massage. Which of the following
is part of a safe treatment plan for her?
A. Proceed with the massage, working
vigorously to promote circulation
C. Proceed with the massage, working deeply
on her back to promote pain relief
B. Address any medical conditions in the
treatment plan, then position the client for
comfort and use lighter-than- normal
pressure
D. Massage is contraindicated
C. Use a lighter-than-normal pressure and a
soothing rhythm to promote relaxation,
then reducing the treatment time to about
30 minutes to prevent further fatiguing the
client
A client who reports chronic fatigue comes in to your office for a massage. Which of the following is part
a treatment plan that supports her needs?
A. Proceed with the massage, working deeply C. Use a lighter-than-normal pressure and a
on her back and neck to promote pain
relief and reduce fatigue
soothing rhythm to promote relaxation,
then reducing the treatment time to about
30 minutes to prevent further fatiguing the
client
B. Proceed with the massage, working
vigorously to promote circulation
D. Massage is contraindicated
A. Schedule the massage for next, or third
day after the accident, then conduct a
complete intake to determine an
appropriate treatment plan
A client wishes to receive a massage the day after a vehicular accident that caused the client moderate
back pain. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment for this client?
A. Schedule the massage for next, or third
day after the accident, then conduct a
complete intake to determine an
appropriate treatment plan
C. Proceed with the massage, working deeply
on his back to promote pain relief
B. Find out if he has whiplash, then proceed
with neuromuscular techniques on his
neck
D. Proceed with the massage, using cross
fiber friction to minimize adhesions and
promote proper scar formation
C. Muscle spindles
Which of the following receptors monitor changes in muscle length as well as the rate of this change and
respond by reflexive contraction?
A. Golgi tendon organs C. Muscle spindles
B. Pacinian spindles D. Ruffini organs
B. Pacinian spindles
Which of the following muscles inverts the foot?
A. Gastrocnemius C. Peroneus longus
B. Tibialis anterior D. Plantaris
C. Is impossible or undesirable to treat a
particular client in the usual manner
If a client has a condition that is contraindicated, it means that it
A. Requires over-the-counter or prescription
medication
C. Is impossible or undesirable to treat a
particular client in the usual manner
B. Requires immediate medical attention D. Is recommended for massage
B. Help keep the client warm and promote
professionalism
Proper draping methods are an important part of massage because they
A. Are an important aspect of marketing C. Help massage lubricant absorption
B. Help keep the client warm and promote
professionalism
D. Help the client to stay calm
D. Emphysema
A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely than a nonsmoker to develop which of the
following?
A. Tuberculosis C. Influenza
B. Pleurisy D. Emphysema
B. Plantar flexion
When a person is raised up on his toes, the ankle is in what position?
A. Dorsiflexion C. Eversion
B. Plantar flexion D. Inversion
B. Upper lumbar region
To what area of the body is vigorous percussion generally avoided?
A. Upper thoracic region C. Middle gluteal region
B. Upper lumbar region D. Upper calf region
C. Massage proximal to the injured area
When working on a client who has an injury on one limb that is confined to a small area, what is the best
course of action?
A. Massage in wide circles around the injured
area
C. Massage proximal to the injured area
B. Massage over the injured area D. Massage distal to the injured area
D. Dating a client
Which of the following violates the Code of Ethics published by the National Certification Board of
Therapeutic Massage and Bodyworkers?
A. Accepting a $10 tip C. Becoming politically active
B. Leasing space from another massage
therapist
D. Dating a client
D. Postpone the massage until he receives
medical clearance
If a client who is under the care of a local nephrologist comes into the massage with pitting edema, what
should be part of his current treatment plan?
A. The edematous area should be elevated for
10 minutes prior to the massage
C. The edematous area should be massaged
for 10 minutes to relieve swelling
B. The edematous area should be wrapped
with compressive bandaging
D. Postpone the massage until he receives
medical clearance
B. Median
Which of the following nerves are involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Tibial C. Ulnar
B. Median D. Radial
A. Hypertension
Which of the following is a synonym for high blood pressure?
A. Hypertension C. Thrombosis
B. Arthrosclerosis D. Arteriolitis
B. Bladder infection
Which of the following is a synonym for cystitis?
A. Heart attack C. Kidney stone
B. Bladder infection D. Whiplash
C. Deep friction
What is the best massage stroke to break up fibrosis of scar tissue?
A. Gliding C. Deep friction
B. Kneading D. Percussion
D. To determine any contraindications
Why do massage therapists conduct a client intake with heath histories?
A. To determine if you will work with the
client
C. To learn interviewing skills
B. To learn more about the client's parents D. To determine any contraindications
B. eliminate spasm - restore flexibility -
improve muscle strength - rebuild
endurance
What are the four stages of rehabilitation?
A. improve muscle strength - rebuild
endurance - eliminate spasm - restore
flexibility
C. eliminate spasm - rebuild endurance -
restore flexibility - improve muscle
strength
B. eliminate spasm - restore flexibility -
improve muscle strength - rebuild
endurance
D. rebuild endurance - eliminate spasm -
improve muscle strength - restore
flexibility
D. Any of the above
When assessing a client's pain and discomfort, what is the initial question to ask?
A. When did it start? C. Does the pain radiate?
B. What makes it better or worse? D. Any of the above
A. Tell the client that massage can be
preformed through clothing
What is the best way to proceed when a client does NOT wish to disrobe?
A. Tell the client that massage can be
preformed through clothing
C. Refuse to massage the client
B. Ask the client if he or she will disrobe
down to the undergarments
D. Explain to the client the importance of
skin-to-skin contact
C. Abdomen
Where might a client report discomfort if he or she was diagnosed with diverticulosis?
A. Shoulder C. Abdomen
B. Hip D. Neck
B. Elevate the limb and massage around the
affected area
How would you work with someone who has varicose veins?
A. Apply heat to the affected area C. Massage distal the affected area only
B. Elevate the limb and massage around the
affected area
D. Apply deep pressure on the affected area
D. Percussion
Which massage stroke is best for muscular atrophy due to inactivity, because it activates muscle spindles?
A. Gliding strokes C. Kneading strokes
B. Friction D. Percussion
B. Sole proprietorship
What type of business entity put the owner(s) at the greatest risk?
A. Corporation C. Partnership
B. Sole proprietorship D. Limited liability
C. Limbic system
What system helps to regulate human emotions?
A. Portal system C. Limbic system
B. Renin-angiotensin system D. Blood-brain system
A. Gastrocnemius and soleus
Which two muscles are contracted when someone is wearing high-heeled shoes?
A. Gastrocnemius and soleus C. Tibialis anterior and posterior
B. Gastrocnemius and pectineus D. Plantaris and supinator
D. Hamstrings and calf
When flexing the knee, what two muscle groups move closer together?
A. Calf and quadriceps C. Adductors and hamstrings
B. Quadriceps and adductors D. Hamstrings and calf
B. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, iliofemoral
Which of the following are three joints of the pelvis?
A. Pubic symphysis, iliofemoral, sacrotuberal C. Iliofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral
B. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, iliofemoral D. Sacroiliac, chondrocostal, tibiofibular