CAE Citation CJ3 systems
Terms in this set (227)
Describe the Hydraulic system
Open center system, a low pressure system which requires a minimum amount of fluid. Open center reduces heat buildup, pump wear, and reduces leaks.
The fluid for the system is contained in a pressurized reservoir located in the right aft wing fairing.
What is operated by the Hydraulic System?
Landing gear, speedbrakes, and flaps
A separate independent system is used for the main wheel antiski/powerbrake system.
What Hydraulic Fluid is to be use?
How is the Hydraulic system pressurized and at what PSI?
23 PSI bleed air system. Prevents forming and maintains positive pressure.
At what pressure does the relief valve open?
In what configuration is fluid level measured?
gear extended, flaps and speedbrakes retracted.
What is the full capacity of the hydraulic system
2 liters, 2.16 quarts
Discuss the hydraulic pumps
Two engine driven pumps on each engine's accessory gear box. Either can operate alone.
At what flow rate does the annunciator light illuminate, and what light?
1.05 gallons per hour. HYD FLOW LOW.
Extinguishes at 1.45 gallons per minute
At near zero or negative Gs, air may be introduced into open center systems, causing cavitation of one or both pumps. HYD FLOW LOW will illuminate. The pumps will re-prime themselvess within a few minutes.
If both pumps remain cavitated, gear, flaps, and speedbrakes will not operate.
To what pressure does the system pressurize?
1,500 PSI. Control valve opens, allowing flow to selected system. Relief valve cracks at 1,350 PSI and is fully open at 1,500 PSI. HYD PRESS ON white light will illuminate. Valve closes when cycle complete. After 0.5 seconds, the loading valve opens, the light extinguishes, and system reverts to low pressure open center state.
What does the HYD FLOW LOW L/R light indicate?
Left and/or right hydraulic pump flow rate is below normal. During SEO this is normal. Cycling time will increase. For single pump failure, land as soon as practical.
If both pumps fail, descend to FL410 or lower and land as soon as practical.
What does the HYD PRESS ON indicate?
Either the flaps, speedbrakes, or landing gear are in transit and the loading valve has closed to pressurize the system.
If it stays on, the loading valve has remained closed and the system is now fully pressurized. Recycle the last system used. If this does not reset the system, pull the circuit breakers one at a time to isolate the system that is signaling the load valve to stay closed. This removes power from the affected control valve, which should remove power from the loading value and allow it to open.
If it depressurizes, descend to FL410 or lower. Reset the CB except the one that caused the issue. Land as soon as practical and reset the CB prior to landing.
How long can the hydraulic system be pressurized at high thrust before overheating? At low thrust?
High: 10 minutess
Low: 30 minutes
What bus are the flap and landing gear controls on?
Emergency bus (speed brake is not)
What leads to the F/W Shutoff L/R light to illuminate?
When ENG FIRE is pressed after the fuel and hydraulic valves close.
Where is the Hydraulic Valve located that is shut off when the ENG FIRE button is pressed?
How is the landing gear controlled and actuated?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
How are the landing gear enclosed?
Nose gear and the trailing link main struts are enclosed by mechanically actuated doors. the main gear wheels remain uncovered.
How is nosewheel steering actuated
Mechanically through linkage from the rudder pedals. Shimmy damper is on top of the nose strut
What if the gear fails?
Backup pneumatic blow-down system provides gear extension
Describe the brakes
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated. Backup system supplies pressure if primary system fails.
What kind of struts does the gear have?
Conventional air-oil struts
How is the gear held up / extended
Main gear, mechanical uplock assembly hook connects with uplock roller on the gear.
When handle is set down, the hook unlocks to release the gear before hydraulic pressure is directed to the actuator.
When extended, spring loaded sleeve piston presses a locking ring into a groove on the rod becoming a brace. Mechanically held down, not hydraulically. To retract, hydraulic pressure forces sleeve piston spring to release.
A retraction or extension cycle takes less than 6 seconds.
To what systems do the squat switches connect?
Left squat does not allow retraction on ground. When WoffW, squat switch signals gear control handle solenoid lock to retract.
- Outflow valves ground mode (open below 85% N2, prepressurization above 85% N2)
- emergency pressure (inop on ground)
- pressurization flow control shut of valve
- cross generator state disable (in flight)
- Flight hobbs meter and clocks
- landing gear handle solenoid lock
- brake anti-skid
- ground flaps
- stick shaker and stick shaker test
Describe the nose wheel doors
Three doors. Rear is mechanically connected to the strut and extends aft. Two forward doors are mechanically linked to the nose gear. Close with the gear fully retracted.
What activates the audible gear warning horn?
Airspeed below 130 kts, either throttle is below 85% N2, and gear is not down and locked.
Or if the flaps extend beyond T/O/APPR (15 degrees) and gear is not down and locked.
Describe emergency gear extension
Gear uplocks are manually released for gear free-fall. A pneumatic system is installed to assure positive locking of all three gear actuators.
Actuated by the red AUX GEAR CONTROL - tee handle located under the instrument panel. Pull the gear control CB then place gear handle down. Pull the red tee handle out and rotate 45 degrees clockwise to lock the handle. Hydraulic fluid returns to up side, preventing hydraulic lock.
Gear free falls to down position. Rudder yaw may be needed to extend main actuators fully. Nose gear extends aft and aerodynamic forces lock the gear.
Rotating the handle also unlocks the blow down knob behind the tee handle. Knob controls the emergency nitrogen bottle located on the forward side of the forward pressure bulkhead. Bottle should have 1,800 - 2,050 PSI. (Preflight item) This bottle is shared with the emergency brake system.
Pulling the knob releases pressure from the bottle to the extend side of the gear actuators.
Describe nosewheel steering
Cables connect rudder pedals to the nosewheel steering unit. Bellcrank on left side of wheel well transmits steering control input from the cables to a spring loaded rog (bungee) which inputs to a steering arm connected to a universal joint. Shimmy damper decreases steering oscillations.
The universal joint centers the nose wheel on retraction.
Rudder pedal steering is limited to approximately 20 degrees either side by rudder stops. Use of differential thrust and brakes increases deflection. Bungee allows nose wheel to turn to an additional 64 degrees.
Towing can move nosewheel up to 95 degrees before engaging stop bolts on the trunnion.
Flight control lock limits travel to 60 degrees.
Describe the braking system.
Hydraulically or pneumatically operated multiple disk brakes. Independent of hydraulic system. Pneumatic is backup.
How does the anti-skid system work
Transducers on each axle are compared. If there is significant variation between the voltages, the control module will activate the power brake and anti-skid valve which controls the amount of braking to each wheel. The braking effort is maintained within skid limits.
Minimized landing distance by maximizing brake efficiency.
What does the ANTI-SKID INOP annuciator indicate?
Fault in the anti-skid system or switch is off. Power braking is still available without the anti-skid function.
Light also illuminates during self test. Takes 3 seconds in the air, 6 seconds on the ground. Inhibited at wheel speeds over 15 kts.
Low supply voltage (<7.0 volts)
RH /LH transducer fault
Servo valve fault
Control box fault
Squat switch disagree from more than 12.8 +/- 1 seconds. (this one does not illuminate light)
What does the PWR BRK LOW PRESS indicate?
Hydraulic pressure in the(separate, closed hydraulic system) power system is below 750 PSI (gear handle must be down)
At what speed does the anti-skid system disengage automatically?
What is the backup if the power brake system fails?
Braking is available only through pneumatic system
Describe the main braking system
Brakes are operated by a separate, closed center hydraulic system, with an independent reservoir, electric motor/pump, and accumulator. The pump is powered anytime the gear handle is down and the accumulator pressure is below 1,175 PSI +- 75.
Pilots and copilots pedals do not move in sync. If they are pressed simultaneously, the system accepts only the highest input.
Pressure is created by springs in the mixer and feedback force created by the brake metering valve.
What are the three protections offered by the anti-skid system?
Antiskid, touchdown protection, locked wheel crossover protection
What is touchdown protection?
Prevents application of brake pressure prior to wheel spin up. Available only when both main gear squat switches active. Active for 3 seconds after WOW or until wheel spin up has occurred at 59 +/- 2 kts. Occurs for each wheel independently.
Active until 15 kts +/- 2kts.
Locked Wheel Crossover Protection, what is it?
Prevents inadvertent turning of the aircraft due to differential braking caused by adverse runway conditions. Wheel velocity is compared to determine if one is locked. If one falls to less than 30% of the other, the control box sends a full dump command to the anti-skid servo valve. It remains in effect until the wheel increases above the 30% threshold. Inactive below 25 kts.
How does the parking brake function?
Valve downstream of anti-skid control valve is engaged when parking brake knob is pulled. Traps existing or subsequent pressure applied to the brakes. Incorporates thermal relief valves to accommodate pressure rise due to fluid expansion when parking brake is engaged after heavy braking activity. Relieves at 1,200 PSI and reseats to maintain at least 600 PSI.
How does the Emergency Brake function?
Backup pneumatic system. Do not use normal brakes when using it. Completely independent. Dedicated pneumatic lines from emergency brake valve to the brake shuttle valves. Uses compressed nitrogen to supply pressure up to 838 +/- 38 PSI.
No anti-skid or differential braking is available.
Repeatedly increasing and decreasing pressure on handle will rapidly deplete nitrogen supply.
Nitrogen bottle also supplies pressure to landing gear blow-down system. Volume of 95 cubic inches. Pressurized to precharge pressure of 1,800 +/- 200 PSI.
Should have enough for braking in most conditions even if gear was blown down.
What should the nose tire pressure be on preflight?
125 +/- 5 PSI
What should the emergency air bottle pressure be on preflight?
1,800 to 2,050 PSI (gauge in baggage compartment)
What do the green arcs equal in teh brake fluid accumulator pressure guage
Light green == 675 PSI
Dark green == 1,175 to 1,500 PSI
What should the main gear tire pressure be on preflight?
137 +/- 3 PSI or 98.. manual says both
Describe the electrical system
Two 29 volt 300 amp engine driven starter/generators. A 24 volt 44 amp Nicad battery (42 amp lead acid optional).
What do the DC busses supply power to?
All DC functions except engine starting.
What protects the crossfeed bus?
225 amp fuse
Is there AC power on the plane?
Yes, DC powered inverters provide AC power for electroluminescent cockpit lighting and for 110 VAC power outlets in the cabin
What does the emergency DC bus power
Placing the DC POWER switch to EMER powers the emergency bus by battery.
Pitot static (standby and copilot)
Audio panel (L)
Standby flight display / attitude (copilot's AHRS)
RTU 1/2 in standby mode (comm 1/Nav 1) (copilot's ADC)
RIU (radio interface units)
audio panel (R)
flap control and indicator
gear control and indicator
What is on the hot battery bus
emergency exit lights, tailcone lights, nose baggage ights, voltmeter, wing anti-ice overtemp sensors, and wing anti-ice valves
When would the Master Warning light illuminate with an amber annunciator?
When both gens are off line
What does the GCU provide? (What it is)
Generator control unit:
feeder fault protection
ground fault protection
Are the generators capable of overload
yes, 450 amps for 2 minutes. A single gen can support the entire system.
When does the battery supply power?
Prior to start, battery starts, or in event of dual generator power failure
Is anything powered with Battery in OFF position?
Yes, the hot bus
Can the battery disconnect switch be used in lieu of unplugging the battery?
No, it draws current off the battery to keep the relay in the disconnect position.
How long with the battery last in EMER mode?
Which valves fail closed
wing anti-ice XFLOW
What is the max temp for the battery?
63 C / 145 F
BATT O-TEMP and MASTER WARNING
Temp over 71C / 160F flashes BATT O'TEMP
Over 160 more rapid voice and flashing MASTER WARNING
What is required for external power and what is powered?
28 VDC , hot battery bus. With battery switch to BATT, everything.
Should have 800-1,100 amps if it is to be used to start engines
Describe the engine start process
Push engine start button - closes stat relay and provides DC power to engine starter
8% N2, throttles advanced, ignition starts. White light in starter button.
Starter goes to gen appx 45% N2
What is the min battery voltage for start?
24 VDC. (Usually indicates 25-26)
What type of engine does the CJ3 have?
Williams FJ44-3A, light-weight, twin-spool, medium bypass turbofan engine.
How much thrust does the engine produce?
2,780 lbs at sea level
What does the high pressure turbine drive?
The compressor and accessory section
What drives the compressor and accessory section?
the high pressure turbine drive
What information does the FADEC provide to the EIS?
N1, N2, ITT.
Also N1 to standby display.
What is the oil capacity of each engine?
4.17 US quarts
When do you check the oil?
Within ten minutes of shutdown
What is the permissible oil consumption?
0.023 gph or 0.1 quart / hour
Is there an annunciator light to indicate oil is bypassing the filter?
At what differential pressure does the valve open to bypass the filter?
How will you know if oil is about to, or has, bypassed the filter?
A poppet is actuated at 12-18 PSID.
What does the OIL PRESS WARN L/R lightmean?
Low oil pressure below 25 PSIG (master warning will light up)
What is the minimum oil pressure?
At or above 80% N2, 45 PSIG.
Below 80% N2, 35 PSIG.
Below 80% N2 23 PSIG for up to five minutes
Whatis the maximum oil pressure?
At or above 80% N2 - 100 PSIG for up to 5 minutes with only pressure returning to normal range.
What is the oil temperature limitation?
Engine should not be operated above 80% N2 until oil temp is above 10C (50F)
Max oil temp is 149 C (300F) for up to five minutes when operating below 80% N2.
When does the fuel filter bypass begin?
Not begin below a filter diff pressure of 9 PSI
Fuel control system
Fuel enters the FDU (Fuel Delivery Unit) where it is pressurized by a centrifugal engine driven fuel pump and routed to the fuel/oil heat exchange. The fuel is heated and the oil cooled and the fuel is returned to the fuel filter element.
After filtering, fuel is moved to the high pressure engine driven fuel pump to the fuel metering section of theFDU.
What three places does the fuel go after the FDU
9pph to the atomizing nozzle positioned in the burner to enchance cold day and altitude start capability
Some redirected to the motive flow pumps in the wing tanks
Remainder passes through the fuel flow meter then enters the core engine through the fuel manifold tube and to the fuel slinger.
What does the fuel slinger do?
Rotates with the HP rotary group and ejects fuel radially through a series of delivery holes into the combustion zone
When is impending bypass signal sent for the fuel filter?
4 +/- 0.5 PSID.
Removed at 2 +/- 1 PSI
When does the Fuel Low Press light illuminate?
4.65 PSIG +0.15 or -0.25
Also when boostpump switch is in normal position and throttle lever is out of cutoff position
What is a TT2/PT2 sensor?
TT2 is engine inlet total temp
PT2 is engine inlet total pressure
Used for FADEC in engine setting
What does the PMA do?
Permanent Magnetic Alternator provides independent power to each FADEC channel for all power settings
What does the FDU provide?
Fuel conditioning, fuel metering, inducer bleed valve actuation, and FADEC power generation
When do the exciters light?
During engine start, during engine anti-ice operation, gear extended in flight - TLA < 85%, and when switches set to on.
When are the exciters activated on an engine start? Deactivated?
8% N2 after moving the throttle out of cutoff to idle. Shuts off at 45% N2
When does the FADEC use both igniters?
Engine start in air, gear down and locked and TLA less than Max Cont (off after WOW and 8 sec)
When a flameout is sensed by FADEC (decreasing rate of change in N2). Will shut off when relight has occurred or engine spools below 44% N2.
When should an engine start be aborted?
False engine start (No ITT/Fuel flow within 10 seconds after advancing throttle)
Hot start (ITT rapidly approaching 1000C)
No N1 rotation by 12% (25%?) N2
Hung start - Slow or no rotation after ITT increases and prior to reaching idle RPM
Low oil pressure
Start fails to disengage at 40% N2 (technically a shut down, not abort)
At what engine speed does the FADEC command shutdown?
What is HP air used for?
rudder bias activation
23 PSI pressure regulating valve for tail deice and main cabin door seal
What are the approved oil types?
Mobil Jet II
Mobil Jet 254
(Can be mixed)
What does illumination of the Ground Idle annunciator indicate?
GRD IDLE switch in normal position when aircraft on the ground.
In the air indicates engines may be reduced to ground idle speed in IDLE detent.
What does illumination of the F/W SHUTOFF annunciator indicate?
Applicable engine fire switches have been activated.
Electrical, fuel, and hydraulic systems are closed at firewall.
What does illumination of the ENG CTRL SYS FAULT annunciator indicate?
Input to the FADEC has failed or exceeded tolerances, or a FADEC channel is inop.
May indicate TT2/PT2 has ice.
What does illumination of the ENG T2 HTR FAIL annunciator indicate?
Either T2 heater is inop when wing/engine anti-ice switch is on, or the T2 heater is on with the switch off.
What does illumination of the ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator indicate?
engine inlet temp is below safe level for satisfactory ice protection.
Normal when wing/engine anti-ice first actuated and if engine speed below 75% N2.
What does illumination of the OIL PRESS WARN annunciator indicate?
Unacceptable oil pressure.
Oil pressure above 45 PSI - land as soon as practical
Between 25- 45 PSI, reduce power on affected engine
Below 25 PSI, throttle OFF
What is Venr
Single engine enroute climb speed
Wingtip to wingtip length
tail tip to tail tip length
Main gear width
ground to tail height
nose to tail length
nose to main length
Height in cabin
What does the BAGGAGE DOOR light indicate?
one or more of the baggage door circuits are not locked
When does the amber DOOR SEAL light illuminate
Seal pressure below 5.5 PSI above cabin pressure
What does the Batt O'Temp light indicate
Battery temp exceeds 60 C / 140 F. light steady
Over 71C / 160F light flashes
over 160C Over 160C light illuminates and more rapid voice.
What are the three hazard areas outside the aircraft?
Inlet Air draw 20'
Exhaust Plume 160'
What is the avionics system?
Rockwell Collins Pro Line 21 Integrated Avionics System
What is the IAPS?
Integrated Avionics Processor Assembly:
ADS (air data system)
EFIS (elec flight instrument system)
RSS (radio sensor system)
WXR (weather radar)
What is a DCU?
Data Concentrator Unit
engine data and aircraft systems sent to IAPS for distribution to cockpit displays
Where do the AFDs get their info?
Adaptive flight displays (PFD/MFD):
Describe the pitot static system
there independent systems - pilot/copilot/standby
Systems include an ADC (air data computer) and flight display
Static located on both sides of plane different places to reduce location variation.
What does a GEN OFF light indicate
Reduce electrical load.
What does Aft J-Box CB light indicate?
Left or right start control aft J-Box circuit breaker is disengage. If in flight, engine can only be started by windmilling air start.
What does Aft J-Box LMT light indicate
Aft J-Box left or right current limiter circuit breaker is disengaged - probably blown limiter.
Normal gen power is available to all respective buses. Cross tie bus will not supply power to batter from busted gen.
How does the engine fire detection system work?
Closed loop helium filled tube. Two pressure switches in the sensor - integrity and heat.
What does pressing the ENGINE FIRE button do?
Closes fuel firewall SOV
Closes Hydraulic firewall SOV
De-energizes starter gen
Arms halon extinguishing bottles (both)
Illuminates BOTTLE ARMED buttons
Illuminates Fuel Low, Hyd Flow Low, FW SHUTOFF and GEN OFF annunciators
Illuminates FUEL BOOST ON, Oil press warn, master warning, master caution
What function does the Rudder Bias system serve?
A pneumatic system that helps with directional control in case of an engine failure on takeoff
How is the rudder bias system controlled / actuated?
Electronically controlled and pneumatically actuated though the normal DC power and service bleed air system.
How many degrees will just the rudder pedals turn the nose wheel?
20 degrees each side
How many degrees will the nose wheel turn with rudder and differential braking?
64 degrees either side
How many degrees will the nose wheel turn when towing without the control wheel lock on?
95 degrees either side
Will the speedbrake extend at any speed?
No, at TLA above 85% N2, a microswitch prevents speedbrake extension
How long after GROUND FLAPS are selected in flight will the annunciator light?
8 seconds FLAPS > 35 and MASTER CAUTION
How are the flaps controlled / actuated?
Electrically operated flap control and hydraulic actuated flaps
When won't the landing gear horn silence button function?
Flaps past TO/APPCH without the gear down
If the hydraulic system fails, in which position will the flaps be set?
Whereever they were when the system failed
With the control wheel locked, what is the maximum deflection of the nosewheel?
60 degrees either side.
When does the stick shaker activate?
8-10% above stall speed
What is the power source for the stick shaker?
LH Main DC bus
What does the RUDDER BIAS annunciator indicate?
Closing of the rudder bias system valve.
What is the fuel capacity?
349 US Gal each side
How is fuel transferred?
From one tank to another via a crossfeed valve. Crossfeeding engines is not possible.
Describe the fuel tanks
tank encompasses all internal wing area between front and rear spar except for the gear well, inboard to center rib, and outboard to a point 21 inches from the wing tip.
How many fuel quantity (capacitance)probes are in each wing?
7 per wing
What does the fuel sump area include?
Electric boost pump, primary ejector pump, and quick drains.
What is the fuel supply of the sump during negative G maneuvers not exceeding -1G?
How many fuel quick drains are on each wing?
How does an ejector pump work?
Ejector pumps use existing fuel pressure in conjunction with a venturi to produce a high volume flow of fuel. As high pressure fuel is forced through the ejector, a low pressure area is created at the pump inlet drawing in fuel and pushing it out at low pressure.
The ejector pump uses bypass fuel from the engine driven pump as its motive flow source to pick up fuel from the sump and deliver it to the engine.
The two ejector pumps that aren't in the sump scavenge fuel from the wing to keep a constant supply of fuel in the sump.
What does the Electric Fuel Pump do?
Fuel pressure for engine starting, transfer, and backup for primary ejector pump.
When do the electric fuel pumps activate
Automatically for start and crossfeed.
Activated by low pressure if primary ejector pump output is insufficient (below 4.65 PSI)
How many ejector pumps are in each fuel tank?
When does the FUEL LOW LEVEL annunciator come on?
190 lbs +/- 20
Why would you turn on the fuel pump when FUEL LOW LEVEL is seen?
While it is not a fuel low pressure situation, the electric fuel pump is physically lower in the sump area than the ejector and can pump the last bit of fuel.
What does FUEL FLTR BYPASS indicate?
clogged fuel filter. Ice formation may have caused the malfunction.
What does the FUEL GAUGE annunciator indicate and what is the special consideration for it?
A fault in the fuel gauging system. After landing, check the BITE control box prior to removing power from the a/c.
What are the anti / de-ice systems on the aircraft?
Anti-ice: windshield, pylon inlet, engine cowl, generator inlet, wind leading edges
Deice - horizontal stabilizers (tail)
Electric heating of pitot/static, AOA, TT2/PT2
When should anti-ice an deice be turned on?
Operating in visible moisture with RAT 10 C / 50 F or below
At what temp do the fire loops trigger the Fire annunciators?
What happens when you press the ENG FIRE button
Closes associated fuel firewall valve
Closes associated hydraulic firewall valve
Arms both fire extinguisher bottles
Illuminates both Bottle Armed buttons
Opens affected engine's generator field relay
Describe the route air takes in the bleed air anti-ice systems
Engine bleed air passes through a precooler located in the engine pylon, where it is dropped appx 260C before it proceeds through (1) the wing anti-ice pressure regulating shut off valves or (2) the windshield anti-ice/rain removal system via the windshield anti-ice heat exchanger.
What occurs regarding the air inlet ducts when the WING/ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are placed in the WING/ENG position?
Bleed air is supplied to the air inlet ducts. These ducts are heated to prevent ice from blocking cooling air supply to the cabin and windshield air heat exchangers. Blockage of these ducts will result in loss of cabin temp control and windshield bleed air temp control .
What temperature activated the BLD AIR O'HEAT annunciator?
293 C / 560 F
Informs pilot bleed air entering cabin pressurization, windshield anti-ice, and wing anti-ice is too hot.
Wing anti-ice PRSOV closes.
What causes the WING ANTI-ICE to illuminate?
Leading edge below 28C / 82F
When would the WING O'HEAT light illuminate?
71C / 160F. Will occur during sustained ground ops but should not occur in flight.
MASTER CAUTION will illuminate appx 1 minute after.
When will the TAIL DEICE PRESS light illuminate?
Any time a horizontal stabilizer deice pressure switch senses a minimum of 16 PSI, voltage to the valve is not within limits, timer clocks have failed, or the CB has failed.
At what temperature should tail deice use be avoided?
RAT below -35C / -31F. Cracking of boots may occur.
When does the W/S AIR O'HEAT light illuminate?
Bleed air temp over 149C / 300F
How much alcohol is provided for the windshield?
Appx 10 minutes
Rotary Test: Fire Warn
Engine fire lights illuminate.
Fire tray illuminates
Voice: "LEFT ENGINE FIRE/RIGHT ENGINE FIRE"
Rotary test: Landing Gear
Three green lights and one red illuminate.
Voice: "LANDING GEAR"
Silence by pressing horn.
Rotary Test: Batt Temp
BATT O'TEMP and >160 will flash.
Master warning will illuminate
Voice: "BATTERY OVER TEMP"
Rotary test: Rudder Bias
RUDDER BIAS illuminates
MASTER CAUTION illuminates
Rotary test: AOA
AOA goes red
Red chevron flashes on and off
Rotary Test: W/S Temp
W/S AIR O'HEAT illuminates
MASTER CAUTION illuminates after 4 seconds
(test both hi and low)
Rotary test: Overspeed
Overspeed audio tone
Rotary Test: Anti-Skid
ANTI-SKID INOP illuminates for 5 seconds
Rotary Test: ANNU
All annunciator panel lights
Fan speed and turbine speed indicators self test
AOA indexer lights illuminate steady
Voice after: READY
What does the CAB ALT light indicate?
Cabin pressure altitude is above 10,000' or 14,000' if high altitude switch is engaged.
What is the capacity of the supplementary Oxygen bottle? Where is it located?
50 cu ft.
under the floor of the right nose compartment
What does a ruptured green oxygen disc indicate?
Bottle pressure exceeded 2,500 PSI and is empty
What is normal service volume for an oxygen bottle?
1,600 and 1,800 PSI
What PSI are the flight deck masks?
What is the altitude limit of the pax oxy system?
25,000' cabin altitude
What is the altitude limit of the crew oxy system?
40,000' cabin altitude
When do the masks drop and how?
At 14,500' +/- 500', oxygen control valve will actuate to supply 70 PSI O2 to pax manifold.
O2 will not flow until lanyards are pulled.
When will pax O2 stop flowing?
8,000' cabin altitude with electrical available
What must be done when landing over 12,000'?
Oxygen control valve set to CREW ONLY to prevent deployment of pax masks
What type of masks do the crew have?
EROS diluter demand
What are the major components of the pressurization system?
primary and secondary outflow valves
manual toggle value
cabin dump switch
Describe the three outflow valve modes
Ground taxi - a/c on ground with either engine running operating below 85% N2. Both outflow valves fully open
Prepressurization mode - both engines greater than 85% N2, both outflow valves slowly close to bring cabin alt toward a 200' diff below field pressure alt during takeoff roll.
Flight - Cabin pressurized by a constant 10lbs / min temperature controlled air
How does the cabin dump switch work?
Disables all electrical controls and activates primary outflow climb solenoid. Dumps cabin pressure to limit of cabin altitude limit values.
What does the yellow light mean on the digital pressurization controller?
Interruption of the ADC information. Automatic switch to Isobaric mode.
What does the red light mean on the digital pressurization controller?
Complete internal failure of the cabin pressure controller. Outflow valves capture and hold current cabin pressure.
What are the cabin pressurization modes?
Automatic - pilot sets landing field pressure and it does the math
Isobaric - If ADC is interrupted, or other failure causes AUTO to fail, yellow warning indicator illuminates. Pilot will manually set desired cruising flight level. Cabin altitude will be selected before landing.
Manual - Cabin alt controlled by pushing up or down on manual toggle. Does not require electrical power (other two do).
High altitude - landing field elevation 8,000+, cabin climbs at increased rate if needed.
From where does cabin air enter?
After cooling through the pylon mounted air to air heat exchangers, and another in the tail cone, it enters through the cabin floor and arm rest ducts
What happens when the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob is in OFF
Both bleed air control valves are closed, allowing no bleed air into the cabin but allowing ram air to flow to the airplane
What happens when the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob is in FRESH AIR
ram air is selected and the airplane can not be pressurized. Fresh air fan operates to assist ram air flow and to provide flow on the ground.
What happens when the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob is in L/R?
L- left engine shutoff valve opens, allowing left engine bleed air to enter cabin
R - right engine shutoff valve opens, allowing right engine bleed air to enter cabin
What happens when the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob is in BOTH
left and right PRSOVs open, allowing both engines to supply bleed air to cabin
What happens when the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob is in EMER?
Pressurization air is provided directly from windshield anti-ice line through emergency pressurization shut off valve.
What is the range of the selectable temperature controller?
65F - 85F (18-29C)
Where is the temperature sensor located?
inlet of aft fan
What percentage of air is proportioned to the cockpit with the cockpit air dist in Max?
When does the AIR DUCT O'HEAT light illuminate?
Cabin bleed air exceeds 149C (300F).
What is the purpose of the vapor cycle air conditioner?
Provides extra cooling at low altitudes and on the ground, as the bleed air system is not adequate.
Cools by recirculating cabin air - discharged via overhead wemac outlets or floor vents. Uses refigerant.
Note: The defog switch will power the air conditioner regardless of Air COND switch position
When will CABIN ALT illuminate?
Failure of cabin to pressurize after takeoff. Cabin not maintaining altitude.
When will CABIN DOOR illuminate?
If cabin door not properly closed - pins not in position
When will EMER PRESS ON illuminate?
Emer press has been manually turned on by the air source select rotary switch
What is the engine start flow?
Above 8% (12%) idle
N1 by 25% N2
45% N2 starter disengage
What is on the accessory gearbox
Fuel pump / Fuel Delivery Unit
When does the PMA power the FADECs?
What does the shaft separation device do?
Command engine shutdown at 4mm spread
What is the power source for the air conditioning system?
Engine bleed air
LH Main DC bus
What are the buses and how many?
Feed Bus (L/R)
Feed Extension (L/R)
What powers the fire protection system?
Main DC buses
What powers the flaps?
Emergency DC power bus
Main Hydraulic System
What powers the Speedbrakes
LH Main DC bus
Main hydraulic system
What powers the fuel system?
main DC bus
What powers the hydraulic system?
Hydraulic fluid in reservoir
engine bleed air (service)
Engine driven hydraulic pumps
What is the engine/wing anti-ice power source
Engine bleed air
LH main DC bus
What powers the windshield bleed
bleed air from bleed air clusters
main DC buses
What powers the horizontal stabilizer surface deice?
bleed air from service bleed air system
RH main DC bus
What is the power source for the pitot/static
emer DC bus (RH)
LH Main DC bus (LH)
Emer DC busy (Stby)
What powers the landing gear?
Main hydraulic system
Emergency DC bus
Emergency air bottle
What powers the Brakes/Antiskid?
Independent hydraulic system
emergency air bottle
LH main DC bus
What powers the Oxygen system?
50 cu ft oxygen cylinder
LH Main DC bus
What powers the bleed air?
What powers the Pressurization system?
Conditioned air system
emergency pressurization from windshield bleed air system
main DC buses
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
Aviation English - ICAO
Cessna 172RG System
PSA systems test and oral sample questions
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Immediate Action Items
B737 Checked Limitations
Q400 double box memory items
Q400 Systems Validation Question Bank V1.5 (04/06/2018)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Cessna 525B CJ3
CJ Memory Checklist Items