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HEME II TEST ONE

Terms in this set (49)

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Correlation checks between the red blood cell count, the hemoglobin, and the hematocrit are significant parts of QA (quality assurance) in the hematology lab. These correlations are known as____________
"Rule of Three" ―The formulas for correlation checks/rule of three are as follows: RBC X 3 = Hgb and Hgb X 3 = Hct +/- 3
Which site is the most preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adults?
Iliac crest
Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:
Iron
Red cell Inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:
Holly-Jolly Bodies
When hemolysis is produced by the intravascular fragmentation of red cells, which red cell morphology will be produced?
Scistocytes
The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by a/an:
Reticulocyte count
The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin are:
Heinz bodies
Polychromatophilic macrocytes in the peripheral smear are most likely_____________
Reticulocytes
Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as the:
Nuclear development and hemoglobin development that is not balanced
The hemoglobin molecule consists of:
Four heme molecules, four globin chains

The molecule consists of 4 heme iron molecules with iron at the center and two pair of globin chains. The heme structures sits lodged in the pocket of the globin chains. Surrounded by a protoporphyrin ring
Macrocytic red blood cells are routinely seen in all the following except:
Thalassemia and pernicious anemia
The Schilling test continues to be an historic reference method for the determination of:
pernicious anemia
One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
Tropical Sprue Syndrome
Tropical/subtropical climates; Flattened villi leads to poor absorption activity
Intrinsic factor is secreted by the:
a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal or chief cells of the gastric mucosa
Ineffective erythropoiesis is defined as:
Is active erythropoiesis with premature death of RBCs, a decreased output of RBCs from the bone marrow and consequently, anemia
A macrocytosis that is not megaloblastic in origin can be seen in all the following except:
Hypothyroidism, chronic liver disease, alcoholism, chemotherapy treatment, or a myelodysplastic disorder. Newborns because their bone marrow is immature
Which of the following morphological features is classic in the megaloblastic anemias?
The blood smear in megaloblastic anemia is extremely relevant in the diagnose and shows macrocytes, macro-ovalocytes, hyper segmented multi-lobed neutrophils, and little polychromasia with respect to the anemia. The presence of hyper segment lobes in combination with macrocytic anemia is morphologic marker for megaloblastic anemia.
The MCV in pernicious anemia will be in the range of:
High 100 to 140 fL
Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
A key substance required for the incorporation of vitamin B12 in red cell nuclear synthesis is the presence of:
Vitamin B12 must combine with the intrinsic factor before it enters the blood circulation: transcobalamin II (TC II) is the transport protein that carries vitamin B12 to the tissues
What is thymidine?
A crystalline nucleoside present in DNA, consisting of thymine linked to deoxyribose
What is the most sensitive indicator of iron stores?
Serum Ferritin
What is Hepcidin?
A protein that is synthesized in and secreted by the liver, that reduces the amount of Iron ferroprotein
A differentiation of treated versus untreated megaloblastic anemia can be determined by the presence of:
Polychromasia- abnormally high number of immature RBCs are found in the blood stream
Which of the following terms describes the appearance of the erythropoietic precursors in the megaloblastic process?
Asynchrony
What effect does iron have on thalassemia?
No effect
In patients with iron overload, Desferal may be administered to chelate the excess iron. The chelated iron is shed in:
Urine
In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be
Low
In the United States, approximately_____of the anemias seen are due to IDA
50%
The presence of which hemoglobin will result in an inherited methemoglobinemia
Hemoglobin M
The globin chains found in hemoglobin A2 are:
Alpha 2 and Delta 2
The alpha thalassemias result from:
Gene deletion
The primary storage forms of iron are:
Ferritin and Hemosiderin
Which if the following is also known as Cooley's anemia?
Beta Thalassemia Major
The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:
Hemoglobin F
One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:
Iron overload
Failure to thrive, facial structure abnormalities, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are signs of which of the following disorders?
Thalassemia Major
What inclusion is associated with a "pitted" golf ball appearance?
Hemoglobin H Inclusion
The alpha thalassemia condition that is incompatible with life is:
Bart's Hydrops Fetails
Transferrin receptors for iron uptake are located on the:
Pronormablats
Storage iron is usually determined by the:
Serum Ferritin Level
In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for
recycling of iron.
The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed:
Iron depletion
List symptoms of iron deficiency anemia
Fatigue
Pallor
Vertigo
Dyspnea
Cold Intolerance
Lethargy
Pica (Unusual Cravings)
In adults, which of the following is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia
Chronic blood loss
Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which disorders?
Sideroblastic anemia
Explain shift to the left.
Hemoglobin has more of an affinity for oxygen and is less willing to release it to the tissues.
List the enhancers of iron absorption. Healthy GI track...
Orange juice
Vinegar
Vitamin C
Alcohol
Pickles
Soy sauce
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