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EMT: Chapter 15-16 Review
Terms in this set (100)
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. a respiratory infection.
B. high blood glucose levels.
C. a narcotic overdose.
D. an overdose of aspirin.
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
A. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.
B. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea.
C. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
D. altered mental status and bradycardia.
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
A. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
B. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
C. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.
D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:
A. request a paramedic to give her a sedative.
B. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.
C. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
D. position her on her left side and transport at once.
Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct?
A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.
B. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals.
C. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?
A. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.
B. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis.
C. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.
D. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure.
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
B. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
C. a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
D. a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of:
A. toxic chemical inhalation.
B. an upper airway infection.
C. severe hyperventilation.
D. right-sided heart failure.
A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:
A. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
B. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
C. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen.
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:
A. respiratory insufficiency.
B. respiratory difficulty.
C. an obstructed airway.
D. adequate air exchange.
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe:
A. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.
B. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack.
C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate.
D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.
The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the:
A. femoral arteries.
B. posterior tibial arteries.
C. anterior tibial arteries.
D. peroneal arteries.
The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the:
Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort?
A. Family history of hypertension
B. History of cigarette smoking
C. History of previous heart attack
D. Presence of personal risk factors
Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
D. severe headache.
What is the function of the left atrium?
A. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.
B. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.
C. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta.
D. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.
When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:
A. use medical terminology.
B. use the patient's own words.
C. underline the patient's quotes.
D. document his or her own perception.
The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is:
A. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor.
B. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation.
C. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged.
D. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.
You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:
A. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital.
B. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.
C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
D. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport.
After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should:
A. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache.
B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension.
C. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.
D. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting.
When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because:
A. angina and AMI present identically.
B. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field.
C. angina usually occurs after an AMI.
D. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI.
You and your EMT partner are the first to arrive at the scene of an unresponsive 70-year-old man. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. A paramedic unit is en route to the scene and will arrive in approximately 5 minutes. You should:
A. perform CPR only and wait for the manual defibrillator to arrive.
B. apply the AED while your partner provides rescue breathing.
C. begin CPR, apply the AED, and deliver a shock if it is indicated.
D. begin CPR and have your partner update the responding paramedics.
Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct?
A. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.
B. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.
C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse.
D. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival.
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.
While obtaining a 12-lead ECG prior to ALS arrival, you note the presence of artifacts on the tracing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this?
A. Incorrect placement of the leads
B. Excessive movement of the patient
C. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity
D. The patient's pulse is irregular.
The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the:
A. autonomic nervous system.
B. parietal lobe.
C. somatic nervous system.
D. pons and medulla.
The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________.
A. aorta, inferior vena cava
B. coronary sinus, vena cava
C. vena cava, coronary veins
D. coronary arteries, aorta
You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:
A. attach the AED immediately.
B. obtain baseline vital signs.
C. begin ventilatory assistance.
D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.
The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated:
A. in the fossa behind the knee.
B. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle.
C. between the trachea and the neck muscle.
D. on the dorsum of the foot.
When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:
A. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers.
B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.
C. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.
D. blood returning from the body can fill the atria.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output?
A. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram.
B. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.
C. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.
D. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope.
Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:
B. elevated cholesterol.
C. diabetes mellitus.
A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes:
A. placing her in an upright position.
B. ventilations with a BVM.
C. nitroglycerin for her chest pain.
D. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by:
A. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.
B. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery.
C. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg.
D. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing.
Ischemic heart disease is defined as:
A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery.
B. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen.
C. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.
D. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must:
A. ensure the medication is in tablet form.
B. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure.
C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin.
D. obtain authorization from medical control.
When the myocardium requires more oxygen:
A. the heart contracts with less force.
B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate.
C. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.
D. the heart rate decreases significantly.
Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because:
A. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion.
B. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases.
C. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood.
D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do?
A. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.
B. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
C. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate.
D. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD.
Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct?
A. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes.
B. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes.
C. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.
D. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling.
You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to:
A. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
B. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse.
C. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.
D. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.
Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Sinus tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Extra ventricular beats
Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct?
A. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient.
B. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.
C. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light.
D. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum.
Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because:
A. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions.
B. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.
C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria.
D. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates.
Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by:
A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium.
B. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries.
C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.
D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.
The purpose of defibrillation is to:
A. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation.
B. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.
C. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient.
D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the V1 and V2 electrodes should be placed:
A. on the left and right arms.
B. on either side of the sternum.
C. in the midclavicular line.
D. in the midaxillary line.
The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the:
A. subclavian arteries.
B. carotid arteries.
C. iliac arteries.
D. brachial arteries.
The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:
A. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.
B. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle.
C. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium.
D. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle.
Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk?
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:
A. slows the heart and respiratory rates.
B. prepares the body to handle stress.
C. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.
D. causes an increase in the heart rate.
Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to:
A. gain immediate access to the patient.
B. determine if you need additional help.
C. assess the scene for potential hazards.
D. request a paramedic unit for assistance.
Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:
A. enters the systemic circulation.
B. flows into the pulmonary arteries.
C. has a high concentration of oxygen.
D. was received directly from the aorta.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates
B. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles
C. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system
D. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles
Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
A. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.
B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.
C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.
D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the:
B. nipple line.
C. pubic symphysis.
D. iliac crest.
Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. irregular heartbeat.
B. pain exacerbated by breathing.
C. sudden unexplained sweating.
D. shortness of breath or dyspnea.
Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for:
A. a cardiac arrhythmia.
B. congestive heart failure.
C. right ventricular failure.
D. significant hypotension.
The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they:
A. cannot afford it.
B. are in denial.
C. are elderly.
D. do not trust EMTs.
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:
A. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
B. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.
C. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest.
D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?
A. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%
B. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia
D. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety
Asthma is caused by a response of the:
A. cardiovascular system.
B. respiratory system.
C. immune system.
D. endocrine system.
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.
A. hypoxic drive
B. CO2 drive
C. alternate drive
D. COPD drive
His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
B. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
C. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
D. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D. influenza Type A.
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
C. an antihistamine.
D. a beta-antagonist.
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?
A. Celiac sprue
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
D. Cystic fibrosis
While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Acute asthma attack
B. Widespread atelectasis
C. Early pulmonary edema
D. Aspiration pneumonia
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
A. Severe anxiety
B. Pleural effusion
C. Narcotic overdose
D. Pulmonary edema
Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.
A. narrowing of the upper airways
B. severe bronchoconstriction
C. mucus in the larger airways
D. air passing through fluid
You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:
A. inflammation of the bronchioles.
B. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.
C. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
A. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
C. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
A. diminished breath sounds.
B. normal breath sounds.
C. abnormal breath sounds.
D. an absence of breath sounds.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Rupture of the diaphragm
C. Acute pulmonary embolism
D. Exacerbation of his COPD
"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.
A. cardiac patients
B. seizure patients
C. stroke patients
D. respiratory patients
Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?
A. Distal pulse, motor, sensation
B. Lung sounds
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Orthostatic vital signs
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:
A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:
A. have chronic hypertension.
B. are older than 40 years of age.
C. have had a stroke in the past.
D. regularly take illegal drugs.
A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:
A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.
D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:
A. dry the chest if it is wet.
B. contact medical control.
C. perform CPR for 30 seconds.
D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:
A. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
B. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.
D. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
A. Dependent edema
B. Flat jugular veins
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Labored breathing
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?
A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. Obstructive lung disease
D. Uncontrolled hypertension
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
A. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
C. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.
D. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:
A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.
B. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.
C. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.
D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:
B. family history.
C. lack of exercise.
D. excess stress.
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
A. bundle of His.
B. atrioventricular node.
C. sinoatrial node.
D. coronary sinus.
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed:
A. on either side of the chest.
B. on the lower abdomen.
C. on the thighs or ankles.
D. anywhere on the arms.
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:
A. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
B. with a history of an ischemic stroke.
C. who have experienced a head injury.
D. who have taken up to two doses.
A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:
A. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.
B. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.
C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
D. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.
Angina pectoris occurs when:
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
B. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
A. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min
B. Generalized weakness
C. Syncope or dizziness
D. A rapid heart rate
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
D. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
A. left atrium.
B. left ventricle.
C. right ventricle.
D. right atrium.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:
A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
B. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
C. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:
A. assess for a carotid pulse.
B. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.
C. immediately resume CPR.
D. transport the patient at once.
A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:
A. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
B. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
C. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
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