Pharm Exam Three
Terms in this set (200)
Identify a function of the pons.
It serves as a relay station for nerve fibers traveling to other brain areas.
The two types of medications that are most often used for people who have emotional or behavioral problems are:
antianxiety drugs and antidepressants
The pituitary gland is attached to the _____.
Which of the following structures does the diencephalon include?
Degeneration of the neurons in the basal ganglia leads to _____.
Which of the following statements is true of the central nervous system (CNS)?
The primary functions of the CNS are to coordinate and control the activity of other body systems.
Alex hears a loud explosion outside his window. He immediately stands up and becomes more alert and attentive to his surroundings. Which part of Alex's brain has most likely been activated by the sudden explosion?
The reticular activating system
Which part of a person's brain is activated when he or she is choking on a piece of steak?
The two main components of the central nervous system are:
the brain and the spinal cord.
The _____ is referred to as the master gland of the body.
Alison is rushed to the hospital after suffering a serious head injury in a car accident. Dr. Jacob takes a few specialized scans of Alison's head to locate the site of injury in her brain. All the scans indicate damage to the temporal lobe of the brain. Alison's parents ask Dr. Jacob if Alison's functions will be impaired as a result of this brain injury. What is Dr. Jacob most likely to say?
Alison may lose her memory.
The _____ is the only part of the brain that is under conscious control.
Which of the following statements is true of the basal ganglia?
The basal ganglia help regulate skeletal muscle activity.
All of the following types of nerve impulses are carried by the axons of afferent neurons except:
nerve impulse for directing organ activity.
Which area of the cerebral cortex has most likely been affected in a person who has developed speech problems as a result of a head injury?
The frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex
Esma suffered a serious head injury in a car crash about three months ago. Since the accident, Esma has had trouble learning and remembering new things and problems with hearing. Which of the following parts of her cerebrum has most likely suffered damage?
The temporal lobe
Which of the following statements is true of the thalamus?
The thalamus receives and evaluates almost all of the sensory nerve impulses from peripheral sensory receptors.
The axons of efferent neurons transmit nerve impulses carrying information associated with all of the following except:
Henry, a college student, tends to drink a lot of coffee the night before an exam. The coffee helps him stay more alert and attentive late into the night. The presence of caffeine in the coffee stimulates the _____ of his brain.
Coordinating body movements and posture and helping maintain body equilibrium are the major functions of the _____.
Select the therapy of choice for patients suffering from insomnia that is complicated with anxiety or stressful situations.
In which of the following patients is the use of barbiturates contraindicated?
Raphael, a 30-year-old man, who has acute intermittent porphyria
Kendall is on a week's course of a medication for a sleep disorder. After completing the course, she immediately discontinues its use. For the next few days, Kendall keeps having nightmares and is unable to sleep. She also feels very restless and anxious. Identify the medication that Kendall was most probably taking.
Select the correct indication of use for zaleplon (Sonata).
Zaleplon is used in individuals who have difficulty falling asleep, but it does not increase total sleep time.
Select the adverse effect associated with the use of barbiturates.
Drowsiness, Lethargy, Lack of coordination
Use critical thinking skills to determine a major difference between flurazepam and temazepam.
Flurazepam is a long-acting hypnotic that forms several active metabolites, while temazepam is an intermediate-acting hypnotic that does not form any important active metabolites.
Identify the main characteristic of the REM stage of the sleep cycle.
Periods of rapid eye movement, Dreaming, Increased autonomic system activity
Select the drug class that has a decreased pharmacological effect as a result of the concurrent use of barbiturates.
Flurazepam (Dalmane) is classified as a long-acting benzodiazepine. The antianxiety effects of flurazepam are usually evident the day after taking the flurazepam dose. Select the precaution that you will emphasize to a patient when you give him the prescription the doctor has written.
Avoid hazardous activities, Do not take other antianxiety agents at the same time, Do not drink alcohol while taking flurazepam.
Identify the possible cause of nausea, vomiting, and headache that an alcoholic patient is experiencing while taking disulfiram.
Acetaldehyde is accumulating in the blood, causing these symptoms to occur, The patient may be drinking alcoholic beverages while taking disulfiram, The patient may be using OTC products that contain alcohol while taking disulfiram.
A patient informs you that she has been taking more phenobarbital than the doctor prescribed because the amount that he prescribed was not helping her sleep. She also says that when she does not take the drug, she becomes very anxious, has tremors, and feels like she is being watched. Using your knowledge of sedative-hypnotic drugs, explain to this patient that she has developed a physical dependency on phenobarbital.
The anxiety, tremors, and paranoid behavior are signs of withdrawal which occurs when a patient has taken larger than therapeutic dosages for more than 1 to 2 months.
Use your critical-thinking skills to determine a pharmacokinetic effect of barbiturates as a result of enzyme induction.
Enzyme induction leads to faster metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
Explain the effects of barbiturates on the sleep cycle when used as hypnotics.
Barbiturates increase stage 2 sleep, decrease stages 3 and 4 sleep, and suppress REM sleep.
Select the stage of the sleep cycle that corresponds with the ability to dream.
Steve has a sleep disorder and is prescribed pentobarbital for two weeks. After the first week, Steve notices that the medication has a diluted effect, and he is unable to feel the same hypnotic effects of the drug as he did during the first week. This effect is termed _____.
Which of the following products is indicated for patients who have difficulty falling asleep but not staying asleep?
Select the group that contains hypnotic drugs listed in order of increasing duration of action.
Zaleplon, estazolam, flurazepam
Select the contributing factor that leads to physical dependency while taking barbiturates.
Greater therapeutic dosages taken on a regular basis for more than 1 to 2 months
An elderly patient requests that the physician prescribe her chloral hydrate in place of zaleplon or zolpidem. You research the drug and find that chloral hydrate is an old drug related to alcohol that is still being used today, primarily in the elderly. The usual dosage range is 500-1000 mg. The patient states that she has difficulty in swallowing tablets because they stick to her tongue. Select the dosage form of chloral hydrate that is commercially available and could be prescribed for this patient.
Rectal suppositories, Syrup, Capsules
Eszopiclone (Lunesta) is a hypnotic agent with a rapid onset of action, intermediate duration of action, and a half-life of 6 hours. Using half-life, at approximately what time would a dose administered to a patient at 8 a.m. be reduced to 50 percent?
Long-term use of phenothiazine antipsychotics is most likely to result in _____.
Identify an accurate statement about thiothixene.
Thiothixene generally causes less sedation than chlorpromazine.
Identify a difference between "typical" antipsychotic drugs and "atypical" antipsychotic drugs.
"Typical" antipsychotic drugs primarily block D2 receptors, whereas "atypical" antipsychotic drugs primarily block 5HT2A receptors.
The _____ is involved with emotional and behavioral responses associated with reward, punishment, anger, fear, and anxiety.
How does anxiety affect the human body?
It triggers the hyperarousal of the cerebral cortex.
Which of the following atypical antipsychotic drugs cause significant anticholinergic, alpha-adrenergic blocking, or antihistaminic actions as side effects?
The night before an exam, Mary feels a surge of panic. Her heart rate increases and she begins to sweat. The stress of writing the paper the next day makes her feel nauseous. These physiological changes that Mary is experiencing are caused by the:
activation of the sympathetic system
The beneficial side effects of phenothiazine antipsychotics allow them to be used for the treatment of _____.
nausea and vomiting
Alex has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her doctor, Dr. Paris, prescribes her with a phenothiazine antipsychotic. After several weeks, Alex begins to experience the antipsychotic effects of the drug. How else is Alex going to be affected by the drug?
She will demonstrate less behavioral activation
One of the main causes of psychosis is _____.
Which type of atypical antipsychotic is available in special formulations for difficult patients needing immediate treatment from a psychotic episode?
Identify a difference between butyrophenones and phenothiazines.
Butyrophenones produce a higher incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms than phenothiazines.
David, a patient with schizophrenia, has been undergoing antipsychotic treatment for many years now. He stops taking his regular dose of phenothiazine when he discovers that he no longer has the funds to cover the expenses for his treatment. As soon as he stops his medication, he starts experiencing a new range of symptoms such as involuntary movements of his lips, jaw, tongue, and extremities. Worried about the onset of these new symptoms, David's mother consults David's doctor, Dr. Richards, about David's mental health. Dr. Richards examines David and informs David's mother that these new symptoms can be suppressed by reinstituting phenothiazine. From which condition is David most likely suffering?
Which of the following is not a method of treating parkinsonism which may develop from the continued use of a phenothiazine?
Administering a dopamine agonist
Atypical antipsychotics differ from the other classes of antipsychotics because they:
reduce the activity of serotonin more than they reduce the activity of dopamine.
One of the main characteristics of phenothiazine antipsychotics is their ability to:
block dopamine D2 receptors to a greater degree than serotonin 5HT2A receptors
The adverse effects of phenothiazine antipsychotics arise due to the:
blocking of cholinergic and histamine receptors
People who develop neurological conditions such as akathisia and parkinsonism as adverse reactions to phenothiazine drugs can be treated by:
administering centrally acting anticholinergic drugs.
Identify a difference between the drugs thiothixene and chlorpromazine.
Thiothixene generally causes less sedation than chlorpromazine does.
Which of the following statements is true of butyrophenones?
The butyrophenones differ chemically from phenothiazines but produce the same type of antipsychotic effects.
A patient has been taking amitriptyline for 5 to 6 days, but she is still experiencing the feelings of depression. She wants the doctor to change her medication because she feels that the drug is not working. After doing research on amitriptyline, you tell the patient that:
amitriptyline is working, but the full antidepressant effect can take as long as 2 to 4 weeks to develop.
Identify the common symptoms associated with a patient suffering from mania.
The patient shows signs of hyperactivity, The patient is very talkative, The patient exhibits unrealistic thoughts.
One of your patients is undergoing MAO inhibitor therapy. You have been asked to explain to the patient the dietary restrictions concerning tyramine. The patient does not know what foods should be avoided. You list the foods to avoid as:
beer, wine, herring, and certain cheeses.
Describe the type of disorder that responds to lithium treatment.
- Disorders characterized by alternating cycles of depression and mania
- Disorders characterized by hyperactivity and excessive elevation of mood
- Disorders characterized by wide shifts in mood
Identify the type of depression that originates from within an individual and may not be linked to easily identifiable causes.
Major depressive disorder
Tricyclics interfere with antihistamine and anticholinergic drug agents resulting in _____.
dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision
Identify the statement that best explains bipolar mood disorder.
It is a disorder consisting of alternating periods of depression and mania.
Jamie, a 50-year-old man, is prescribed fluvoxamine to treat his obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Fluvoxamine is available as a 100-mg scored tablets. Jamie takes half a tablet each day. After two days, Jamie begins experiencing symptoms of sedation such as drowsiness. What is the most likely explanation for this occurrence?
One of the effects of fluvoxamine on the central nervous system is sedation.
Which of the following is a difference between mania and depression?
- Depression is a mental state characterized by feelings of hopelessness, frustration, and depressed mood, whereas mania is characterized by excitement, hyperactivity, and elevated mood.
- Depression is treated with SSRIs, whereas mania is treated with lithium.
- Depression is associated with low levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin, while high levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin are involved in mania.
Martina is prescribed isocarboxazid to treat mental depression. Which of the following foods can be included in Martina's diet?
Select the statement that is not consistent with the mechanism of action or adverse effect profiles of the atypical SSRIs nefazodone (generic) and trazodone (Desyrel).
Nefazodone and trazodone are prescribed for patients who are trying to quit smoking.
Due to their alpha-blocking, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic effects, tricyclic antidepressants are contraindicated in patients suffering from:
glaucoma and prostatic hypertrophy.
Which of the following is true of SSRIs?
SSRIs increase the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, resulting in increased stimulation of serotonin receptors.
Analyze the different FDA pregnancy categories and determine the appropriate category for lithium.
Pregnancy Category D
Which of the following pairs of drugs is approved for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder, where mood disturbances occur in relation to the menstrual cycle?
Fluoxetine and sertraline
Identify the mechanism through which lithium decreases nerve conduction.
Lithium interferes with nerve conduction, resulting in a decrease in the excitability of nerve tissue.
Explain the pharmacologic actions of bupropion (Wellbutrin).
- Bupropion increases the release of norepinephrine and dopamine.
- Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine.
- Bupropion has minimal effects to inhibit the reuptake of serotonin.
Kevin, a 12-year-old boy, grew up with his pet dog, Sparky, who was almost the same age as Kevin. Age-related health complications caused Sparky?s death, following which Kevin was distraught. He was depressed for more than a week and refused to go to school. The type of depression affecting Kevin is termed _____.
Which of the following is true of the use of psychomotor stimulants in the treatment of narcolepsy and hyperactivity?
Amphetamines have the disadvantage of producing drug tolerance and dependence.
Identify a difference between secondary amines and tertiary amines.
- Tertiary amines contain three amine substitutions on the nitrogen, whereas secondary amines contain two amine substitutions on the nitrogen.
- Secondary amines mainly increase brain levels of norepinephrine more than serotonin, while the tertiary amines increase brain levels of serotonin more than epinephrine.
- Tertiary amines produce more sedation than do the secondary amines.
A drug abuser experiences a psychotomimetic flashback experience after using marijuana. What other drug was probably abused by the user in the past?
Lysergic acid diethylamide
Which of the following symptoms will a person who is under the influence of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) most likely experience?
Which of the following symptoms is a person under the influence of amphetamines most likely to experience?
What physical characteristics would you expect to see in a person who habitually smokes marijuana?
Red eyes and increased heart rate
Select an accurate statement about phencyclidine.
Phencyclidine produces its effects through the antagonism of glutamate receptors that normally regulate certain ion channels.
Phencyclidine produces its psychotomimetic effects by blocking the _____ receptor.
Which of the following is not one of the procedures used in the treatment of amphetamine intoxication?
Administering an anticholinergic
Which of the following statements is true of phencyclidine?
Phencyclidine dependency appears to be predominantly psychological rather than physical.
Which of the following statements is true of marijuana?
Marijuana increases the activity of the mesolimbic dopamine system.
Alex takes a large dose of LSD. In an hour's time, his sensory perceptions become distorted, and he begins to experience true hallucinations. Alex begins to believe that everything he sees and feels is real. Alex is experiencing the dose-related effects of the _____ phase.
Within which group of commonly abused drugs does cross-tolerance exist?
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Which of the following is among the least potent of the hallucinogenic drugs?
John is addicted to amphetamines. What will he experience when he discontinues using the drugs?
He will enter a phase of deep sleep and will awaken with a strong desire to continue taking the drug.
_____ is an endogenous substance in the brain that is thought to bind to the cannabinoid receptors.
Marijuana resin is extracted from the plant _____.
Identify a true statement about marijuana.
The most common route of administration of marijuana is smoking.
Identify the most potent hallucinogenic drug from the following.
Lysergic acid diethylamide
What effect do amphetamines have on the human body?
They increase the amounts of norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine (DA) within the brain.
A drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug _____.
Identify an accurate statement about the drug lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).
LSD has a high therapeutic index.
Identify an accurate statement about complex partial seizures.
They can become tonic-clonic and involve the entire body.
When analyzing an EEG, a medical professional can determine that the patient has had a petit mal seizure by focusing attention on a(n):
upward electrical spike wave of approximately 3 seconds.
Select the statement that is consistent with the mechanism of action of phenytoin (Dilantin) that helps decrease the occurrence of a seizure.
Phenytoin prolongs the inactivation period of sodium (Na+) channels in the nerve membrane, leading to a reduction in the generation of high-frequency repetitive firing of action potentials from neurons involved in initiating seizures.
Which of the following drugs is rarely prescribed because of the high incidence of adverse effects?
Identify the parameters used when deciding to treat a patient with lacosamide (Vimpat).
Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 years or older.
Which of the following drugs inhibits microsomal enzymes and increases the effects of drugs requiring microsomal metabolism?
When required to arrest status epilepticus, the administration of diazepam or lorazepam is ideally followed by the administration of _____.
phenytoin or fosphenytoin
A series of generalized seizures, particularly tonic-clonic, without cessation is referred to as _____.
Identify the most common adverse effects of phenytoin (Dilantin).
Dizziness and ataxia, Visual disturbances and postural imbalance, Skin rashes, hirsutism, and gingival hyperplasia
Determine the recommended drug for status epilepticus that can be administered by IV or IM
Clonazepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam
What is the primary mechanism of action of carbamazepine, phenytoin, and valproic acid?
Delaying the inactivation of the Na+ channels
Identify the type of seizure that does not involve motor convulsions.
Carla is affected by generalized seizures. Recently, she had a seizure during which she fell and hurt her head. This was the third occurrence of her falling and hurting herself during a seizure. From this evidence, the most likely conclusion is that Carla is prone to _____.
Ramona and Michael bring in their 3-month-old child, Darla, with a complaint of partial seizures. Which of the following drugs should ideally be prescribed for Darla?
Describe the signs to look for to determine that a person has experienced a grand mal seizure.
- Confusion, fatigue, and muscle soreness usually follow the seizure.
- Increases in blood pressure and heart rate, urination, and defecation are common.
- Periods of alternating muscle contractions and relaxation, resembling a jerking motion, are present.
Which of the following is an adverse effect of valproic acid?
Fatal liver toxicity
William, an 80-year-old epileptic patient, is being treated for absence seizures. When left alone, William often forgets to take his medicine in time or consumes more than the required dosage. To prevent this, William's medicine intake is monitored by his son who has a regular day job. Which of the following drugs would be the most convenient to use?
Identify the drug that is effective in treating a patient with absence seizures.
Why do some drug agents such as phenytoin (Dilantin) and valproic acid (Depakene) produce greater pharmacologic effects when administered with drugs that are highly plasma protein bound?
Phenytoin (Dilantin) and valproic acid (Depakene) are also highly plasma protein bound that leads to an increase in the free drug concentration and causes greater pharmacologic effect.
What is the primary mechanism of action of tiagabine in the treatment of partial seizures?
Blockade of the neuronal reuptake of the inhibitory transmitter GABA back into its nerve endings
If a patient undergoing drug therapy for Parkinson's disease is mobile one minute and immobile the next, he or she is probably experiencing:
the on-off phenomenon.
Which of the following is not an advantage of dopamine receptor agonists over levodopa?
It is more effective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
Antipsychotic medications may decrease the effectiveness of levodopa because they block:
Identify a symptom of Parkinson's disease.
The use of which medication for Parkinson's disease is associated with livedo reticularis?
Which of the following statements is true about administering levodopa in combination with carbidopa?
The addition of carbidopa allows the dosage of levodopa to be reduced.
The drug carbidopa enhances the action of the drug levodopa by:
inhibiting the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the periphery.
Anya has just been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. As the disease has been diagnosed late and the symptoms are severe, Dr. Potter prescribes the drug levodopa for treatment. Which of the following instructions is Dr. Potter most likely to give Anya about using the drug?
Take the drug on an empty stomach.
Which of the following statements is true of the drug Amantadine?
Amantadine often becomes ineffective after a few months of treatment.
_____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released by neurons from the corpus striatum.
For best results, levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach:
to prevent amino acids in foodstuffs from interfering with the transport of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier.
Stalevo is a triple combination medication containing all of the following except:
The adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs include all of the following except:
Why is the use of Levodopa delayed in the treatment of the early stages of Parkinson's disease?
To delay the onset of movement disorders that occur with levadopa over time
Alex is suffering from Parkinson's disease and is undergoing drug therapy. In spite of taking his medications regularly, Alex has started experiencing alternating periods of mobility and immobility. When he informs his doctor of these episodes, his doctor tells him that he's experiencing a phenomenon that is known as the "on-off phenomenon." What will Alex's doctor instruct him to do?
He will tell Alex to take smaller doses of the drug at more frequent intervals.
The main cause of Parkinson's disease is the accelerated loss of:
A combination of levodopa and carbidopa is available under the trade name _____.
Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of anticholinergic drugs?
Well-controlled body movements depend on a balance between the neurotransmitters _____.
acetylcholine and dopamine
A reduction in tremors and muscular rigidity can be directly accomplished with the administration of:
an anticholinergic drug.
Which of the following anesthetics increases blood pressure?
Identify the anesthetic agent that can be used for induction, maintenance, and MAC that produces very little respiratory and cardiovascular depression and increases blood pressure.
Which of the following statements is true of the effect of benzodiazepines and barbiturates?
- They produce a dose-dependent respiratory depression.
- They decrease respiratory rate and tidal volume.
- They may lead to a fatality that is secondary to respiratory depression when the patient overdoses.
A doctor is scheduled to perform an endoscopic procedure on a child. The anesthetic should have a rapid onset of action as the child is agitated. Which of the following anesthetics is the best choice in this scenario?
Describe the objective of using anesthesia during surgical procedures.
Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage III
The use of droperidol as a tranquilizer sedative has declined due to its association with _____.
Select the primary reason why the use of ketamine would be contraindicated in patients with a history of hypertension.
Ketamine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to elevated blood pressure and heart rate during the anesthesia.
_____ can be safely used in asthmatic patients.
_____ is the most pungent, strong airway irritant in conscious patients.
Explain the mechanism of action of flumazenil.
Flumazenil competitively inhibits the activity at the benzodiazepine recognition site on the GABA receptor.
Air must be included in the anesthetic mixture when inhalation anesthetics are used to ensure that patients do not develop _____.
Select the statement that best explains the reason why propofol is the preferred agent for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia.
Propofol does not lead to the development of nausea and vomiting, nor does it accumulate in the tissues.
Select the true statement related to the use of the available inhaled anesthetics.
Nitrous oxide is not potent enough to maintain Stage III, Plane 3 anesthesia.
Which of the following patients are most likely to be at risk if administered with inhalation general anesthetics?
A patient who has increased intracranial pressure due to cerebral edema
Identify the part of the brain that influences mood, motivation, and the ability to perceive pain.
Which of the following anesthetics has an antiemetic effect on the patient?
Which of the following statements is true of the use of droperidol?
It is not administered to patients predisposed to developing cardiac arrhythmia
Saul is an anesthesiologist who is required to choose an inhalation anesthetic. The anesthetic must not have an irritating effect on the respiratory system of the patient. Saul decides to use sevoflurane. Which of the following statements explains the reason for his choice?
The patient's mucus secretions are to be suppressed during the surgical procedure.
Which of the following statements best explains the difference between induction of general anesthesia and maintenance of general anesthesia?
Induction of general anesthesia is the time required to take a patient from consciousness to Stage III of anesthesia, whereas maintenance of general anesthesia is the ability to keep a patient safely in Stage III of anesthesia.
Francisca, an anesthesiologist, is assisting with a surgical procedure. The drug she chooses should induce anesthesia quickly and allow the patient to recover quickly. Francisca decides to use methohexital. Which of the following statements, if true, supports Francisca's choice?
The patient is undergoing neurosurgery.
Pablo is prescribed an opioid analgesic for severe postoperative pain. He takes the drug for a few days but stops when he starts vomiting and feeling nauseous. He informs his doctor of these side effects and asks her for a way to suppress them. Pablo also tells her that these symptoms increase while standing or moving. Doing which of the following can potentially help reduce these symptoms?
Taking a higher dosage of the drug
Identify a true statement about opioid antitussives.
Opioid antitussives have a direct inhibiting effect on the coughing center in the medulla.
Which of the following is true of Mu1 receptors?
Mu1 receptors interpret pain.
Oral formulations of opioid drugs should never be chewed because:
chewing could achieve a higher blood level than expected with an increase in side effects.
Identify an accurate statement about opioid analgesics.
Opioid analgesics selectively act within the central nervous system (CNS) to reduce the reaction to pain.
Identify an accurate statement about nociceptors.
Nociceptors respond to tissue injury and painful stimuli.
Who among the following should be the most cautious when using an opioid drug?
Carrie, who has asthma
In the context of opioids, identify an advantage of parenteral administration over oral administration.
Poor absorption in the acidic environment of the stomach
Which of the following classes of opioid receptors in the central nervous system (CNS) is responsible for respiratory depression?
A peripheral neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting information about tissue injuries at peripheral receptors to the central nervous system (CNS) is:
Opioid antagonists should not be given to an opioid addict because:
withdrawal symptoms will occur.
Constipation is a side effect of opioid use caused by the:
spasmogenic activity of opioids on smooth muscle and mu2 receptors in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
A common sign of opioid toxicity is _____.
Two naturally occurring opiates derived from the poppy plant are:
morphine and codeine.
At therapeutic doses, opioid analgesics:
do not cause a loss of consciousness.
Alex has developed a severe cough. He visits Dr. Harrison's clinic for a checkup. After a thorough examination, Dr. Harrison instructs him to take a certain opioid drug for its good antitussive activity. Which of the following drugs has Dr. Harrison most likely prescribed?
Pain resulting from abnormal signals or nerves damaged by entrapment, amputation, or diabetes is known as _____.
The inadequate control of pain can lead to:
_____ is the prototype or standard opioid analgesic.
Which of the following drugs is not made from the natural opiates but is a synthetic chemical that behaves like the opiates?
Select the correct dose of acetaminophen for a 3-year-old girl weighing 32 pounds.
160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
Which of the following statements is true of acetaminophen?
Acetaminophen is recommended for use in patients who experience GI upset from aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Which of following is recommended by the FDA to be used as a black box warning for OTC products that contain a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?
- Every OTC product containing an NSAID will have to include a bolded warning advising consumers about the potential risks for "severe stomach bleeding," especially in people who are aged 60 years or older or have had stomach ulcers or bleeding problems.
- Every OTC product containing an NSAID will have to include a bolded warning advising consumers about the potential risks for "severe stomach bleeding," especially in people who take a blood thinning or steroid drug or take other drugs containing prescription or nonprescription NSAIDs.
- Every OTC product containing an NSAID will have to include a bolded warning advising consumers about the potential risks for "severe stomach bleeding," especially in people who have three or more alcoholic drinks a day while using the product or take more of the product than directed.
Identify a true statement about petechia.
Petechia is a small area of the skin or mucous membranes that is discolored because of localized hemorrhages.
Which of the following drugs irreversibly inhibits the aggregation of platelets necessary for blood clot formation?
Why is acetaminophen effective in the treatment of headaches but not in the treatment of muscle aches and inflammation?
Acetaminophen is effective against the pain of headache because it inhibits prostaglandin synthesis within the CNS but does not significantly inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins in peripheral systems, which accounts for the lack of anti-inflammatory activity.
What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol (Zyloprim) in preventing the formation of uric acid in the body?
Allopurinol is a noncompetitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, so uric acid formation is blocked.
Identify the physiological signs that indicate the presence of inflammation.
- Swelling and redness
- Pain and warmth
- Loss of function
Identify the correct dose of acetaminophen for a 5-year-old boy weighing 45 pounds.
240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
Penny has a headache, so she takes a 250-mg tablet of aspirin to alleviate the pain. After a while, she begins to feel nauseous. What is the reason for this occurrence?
Aspirin is known to irritate the stomach mucosal lining.
Identify the chemical that stimulates peripheral nerve endings and helps carry pain impulses to the CNS.
Which of the following NSAIDs causes ulcers more frequently than the others?
Identify a true statement about megaloblastic anemia.
Megaloblastic anemia is a condition in which there is a large, immature form of the red blood cell, which does not function as efficiently as the mature form.
Select a correct statement about the uricosuric drug probenecid.
Probenecid causes GI disturbances, so it is recommended that it be taken with milk, meals, or antacids.
Why should patients taking warfarin (Coumadin) limit their intake of acetaminophen to the lowest effective dose for short-term therapy only?
Acetaminophen has been reported to increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Unlike COX-1, COX-2 is only manufactured in _____.
According to the guidelines of the American Geriatric Society issued in 2009, which of the following statements is true about the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in elderly patients?
Elderly patients with moderate-to-severe pain or diminished quality of life due to pain should be considered for opioid treatment rather than NSAIDs.
Identify the physical ramifications of the excessive use of acetaminophen.
The excessive use of acetaminophen causes metabolites of the drug to bind to tissue groups in the kidney and liver, causing hepatotoxicity.
Which of the following statements about COX-2 inhibitors is true?
Selective COX-2 inhibitors do not have the antithrombotic (clot prevention) protective action of aspirin and other COX-1 inhibitors because platelets are predominately a COX-1 pathway.
_____ is involved in the production of erythema (abnormal redness), edema, and pain that accompany the inflammatory process.