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Surgical Tech Certification Questions

Surgical technology certification practice questions.
Mask should?
1.) Mask should never be untied and allowed to hang down.
2.) Masks should only be handled by the strings.
3.) Masks should always be changed between procedures.
4.) Masks should not only cover the mouth.
The prefix that means above or upon is:
What classification is a Bake surgical instrument?
The microorganism that is the cause of myonecrosis in the surgical patient is..?
Clostridium perfringens
Which instrument is the best choice for grasping bowel tissue?
babcock clamp
The humidity in the O.R. is maintained between?
Self gowning?
1.) Folded gown is grabbed in neck area
2.) Bottom of unfolded gown can touch the floor
3.) Circulator aids in turning the gown
The prefix that means within is:
Microbes that prefer an alkaline enviroment are referred to as:
A severe fracture of the tibial plateau is treated by using:
Buttress plates
What type of catheter is used to monitor the central venous pressure?
Which of the following implants can be used to treat a lateral malleolar fracture?
Rusch rod
A tube placed in the incision made into the tympanic membrane during a myringotomy is a/an:
PE tube
How much sterile water should be injected into the 5-cc balloon of a Foley catheter?
10 cc
An item used to wrap an extremity prior to casting and clings to itself is:
What type of catheter is used for the infusion of dialysis fluid into the peritoneal cavity?
What skin cleansing agent has an effective cumulative bacterial suppressive action?
What personal protective equipment should be worn underneath the sterile gown to provide radiation from X-rays?
lead gown
The following statements are true except:
a.) Back of wrap-around gown is sterile
b.) Gowns are sterile from the nipple line to the waist
c.) Axillary region of a gown is considered unsterile
d.) Cuffs of a gown are considered unsterile
Back of wrap-around gown is sterile
When performing the surgical scrub, the arms should be scrubed?
2" above the elbow
All of the following statements are true except:
a.) Emancipated minor can sign the consent
b.) Illiterate patient marks consent with an X
c.) Consent not essential in life-threatening emergency
d.) Patient can sign consent after preoperative medications have been administered
Patient can sign consent after preoperative medications have been administered
The suffix meaning blood condition is:
What is the most commonly transmitted pathogen in the operating room?
Staphylococcus aureus
A virus that invades a bacterial cell is called a/an?
Administering a drug within a joint is called a ____ injection.
The word root meaning gland is:
Interferons act by:
Interrupting replication of DNA in viruses
AIDS is considered:
The smallest microorganisms are:
The plicae circulares, microvilli and villi:
Increase absorption area. The microvilli, villi, and the
plicae circulares increase the surface area for absorption and digestion in the small intestine.
Which device could be used when placing a patient in
the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
• A. Shoulder roll
• B. Chest roll
• C. Bean bag
• D. Axillary roll
A.) Shoulder roll. A shoulder roll can be used to slightly hyperextend the region to facilitate making the incision and exposing the thyroid.
an abnormal growth of bone near the middle ear.
Otitis media?
the medical term for middle ear infection
the medical term for accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass that is destructive to the middle ear.
a benign mesenchymoma(a mixed mesenchymal tumor composed of two or more cellular elements not commonly associated, exclusive of fibrous tissue.) with cartilaginous and lipomatous(a benign tumor composed of adipose tissue (body fat))
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens to
accommodate vision?
The ciliary muscle alters the shape of the lens to accommodate near or far vision.
What type of procedure is performed to correct
panfacial fractures?
Le Fort II and III are performed to correct panfacial fractures.
A colposcopy may be performed for what condition?
Cervical carcinoma(a malignant neoplasm arising from cells originating in the cervix uteri) A colposcopy is performed to evaluate patients whose Pap smear results are abnormal.
The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated
blood is the:
pulmonary artery
Which intravenous drug would be used to reduce
intracranial pressure during a craniotomy?
Sterile water is used for irrigation during a
mastectomy, because it is categorized as which of
the following?
• A. Hypotonic
• B. Hypertonic
• C. Isometric
• D. Isotonic
Hypotonic solution causes cells to burst due to the excessive intake of water by the cell.
Which of the following types of needles would be
used for repair of the liver?
Blunt needles have a round shaft that has a blunt tip used for repair of the kidney and liver.
What is the main element of hemoglobin?
Which of the following is commonly used in the
treatment of retinal detachment?
• A. Electrosurgical unit
• B. Cryotherapy unit
• C. CO2 laser
• D. Cell saver
Cryotherapy unit is used to seal tears and holes for the treatment of retinal detachment.
lack of control of urination
Removal of an entire eyeball
the removal of the contents of the eye,leaving the shrunken remnants of the eye.
Which mode of the electrosurgical unit does not
require use of a patient return electrode?
The bipolar units do not require a grounding pad because the inactive dispersive electrode is built into one of the tips of the forceps.
The nerve that is at greatest risk for injury during a
thyroidectomy is the:
The recurrent laryngeal nerve must be identified and kept from injury in order to avoid the patient suffering from temporary or permanent hoarseness or loss of the voice.
What disease is caused by a
Pneumonia is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
In which surgical procedure would Glisson's capsule
be encountered?
Glisson's capsule is the external covering of the liver and is made of dense connective tissue and would be encountered during a hepatic lobectomy(the removal of a lobe of the liver).
What is another term for intractable pain due to
irritation of the fifth cranial nerve?
Trigeminal neuralgia is the result of irritation and compression of the fifth cranial nerve that can result in severe chronic, intractable pain.
Which instrument would be used during a
Oscillating saw.During a dacryocystorhinostomy, the ostium is created using one of the following: punches, small oscillating saw or a powered burr.
What is the name of the elastic rolled bandage
designed to exsanguinate an extremity before a
tourniquet cuff is inflated?
An Esmarch bandage is used to facilitate the drainage of blood from an extremity before the tourniquet is inflated.
Cephalosporins are what classification of drug?
Cephalothin sodium (Keflin) is an antibiotic.
When two chest tubes are inserted into the pleural
cavity after an open cardiovascular procedure, what
does the superior tube evacuate?
When two chest tubes are inserted, the upper tube is used to evacuate air, and the lower tube evacuates fluids.
Polyglycolic acid suture falls into which classification?
synthetic absorbable
A patient with pain during mastication might require
surgical decompression of which cranial nerve?
V. The trigeminal mandibular (V3) cranial nerve carries motor fibers to the tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain.
How would the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention classify a disease that is constantly
present in a community?
The organ that is divided into head, neck, body and
tail which lies posterior to the stomach is the:
Third-degree burn tissue with a charred and pearly white appearance is called:
Insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump is done to
treat patients with a/an:
Left ventricular failure. When a patient has left ventricular failure, an intraaortic balloon pump is inserted to provide circulatory support.
What procedure involves the excision of lymphoid
tissue superior to the soft palate to facilitate
Adenoidectomy. An adenoidectomy is the removal of the lymphoid adenoids located at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to ease breathing and prevent recurrent attacks of otitis media.
What is an indication for a total hip
Osteoarthritis. Patients with osteoarthritis, a type of degenerative joint disease, benefit from total hip arthroplasty.
What procedure do burr holes provide adequate exposure?
Subdural hematoma. Burr holes are placed in order to aspirate an abscess, introduce air into the lateral ventricles for ventriculography, or place a shunt.
The venous sinus at the junction of the sclera and
cornea is the:
Canal of Schlemm
The area of the bladder that is formed by the two
ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice is known as
Trigone. A small triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is the trigone.
Which of the following defines enuresis?
What cardiac drug increases myocardial contractility?
Calcium chloride.
What specimen would not
be placed in a preservative solution?
Calculi. Any type of stones, renal or gallbladder, should be sent dry to pathology. Preservative solutions destroy the stones, making it impossible for pathological examination.
Which procedure can be performed to repair a
bucket-handle tear?
Meniscectomy.If a tear cannot be repaired by the placement of sutures, a meniscectomy is performed to remove the injured portion of the bucket-handle tear in the meniscus.
The prostate gland secretes:
Alkaline fluid. The prostate gland secretes an acidic liquid that contains citric acid, calcium and enzymes.
Which of the following terms describes abnormal
excessive development of the male breast?
What incision divides the linea
Vertical midline.
Dupuytren's disease is characterized by contraction
of the:
Palmar fascia
The structure anterior to the esophagus and
extending from the larynx to T-5 is the:
Trachea. The trachea is located anterior to the esophagus and extends from the larynx to the fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is a tubular passageway for air.
Which preoperative drug is delivered transdermally to
prevent postoperative nausea?
To prevent cross-contamination, masks should only
be removed by the:
Strings. To prevent crosscontamination, masks should be handled by the strings only, changed after every case, and promptly discarded in the proper receptacle.
What is one of four defects involved
in tetralogy of Fallot?
Right ventricular hypertrophy, an aorta that overrides the ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis and ventricular septal defect are the four defects that are involved with tetralogy of Fallot.
What is used to instill contrast media
into the biliary system intraoperatively?
Where is central venous pressure measured?
Right atrium. Venous blood pressure within the right atrium is referred to as central venous pressure (CVP).
Salping/o is the root word for which anatomical
Fallopian tube.
The funnel-shaped distal opening of a fallopian tube
is the:
Infundibulum. The open funnelshaped distal end of each fallopian tube is the infundibulum that is surrounded by the fimbriae.
Which part of the microscope is most proximal to the
• A. Beam splitter
• B. Fiberoptics
• C. Binoculars
• D. Objective lens
Objective lens.
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many
of the coagulation factors?
Liver. The majority of coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and released into blood plasma.
The acronym "MAC" denotes what type of anesthesia
Monitored. MAC is an acronym for monitored anesthesia care, calling for the presence of an anesthesia provider.
Sterile dressing materials should be opened onto the
sterile backtable by the:
Circulator.The circulator is responsible for retrieving the sterile dressing materials, inspects the packaging and opens onto the sterile field.
Which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?
What disease causes the overproduction of
What condition results from an
uneven curvature of the cornea?
Myopia. Myopia results when either the eyeball is longer than normal, or imperfections occur in the lens or cornea.
What is the purpose of applying cricoid pressure?
Occlude the esophagus. During endotracheal intubation the anesthesia provider requests cricoid pressure to prevent gastric contents from entering the lungs and trachea. The pressure is maintained until the ET tube is in the correct position.
The purpose of the anesthesia machine soda lime
canister is to absorb:
Carbon dioxide.
What condition would a
posterior repair be performed?
Rectocele. A rectocele is the prolapse of the rectum into the vaginal vault. A rectocele can be viewed pushing against the posterior vaginal wall. An anterior and posterior repair is performed to repair a cystocele and rectocele.
What term is used to describe the back-and-forth
action of a power saw blade?
What term is used to describe the side-to-side motion
action of a power saw blade?
Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a
laparoscopic procedure?
CO2. A CO2 laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a laparoscopic procedure.
The amount of applied tension necessary to break a
suture is known as:
Tensile strength. Tensile strength refers to how much tension is
necessary to break a suture, but also refers to how long the suture retains its strength while a surgical wound is healing.
Which of the following types of dressings is used
when frequent wound inspections are necessary?
Montgomery straps. Montgomery straps often are used for abdominal procedures when the wound must be frequently inspected or dressings changed.
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of
plain gut suture is:
Increased.Plain gut suture is usually not used in the presence of an infection, because it is absorbed faster.
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord
is the:
Dura mater.
What monitoring device is used to obtain indirect
arterial blood pressure?
The internal mammary artery retractor would be used
in what procedure?
Coronary artery bypass with graft. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the revascularization of myocardium that has become ischemic due to stenotic or occluded coronary vessels. The internal mammary artery is sutured to the affected coronary artery at a point distal to the stenosis.
Which of the following anatomical structures is
involved in a hiatal hernia?
What is the procedure for surgical repair of a cranial
Aqueous humor of the eye is found within the:
Anterior chamber
Which of the following congenital conditions is an
atypical communication of intracranial vessels?
Arteriovenous malformation. Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) may be a result of trauma or congenital defect.
A triangular muscle that abducts the arm and covers
the shoulder is the:
What hemostatic agents is
contraindicated for use on bone?
Oxidized cellulose. Oxidized cellulose is not recommended for use on bone, unless immediately removed after hemostasis is achieved because it can interfere with bone regeneration.
What is the congenital abnormality that is
characterized by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid
and spinal nerves in a sac, protruding dorsally?
Glaucoma results from blockage of the:
Canal of Schlemm. Glaucoma is caused by the blockage of the canal of Schlemm by the iris thus preventing aqueous fluid to drain from the eye.
Which surgical procedure is performed to fuse a
The suffix meaning "surgical fixation of."
What is a non-crushing vascular
Which fixation device is indicated for a femoral neck
Cannulated screw
Which instrument is used during a keratoplasty?
• A. #11 knife blade
• B. Sphenoidal punch
• C. Westcott scissors
• D. Corneal trephine
Corneal trephine
What tunica would be found in a
blood vessel?
Intima.The tunica adventitia, tunica intima and tunica media are all layers of an artery.
Sperm is produced in the:
Seminiferous tubules
In which procedure would fine hooks of various angles be used?
Which duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder
to the duodenum?
Common bile.
What is an endoscopic procedure of
the suspension of the bladder neck for treatment of stress incontinence?
Stamey procedure
What does the A represent in a V-A shunt procedure
for hydrocephalus?
Atrial. The ventriculoatrial shunt is a multi-hole draining catheter that is placed in order to drain cerebral spinal fluid in the treatment of hydrocephalus.
Which of the following terms refers to the removal of
facial wrinkles?
Rhytidectomy is another term for a facelift.
Emulsification of abnormal tissue during neurosurgical procedures is accomplished by the use of:
CUSA. A cavitron ultrasonic aspirator (CUSA) is a device that emits a variable ultrasonic energy field that emulsifies abnormal tissue while saving normal neural tissue.
What part of the three-layer dressing absorbs wound
Intermediate.A three-layer dressing consists of an outer, intermediate and inner layer. The inner layer is nonadherent and its wicking action moves secretions away from the wound to be absorbed by the intermediate layer to reduce the chance of infection. The outer layer keeps the other layers in place.
Which is a agent for a mechanical method of hemostasis?
Bone wax. Is a sterile mixture of beeswax that is applied to the cut edges and surface of bone. The first scrub person will soften the bone wax by kneading it into small balls that are easy to apply to the bone.
The primary function of the large intestine is:
Absorption. A function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes.
Which of the following drains is inserted during a
Malecot. A cholecystostomy is performed when cholecystectomy is contraindicated. A Malecot or Pezzer drain is inserted into the gallbladder to facilitate drainage.
What is removed during a glossectomy?
Tongue. A glossectomy is excision of a portion of the tongue.
Where are intestinal anastomosis instruments placed
when using bowel technique?
In separate basin. After completion of the anastomosis, the instruments that came in contact with the bowel are placed in a separate basin away from the clean instruments that will be used for wound closure. This is part of the technique referred to as "bowel technique."
What personal protective equipment would the
surgical technologist wear during extracorporeal
shock wave lithotripsy?
Lead apron. A lead apron should be worn during an extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), because it involves two X-ray beams crossing at the point of the stone.
Which peripheral nerve is decompressed in a carpal
tunnel release?
Median. Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of compression
on the median nerve. A carpal tunnel release is performed to relieve the compression by the transverse ligament.
What type of catheter is used for continuous irrigation
and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP?
3-way Foley. Continuous irrigation of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished by inserting an indwelling 3-way 24 Fr. 30 cc Foley balloon catheter. The balloon also applies pressure on the operative site to help reduce hemorrhaging.
Pancreatic digestive secretions are collected in the:
Duct of Wirsung. The duct of Wirsung is the main duct of the
What are parts of the stomach?
The fundus, antrum and the body are parts of the stomach.
What type of fracture result in several bony fragments?
Comminuted. A fracture with more than two pieces of bone fragment is a comminuted fracture; often a significant amount of tissue trauma is associated with this type of fracture.
Which heart valve has two cusps?
Mitral. The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
In which anatomical structure does an inguinal hernia
defect occur?
Transversalis fascia. The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the transversalis muscle and fascia.
Which of the following clamps would not be found in
an intestinal tray?
• A. Allen
• B. Best
• C. Sarot
• D. Doyen
Sarot. The full name is Sarot bronchus clamp. It is found in a cardiothoracic instrument set.
Which procedure is performed to correct the
congenital deformity cheiloschisis?
Cleft lip repair. Cheiloschisis is a cleft lip and palatoschisis is a cleft palate. Cleft lip repair is performed to correct cheiloschisis.
What is a self-retaining retractor that has the most parts/attachments?
The procedure of choice for a detached retina is a:
Scleral buckling. Scleral buckling is the commonly performed procedure to treat a detached retina when a buckle ("tire") is positioned to push on and close the retinal break.
What surgical instrument is a
vaginal speculum?
What term means a nonmalignant enlargement of the
BPH. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate and is the preoperative diagnosis for a TURP.
What procedure restores function of a nerve by freeing it from adhesions?
To obtain direct arterial pressure, the catheter is
inserted into which artery?
Radial. An indwelling catheter line is inserted to measure radial and femoral artery pressure.
Which scissors are commonly used to extend an
Potts-Smith. The 45° angled Potts-Smith scissors is the instrument of choice to extend the arteriotomy such as during a carotid endarterectomy.
Which is used to increase the size of a split-thickness
Mesh graft device. The split-thickness skin graft is placed on a plastic "carrier" and inserted into the mesh graft device that will expand the size of the skin graft.
Which procedure involves the surgical placement and
fixation of a testicle in the scrotum?
Orchiopexy. An orchiopexy is performed to treat testicular torsion and undescended testicle.
What procedure is a partial
Billroth I. A subtotal gastrectomy is called a Billroth I or II procedure.
A type of cataract extraction when the lens and its
capsule are removed is:
A Keller arthroplasty or McKeever procedure is
performed to treat which of the following?
Bunion. Keller and McKeever are two types of surgical procedures that are used to treat bunions. The procedure that is
performed depends on the degree of toe deformity.
What is the name of the surgical procedure that
resects the dorsal root of a spinal nerve for relief of
trigeminal neuralgia?
Rhizotomy. The surgical interruption of selected spinal nerve root between the ganglion and the cord is called a rhizotomy.
What procedure would a HUMI
cannula be used?
What is a surgical instruments are found in a nasal setup?
Freer elevator, bayonet forceps and Cottle speculum belong in a nasal setup.
Why is an A-V fistula performed for long-term
Decrease thrombosis. Arteriovenous (A-V) fistula is preferred over an external arteriovenous shunt for long-term shunt dialysis since the external shunt carries a high risk of thrombosis and infection.
What is the medical term for painful menstruation?
A prefix meaning "painful"
A root word referring to the menses
A suffix meaning "discharge, flow."
Which procedure involves reattachment of the
anterior capsule of the shoulder to the rim of the
glenoid fossa with sutures?
In which of the following surgical procedures would a
low-lithotomy position be used?
• A. Pyloromyotomy
• B. Omphalocele repair
• C. Inguinal herniorrhaphy
• D. Abdominoperineal resection
D. Abdominoperineal resection
An abdominoperineal resection is performed for a lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal incision. It is performed when an anastomosis is not possible. The patient is placed in a low lithotomy position.
Which kind of cast completely immobilizes a femoral
shaft fracture?
Hip spica
What is the medical term for the
abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus covering the cervical internal os?
Previa. Placenta previa is the term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus and prevents delivery of the fetus. A cesarean section is performed.
Which instrument is used to measure intraocular
Tonometer. A tonometer is used to measure the intraocular pressure in the physician's office, preoperatively and intraoperatively.
Which type of drain is normally used following
orthopedic procedures?
Which position is used when performing a
gynecologic laparoscopy?
Lithotomy. A patient is placed in the lithotomy position for a laparoscopy in order to gain access to the vaginal opening to insert instruments in order to manipulate the cervix during the procedure.
Pedicle screws are used to correct what condition?
Spinal degeneration
Which of these terms describes the surgical
correction of a deviated septum?
What procedure is performed to correct talipes
valgus or talipes varus?
Triple arthrodesis. When a patient suffers from severe talipes valgus or varus, the procedure that is performed is a triple arthrodesis to relieve the pain, aid in correcting the stance and
walking of the patient,and to immobilize the ankle.
Total splenectomy?
a surgical procedure that partially or completely removes the spleen
partial gastrectomy?
a surgical procedure when a part of the stomach is removed.
hepatic lobectomy?
removal of the lobe of the liver
subtotal thyroidectomy?
partial removal of the thyroid gland
a condition in which one or more of the fibrous sutures in an infant skull prematurely fuses by turning into bone (ossification),thereby changing the growth pattern of the skull.
Trigeminal neuralgia?
aka prosopalgia,suicide disease, or Fothergill's disease is a neuropathic disorder characterized by episodes of intense pain in the face, originating from the trigeminal nerve.
bell's palsy?
a form of facial paralysis resulting from a dysfunction of the cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) causing an inability to control facial muscles on the affected side.
inflammation of the brain. Viral infections are the most common cause of the condition.
the surgical removal of the tonsils, two oval-shaped pads of tissue at the back of the throat — one tonsil on each side.
the removal of the parotid gland, a salivary gland near the ear.
a procedure performed to remove the mastoid air cells. This can be done as part of treatment for mastoiditis, chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma. In addition, it is sometimes performed as part of other procedures (cochlear implant) or for access to the middle ear.
nonpermeable dressing
that is a fine mesh gauze that has been impregnated with an emulsion.(xeroform)
hemovac drain?
orthopedic procedures when a moderate amount of drainage is excepted
abdominal procedures. also used in neuro and other general surgeries such as a mammoplasty
orthopedic. effective in reducing dead space due to the strength of the battery-operated evacuation pump
Protrusion of the meninges of the brain or spinal cord through a defect in the skull or spinal column forming a cyst filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
cranium bifidum, is a neural tube defect characterized by sac-like protrusions of the brain and the membranes that cover it through openings in the skull.
Subdural Hematoma ?
a collection of blood in the space between the outer layer (dura) and middle layers of the covering of the brain (the meninges). It is most often caused by torn, bleeding veins on the inside of the dura as a result of a blow to the head.
Which of the following procedures treats a congenital obstructed lesion found at the distal end of an infant's stomach?

A. gastrotomy
B. Nissen fundoplication
C. Heller myotomyy
D. pyloromyotomy
D. Infantile pyloric stenosis is relieved by removing the congenital obstructive lesion in the pylorus of the stomach. This procedure is called pyloromyotomy.
To revascularize the heart muscle of a patient with heart disease, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels?
A. internal mammary artery to affected coronary artery. The internal mammary artery is the preferred vascular conduit to revascularize the myocardium.
The drug most commonly used to treat ventricular tachycardia is
lidocaine (Xylocaine). . Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic.
Which of the following types of anesthetic is injected during a Bier block?
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) when utilized for regional Bier block anesthesia does not carry as significant a risk for anesthetic agent toxicity as bupivacaine (Marcaine).
Which of the following is applied as a nonadherent dressing?

A. adaptic
B. collodion
C. steri-strip
D. elastoplast
A. Adaptic is a nonadherent dressing placed directly on the wound.
Which of the following conditions is triggered by an injection of succinylcholine (Anectine) and causes an unusually high fever?

A. osteomyelitis
B. sepsis
C. malignant hyperthermia
D. appendicitis
C.malignant hyperthermia. Succinylcholine is a anesthetic muscle relaxant that can trigger malignant hyperthermia.
When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix?

A. Simms
B. Auvard
C. Schroeder
D. Bozeman
Schroeder is a tenaculum with a single tooth or a vulsellum with a double tooth.
Which of the following should be visualized on an x-ray to determine if a long bone is still growing?

A. periosteum
B. diaphysis
C. medullary canal
D. epiphyseal plate
D. The epiphyseal plate, also known as the growth plate, is the center for ossification at each extremity of a long bone.
McBurney's incision is most commonly used for
A Pfannenstiel incision is most commonly used for a
hysterectomy or cesarean section.
A lower midline incision is used for
uterine adnexa or urinary bladder surgery.
A subcostal incision is preferred for an
open cholecystectomy
A chemical solution used to sterilize instruments by immersing them for at least 10 hours is
activated glutaraldehyde. Glutaraldehyde is used for devices that can withstand complete immersion in liquid. To render an item sterile it must be immersed for 10 hours.
Heaney clamps are used for a
hysterectomy. Heaney clamps are used to clamp the uterine ligaments during a hysterectomy.
Which of the following is done FIRST when performing a myringotomy?

A. insertion of a drainage tube
B. incision of the tympanic membrane
C. suctioning of fluid from the middle ear
D. removal of cerumen from the ear canal
D.Removal of cerumen is done after the ear speculum is inserted for visualization of the tympanic membrane.
A circlage procedure is performed for which of the following conditions?

A. Bartholin's cyst
B. ectopic pregnancy
C. incompetent cervix
D. placenta previa
C. circlage procedure is performed to prevent spontaneous abortion and preterm delivery by placing a purse-string suture around the cervix.
A Bartholin's cyst is
caused by one of the vestibular glands filling with clear fluid and becoming blocked
An ectopic pregnancy occurs
in a Fallopian tube
Placenta previa?
a condition in which the placenta is attached near the cervix and ruptures prematurely.
Which of the following catheters is MOST commonly used to perform an embolectomy?

A. Robinson
B. Fogarty
C. Malecot
D. Angiocath
A Fogarty catheter is inserted past the clot, then inflated to remove the clot.
a bladder catheter
a self-retaining bladder catheter
allows for venous access for IVs.
Which of the following should be the MINIMUM exposure time in a flash sterilizer for unwrapped instruments?

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 7 minutes
B. Three minutes is the LEAST amount of time needed for proper flash sterilization.
Traction sutures are used on common duct explorations to

A. ligate the duct.
B. permanently close the duct.
C. hold the duct open.
D. seal the stones inside.
C.The duct needs to be held open in order to be explored.
Which of the following anesthetic agents is administered intravenously?

A. enflurane (Ethrane)
B. nitrous oxide
C. propofol (Diprivan)
D. methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
C. Propofol is used intravenously as a general anesthetic agent.
Enflurane (Ethrane)?
a liquid that becomes gas and is inhaled.
Nitrous oxide is
an inhaled gas, commonly called laughing gas.
Methoxyflurane (Penthrane) ?
a general anesthesia administered by inhalation.
A surgical technologist sees a neighbor being admitted. How should the surgical technologist respond?

A. Acknowledge the neighbor.
B. Reassure the neighbor that everything will be fine.
C. Do not acknowledge the neighbor unless greeted first.
D. Ignore the neighbor, even if greeted.
C. If the patient acknowledges the surgical technologist first, it is appropriate to acknowledge the patient in return.
Which of the following is MOST resistant to sterilization processes?

A. virus
B. spore
C. spirochete
D. fungus
B. A spore is a latent, pathological bacteria that is highly resistant to sterilization
a morphological characteristic of bacteria that is susceptible to sterilization processes.
A tourniquet is used in which of the following procedures?

A. patellectomy
B. ORIF hip
C. shoulder arthroscopy
D. Bankart repair
A. A patellectomy is an excision of the kneecap. A tourniquet is frequently used on surgeries of the extremities to provide a bloodless operative field.
Which of the following procedures is used for removal of an embolus?

A. endarterectomy
B. balloon catheterization
C. aneurysmectomy
D. fasciotomy
B. Balloon catheterization is a common method using a Fogarty catheter to remove an embolus.
An endarterectomy restores circulation by removing plaque from the intima of an artery.
the removal of an abnormal dilation of a blood vessel.
the surgical incision of fascia
During a craniotomy, which of the following types of bone is entered?

A. flat
B. round
C. long
D. irregular
D. Irregular bones are found in the skull and vertebral column.
Flat bones are found in
scapula, sternum, and pelvic girdle.
Round bones are found
within tendons, patella, or on the head of the first metatarsal.
Long bones are found in
the arms and legs and consist of a shaft and two ends.
Layers of stomach and small intestine from outermost to innermost layer?
serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and the mucosa.
Which of the following instruments may be used to extend the arteriotomy during femoral-femoral bypass?

A. straight Mayo
B. Potts-Smith
C. Jorgenson
D. Stevens tenotomy
B. An angled Potts-Smith scissor is typically used to extend arteriotomies.
In a steam autoclave set on pre-vacuum, the minimum temperature that must be reached is

A. 200°.
B. 230°.
C. 250°.
D. 270°.
D.This temperature combined with the pressure in an autoclave is required to destroy microbial life.
The PRIMARY consideration in selecting an appropriate anesthetic agent is the

A. physiologic condition of the patient.
B. length of the procedure.
C. type of the procedure.
D. anxiety level of the patient.
A.The patient's specific needs and risk factors for anesthesia must be determined to identify the techniques and medications to use and avoid. Length of the operation is an important aspect to consider. However, the patient's health condition must take precedence.
Which of the following positions is used for mastopexy(the plastic surgery mammoplasty procedure for raising sagging breasts upon the chest of the woman; by correcting and modifying the size, contour, and elevation of the breasts)?

A. Kraske (jackknife)
B. dorsal recumbent (spine)
C. lateral Simms
D. Fowler's (sitting)
B. Dorsal recumbent (supine) provides optimal exposure to the breast.
Surgery to repair a Colles' fracture is performed on which of the following types of bone?

A. long
B. short
C. flat
D. irregular
A. Colles' fractures occur to the distal radial head. The radius is classified as a long bone.
Short bones are found?
in the phalanges.
braided multifilament suture
a twisted suture
Ethibond (polyester)
a braided suture
A circumferential bandage should be applied to an extremity

A. proximal to distal.
B. distal to proximal.
C. ventral to dorsal.
D. dorsal to ventral.
(u) A. This causes venous pooling.

(c) B. This pushes blood towards the trunk of the body.

(u) C. This moves blood away from the heart.

(u) D. This moves blood away from the heart.
The surgeon asks a surgical technologist to place a drop of a mydriatic solution in OD. As a result of this medication, the pupil of the

A. right eye will dilate.
B. left eye will dilate.
C. right eye will constrict.
D. left eye will constrict.
A. A mydriatic solution will dilate the pupil and OD is the abbreviation for the right eye.
foramen ovale ?
The foramen ovale is the opening between the two atria of the fetal heart.
foramen magnum?
The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull for passage of the spinal cord.
foramen rotundum?
The foramen rotundum is an opening in the sphenoid bone through which the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve passes.
foramen of Bochdalek?
The foramen of Bochdalek is a fetal diaphragmatic opening that may not close completely.
A herniation of the rectum through the posterior vaginal wall.
herniation of the bladder through the vaginal wall
twisted vein, especially of the spermatic cord.
is herniation of the intestine.
Which of the following verifies that autoclave sterilization has occurred?

A. chemical indicator
B. julian date
C. heat-sensitive tape
D. biological indicator
D. . A biological indicator is a test using living spores resistant to heat. It is the best method to check effectiveness of sterilization.
A resectoscope is used in which of the following prostatic approaches?

A. perineal
B. suprapubic
C. retropubic
D. transurethral
D. transurethral. A resectoscope is used through the urethra (TURP).
Which of the following is reshaped during a total hip arthroplasty?

A. fibula
B. acetabulum
C. iliac crest
D. tibia
B. The acetabulum is deepened during a total hip arthroplasty.
Which of the following is a sign of cardiac arrest?

A. edema
B. convulsion
C. cyanosis
D. hypertension
C. With lack of circulation, which provides oxygen to tissues, in cardiac arrest, the patient will look blue.
Which of the following anticoagulants should be given during a vascular procedure to prevent normal blood clotting?

A. heparin sodium
B. protamine sulfate
C. atropine
D. epinephrine
A. Heparin sodium is a parenteral anticoagulant that inhibits factor X, interferes with the conversion of prothrombins to thrombin, and prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Protamine sulfate?
an anticoagulant, but it is used as the antidote to heparin.
Atropine is
an anticholinergic used pre-operatively to inhibit mucous secretions of the respiratory and digestive tract.
Epinephrine is
a vasoconstrictor used to increase the duration of local anesthetics and to increase heart rate.
Which of the following procedures should be followed when performing counts in an emergency situation?

A. All counts must be done.
B. Omit counts, but document on the operative record.
C. Only an initial count is required.
D. Only count laparotomy sponges.
B. The patient's condition takes precedence over the counts in an emergency situation, but the omission should be documented in the patient's operative record.
Which of the following supplies is part of the standard set-up for a diagnostic knee arthroscopy?

A. Poole suction tip
B. irrigation tubing
C. #20 blade
D. 3000-ml bag glycine
B. Irrigation tubing allows for continuous flow of fluids into the knee.
Where is the gastrocnemius muscle located?

A. arm
B. calf
C. back
D. thigh
B. The gastrocnemius is a muscle in the posterior portion of the lower leg.
The mediastinum is
the cavity between the pleural sacs.
The peritoneum is
the lining of the abdominal cavity and its organs.
Which lies between the lung and the chest wall?
The pleura is the external lining of the lungs and inner thoracic cavity.
the pericardium is
the outermost lining of the heart.
At which abdominal layer is the first closing count performed?

A. skin
B. fascia
C. peritoneum
D. subcutaneous
C. The peritoneum is a membrane that covers all the abdominal organs. It would be easy for the surgeon to leave a countable item if the first closing count was not correctly performed at this time. Note: The first closing count may occur upon closure of a body cavity, such as the bladder or uterus.
When preparing the Sterrad sterilization system for use in the surgical area, which of the following outlets must be available?

A. suction
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. electrical
D. The Sterrad sterilization system requires electricity to operate.
During a laser laryngoscopy, which of the following supplies must be available?

A. wet cottonoids and water
B. microscope, sterile water, and bronchoscope
C. sterile water, thyroid tray, and methylene blue
D. tracheotomy tray and tube, bronchoscope, and sterile water
A. Sterile water must be available in the event of a fire to keep sponges and towels wet so that they do not ignite.
Between each surgical procedure, decontamination of walls involves washing

A. only areas that have been splashed with blood or debris.
B. all walls with a disinfectant solution.
C. all walls from the floor up to a 5-foot level with a disinfectant solution.
D. all walls from the floor up to a 5-foot level with a viricidal solution.
A. It is not necessary to wash walls between cases because they are not considered contaminated unless splashed with blood or organic debris. However, walls contaminated with organic debris and blood should be immediately decontaminated to help prevent microorganisms from drying and becoming airborne.
sponge used for eye surgery.
The appendiceal stump, when inverted, is held in place by which of the following types of suture?

A. mattress
B. traction
C. interrupted
D. purse-string
D. A purse-string stitch allows the stump to become, and remain, inverted.
Which of the following does NOT result after dipping a bloody RAY-TEC sponge into irrigation solution?

A. The solution is tainted.
B. Lint is released into the solution.
C. The solution is diluted.
D. Cellular components are released into the solution.
B. The RAY-TEC sponges will not release lint into the solution because they are lint free.
During a tympanoplasty, which of the following is the best choice for graft material?

A. temporal bone
B. temporalis fascia
C. vestibular membrane
D. a Teflon graft
B. A temporalis fascia graft most resembles the tissue of the tympanic membrane.
During an anterior cervical fusion, a bone graft is taken in order to fuse the vertebral

A. body.
B. disk.
C. spinous process.
D. transverse process.
A. The vertebral body is fused to ease pain from a herniated disk.
Which of the following is necessary for ethylene oxide sterilization to occur?

A. indirect contact
B. gravity displacement
C. humidity
D. steam
C. Spores must be hydrated to facilitate passage of the ethylene oxide into the organism.
Which of the following retractors may be used during an open cholecystectomy?

A. Simms
B. Bennett
C. Jennings
D. Harrington
D. A Harrington retractor is used specifically to retract the liver while exposing the gallbladder.
Which of the following arteries is MOST commonly used for taking a blood pressure reading?

A. radial
B. femoral
C. brachial
D. popliteal
C. A brachial artery is located along the humerus. It runs from the shoulder to just past the elbow. The brachial artery is used for taking blood pressure and a pulse.
A radial artery is
located in the patient's wrist and is used for taking a pulse, but not blood pressure.
A femoral artery is
located along the femur. It runs from the groin to the knee. The femoral artery is also used for taking a pulse, but not blood pressure.
A popliteal artery is
located behind the knee. The popliteal can be used to take a pulse.
The required number of air exchanges per hour in an operating room is

A. 1 to 5.
B. 6 to 10.
C. 11 to 14.
D. 15 to 20.
D. About 20 to 25 air exchanges are needed to minimize bacterial growth.
A Javid shunt is used for which of the following procedures?

A. carotid endarterectomy
B. femoral-popliteal bypass
C. abdominal aneurysmectomy
D. saphenous vein ligation
A. A Javid shunt is utilized only for this procedure due to the small size of the shunt and the incision.
Types of grafts inserted in a femoral-popliteal bypass?
Synthetic grafts or autografts are inserted.
saphenous vein ligation?
This procedure is performed to remove the saphenous vein for an autograft.
For which of the following procedures is Gelfoam MOST commonly used?

A. repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
B. extraction of a cataract
C. transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
D. craniotomy for subdural hematoma
D. Gelfoam is used in craniotomies to inhibit surface bleeding such as delicate neural tissue.
Which of the following structures are separated first when a paramedian incision is performed for a gastrectomy?

A. peritoneum
B. transverse abdominis
C. external oblique
D. rectus abdominis
D. The rectus abdominis is separated to expose the abdominal cavity.
Which of the following destroys bacterial spores?

A. germicide
B. antiseptic
C. sterilant
D. fungicide
C. Sterilants destroy microbes including spore-forming organisms.
A Pereyra needle is used for which of the following types of surgery?

A. hysterectomy
B. prostatectomy
C. bladder neck suspension
D. anterior colporrhaphy
C. The Pereyra needle is ONLY used in the Pereya procedure to treat incontinence. This is a type of bladder neck suspension procedure.
Which of the following instruments should be included in a TURP set up?

A. lithotrite
B. urethrotome
C. resectoscope
D. Randall
C. The resectoscope is used to cut and coagulate prostate tissue.
If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed?

A. misdemeanor
B. res ipso loquitur
C. extension doctrine
D. intentional tort
B. Res ipsa loquitur means the thing speaks for itself. This doctrine applies to injuries sustained by the patient while in the operating room.
extension doctrine?
means the surgeon went beyond the limits of the patient's consent.
Intentional tort?
means intentionally causing injury.
When performing a urinary bladder catheterization, it is essential to

A. place the patient in Sim's position.
B. keep the catheter tip sterile.
C. inflate the balloon in the urethra.
D. shave the pubis.
B. Catheterization is an invasive procedure; therefore, the catheter needs to be kept sterile to prevent urinary tract infection.
Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be performed on the patient in the operating room?

A. cystoscopy
B. culdoscopy
C. proctoscopy
D. laparoscopy
C. Proctoscopy is endoscopic visualization of the rectum and anal canal, often done before a hemorrhoidectomy.
Which of the following patients is MOST likely to acquire a nosocomial infection?

A. a healthy female patient who is 45 years of age
B. a female patient in labor and delivery
C. a healthy male patient who is 45 years of age
D. a male patient who has diabetes
D. Patients with diabetes are vulnerable to nosocomial infections.
If unexpected heavy blood loss occurs during a surgical procedure, the surgical technologist should request additional

A. suction tubing.
B. Babcocks.
C. Kitners.
D. cottonoids.
A. When heavy blood loss occurs quickly, it has to be suctioned so that the surgeon can see the source of bleeding and stop it. One-suction tubing may not be adequate. Three may be the maximum used.
In order to remove a portion of the kidney, the surgeon must enter which of the following?

A. synovial membrane
B. Gerota's fascia
C. Hesselbach's triangle
D. suprapleural membrane
B. Gerota's fascia is also known as renal fascia. It encloses the suprarenal glands and separates them from the kidney.
Synovial membrane?
a membrane lining the capsule of the joint.
Hesselbach's triangle is located
in the inguinal region and is made up of the abdominal muscle, inguinal ligament, and inferior epigastric artery.
suprapleural membrane?
an outer membrane covering the lung.
List in order the sequence of induction for general anesthesia:

1. leads placed on the patient
2. induction agent is give through an IV
3. patient is prompted to breath 100% oxygen
4. patient is intubated
5. anesthetic gas agent is selected and applied

A. 1, 3, 5, 4, and 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, and 4
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, and 5
D. 4, 2, 3, 1, and 5
C. 1 . Leads are placed in order to monitor all cardiac activity during the induction of anesthesia. 3. The patient's blood oxygen saturation is raised as high as possible to sustain them during intubation. 2. The induction agent causes a loss of consciousness, and is associated with depressed reflexes, respiratory depression, and an inadequate airway. 4. The patient is secured and maintained after being depressed. 5. Anesthetic gas is selected an applied.
During strabismus surgery, which of the following is the first tissue layer that must be incised?

A. iris
B. cornea
C. sclera
D. conjunctiva
D. The conjunctiva is the outermost tissue layer of the eye.
The iris is
the colored membrane between the lens and the cornea in the aqueous humor.
The cornea is
the clear anterior part of the fibrous coat of the eye.
The sclera is
tough, white, fibrous tissue that extends from the optic nerve to the cornea.
A lumbar meningocele involves removal of

A. cerebrospinal fluid.
B. lumbar disc.
C. meninges.
D. a fluid-filled sac.
A meningocele is a fluid-filled sac that is removed during this procedure.
Which of the following procedures requires a microscope?

A. rhinoplasty
B. pyeloplasty
C. tympanoplasty
D. blepharoplasty
C. Tympanoplasty is the reconstruction of the tympanic membrane performed under microscopic vision.
Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be

A. discarded by the circulator.
B. sent to pathology.
C. used for potential reimplantation.
D. saved because it is personal property.
D. Hair removed from the patient prior to cranial surgery is considered personal property of the patient.
Which of the following procedures is used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common ducts?

A. barium enema
B. cholangiography
C. intravenous pyelography
D. upper gastrointestinal series
B. Cholangiography is a diagnostic x-ray study to identify stones in the biliary tract.
A barium enema is
used to outline the lumen of the lower GI tract.
intravenous pyelography ?
IVP is the x-ray study of the structures of the urinary tract and kidney functions.
upper gastrointestinal series ?
An upper GI series with a barium sulfate swallow is used to outline the lumen of the GI tract.
A specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively because it

A. needs to be labeled by the circulator.
B. is sent to pathology immediately.
C. will contaminate the sterile field.
D. needs to be placed in formalin solution.
B. Special preparation and examination of the tissue can determine whether it is malignant, if nodes are involved, and if margins are clear of malignant cells. Sending a frozen section will give the physician an immediate diagnosis and will be able to treat the patient correctly.
When performing a right hemicolectomy, the surgeon will most likely remove portions of which of the following?

A. jejunum and duodenum
B. ascending and transverse colon
C. transverse and descending colon
D. sigmoid and rectum
B. The ascending and transverse colon are portions of the large bowel and are found on the patient's right side.
The tissue that covers bones and provides movement to the skeletal system is

A. nerve.
B. cartilage.
C. muscle.
D. ligament.
C. Muscles are tissue that cover bone and provide movement to the skeletal system.
Which of the following is the best placement area for the electrosurgical grounding pad for a patient in the lithotomy position?

A. upper arm
B. lower back
C. anterior thigh
D. posterior shoulder
C. The pad must be placed over a large muscle mass (fleshy area) for dispersion if electricity, and as close to the operative site as possible.
Which of the following conditions should be treated FIRST?

A. obstructed airway
B. closed cerebral injury
C. shock due to hemorrhage
D. sucking wound to the chest
A. The first priority is to have an unobstructed airway.
Which of the following layers are transected when a subcostal flank incision is used for a nephrectomy?

A. pre-peritoneal fat
B. linea alba
C. oblique muscles
D. rectus abdominis muscle
C. The oblique muscles are located at the flank area on the lateral side of the body covering the kidney.
Which of the following wound classes is assigned to a perforated bowel?

A. I
C. Class III indicates that gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract has occurred.
Wound class I?
Class I identifies a wound created under ideal surgical conditions with no entry into the aerodigestive or gastrointestinal tracts.
Wound class II?
Class II identifies a wound with controlled entrance into the gastrointestinal tract. The perforation is not controlled entrance.
Wound class IV?
Class IV identifies a clinically infected wound or an old traumatic wound with retained necrotic tissue.
A patient being prepped for surgery is hypokalemic. Which of the following must be done before a general anesthetic is given?

A. Add potassium to the IV solution.
B. Add sodium to the IV solution.
C. Complete a type and crossmatch.
D. Place a urinary catheter.
A. A patient with hypokalemia has low potassium levels in the blood so that patient needs potassium added to the IV.
low sodium levels
Which of the following is a type of herniation that occurs with protrusion of the peritoneal sac and its contents (omentum or abdominal viscera)?

A. epigastric
B. umbilical
C. hypogastric
D. femoral
B.Umbilical. This is the correct location.
Epigastric hernia located?
Epigastric (a type of midline hernia) are above the umbilicus.
Hypogastric hernia located?
Hypogastric (a type of midline hernia) are below the umbilicus.
Femoral hernia?
Femoral hernia sacs originate from the femoral canal through a defect in the medial femoral sheath.
What advantage do hand-held retractors have over mechanical self-retaining retractors?

A. less exposure
B. operator dependency
C. lesser fatigue factor
D. dynamic adjustability
D. Hand-held retractors make dynamic adjustability possible, therefore giving them an advantage over self-retaining retractors.
When transferring a thoracotomy patient to recovery, the chest drainage system should be

A. disconnected.
B. placed at the patient's side.
C. positioned above the patient's head.
D. maintained below the patient's chest level.
D. Keeping the drainage system below the patient's chest level prevents re-entry of air and fluid into the chest cavity.
If the parents of a dependent minor requiring emergency surgery cannot be located, the operative consent form for surgery may be signed by

A. the patient.
B. a family friend.
C. two consulting physicians.
D. the operating room supervisor.
C. Two consulting physicians (not to include the surgeon) must agree on the course of treatment when the patient or guardian can not sign the consent.
A post-operative total arthroplasty patient presents to the emergency department with severe throbbing pain, fever and malaise. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

A. osteoarthritis
B. osteoporosis
C. osteomyelitis
D. osteomalacia
C. Osteomyelitis is the general name for bacterial infections of bone and bone marrow tissue most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
a non-inflammatory disorder of movable joints. Symptoms do not include fever and malaise.
a degenerative joint disease which does not present with symptoms of throbbing pain, fever, malaise.
a softening of bone. It presents with pain, signs of deficiency disease, and progressive weakness but not fever or malaise.
Which of the following procedures repairs a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. endarterectomy
B. debridement with irrigation
C. excision with graft placement
D. portacaval shunt
C. Excision and/or internal bypass of an attenuated widening of the aortic wall requires insertion of a prosthetic graft to repair an abdominal aneurysm.
removal of intimal plaque with insertion of a graft.
portacaval shunt ?
diverts portal venous blood to a systemic system.
Which surgical needle is MOST appropriately used in a liver resection?

A. cutting
B. taper
C. blunt
D. trocar
C. A blunt needle does not puncture the tissue and it is the least traumatic needle for organs such as the liver.
cutting needle?
usually used for suturing skin, joint capsules, and tendons.
tapered needle?
punctures tissue and is used for suturing soft tissue such as muscle, subcutaneous fat, peritoneum, dura, GI, GU, biliary and vascular tissue.
In which of the following congenital anomalies does the urethra open on the underside of the penis?

A. chordee
B. epispadias
C. phimosis
D. hypospadias
D. Hypospadias refers to the urethra on the underside of the penis.
is a congenital defect resulting in a dominated curvature of the penis caused by a fibrous band of tissue.
the urethra being on the superior aspect of the penis.
refers to tightness of the prepuce of the penis that prevents retraction of the foreskin over the glans.
Anterior and posterior knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the

A. cruciate ligaments.
B. joint capsule.
C. patellar tendon.
D. collateral ligaments.
A. Knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments.
joint capsules?
anterior and posterior joint capsule assists in movement.
The patellar tendon
encloses the patella and secures it in the front of the knee joint.
The collateral ligaments
provide medial and lateral stability to the knee joint.
In which of the following procedures will the surgical technologist expect to use cottonoids?

A. abdominal hysterectomy
B. abdominal perineal resection
C. lumbar laminectomy
D. open cholecystectomy
C. Cottoniods are commonly used in this procedure because they will protect wound edges and promote hemostasis.
Which of the following is used during a tympanoplasty?

A. image intensifier
B. hypothermia unit
C. operating microscope
D. argon laser
C. A microscope is needed to visualize the tympanic membrane which begins the middle ear structures.
image intensifier?
is a type of radiographic equipment
What parts of the body are prepped for an ORIF of the olecranon process?

A. leg, foot to knee
B. leg, foot to hip
C. arm, fingers to shoulder
D. arm, fingers to elbow
C. An arm prep, fingers to shoulder, on the affected arm provides adequate coverage.
After completing an operative procedure, the FIRST item a surgical technologist in the scrub role should remove is the

A. mask.
B. gown.
C. gloves.
D. shoe covers.
B. The gown is the first item to be removed after an operative procedure because it is contaminated with the patient's flora.
During surgery a patient becomes hypotensive. Which of the following medications should be given?

A. cephalexin (Keflex)
B. propofol (Diprivan)
C. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. furosemide (Lasix)
C. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor that causes an elevation in blood pressure.
cephalexin (Keflex) ?
an antibiotic
propofol (Diprivan)
an induction agent
furosemide (Lasix)
a diuretic
To place a patient on a Wilson frame, in which of the following will the patient ultimately be placed for the procedure?

A. supine
B. prone
C. lateral
D. lithotomy
B. The Wilson frame is used for this position because the patient is lying on their chest. This is used to prevent pressure on the abdominal contents and thoracic compression.
patient on back
lateral position?
patient laying on side
lithotomy ?
the patient will be lying on the back with legs elevated in stirrups.
The primary effect of a hypnotic drug is to

A. induce sleep.
B. relax the muscles.
C. stimulate respirations.
D. dry secretions.
A. A hypnotic induces sleep.
succinylcholine (Anectine)?
muscle relaxant
Anticholinergics dry secretions.
A patient is scheduled for a lumbar laminectomy and is positioned in the prone position without padding under the thorax. Which of the following physiological hazards should the surgical technologist be most concerned about?

A. pressure on the vena cava and abdominal aorta
B. venous stasis in the lower extremities
C. hyperextension of the head and neck
D. pressure injury to the peroneal nerve
A. The use of chest rolls or a laminectomy frame (which are absent) will reduce the amount of pressure exerted on the vena cava and abdominal aorta that will be applied in this position.
Venous stasis of the lower legs can be corrected by
anti-antiembolitic stockings
peroneal nerve is located
the upper leg
When a break in aseptic technique occurs, the surgical technologist in the scrub role should notify the

A. circulator.
B. person who broke the technique.
C. operating room supervisor.
D. surgeon.
B. Any break in technique must be corrected, and each person is responsible for taking appropriate action to correct the error.
The spore-forming organism used to test the proper functioning of steam sterilizer is

A. Bacillus subtilis.
B. Clostridium perfringens.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Bacillus stearothermophilus.
D. Bacillus stearothermophilus is a highly heat-resistant, spore-forming microorganism.
Bacillus subtilis is used as
the control in gas sterilization
Clostridium perfringens ?
an anaerobe
Mannitol (Osmitrol) is used in neurosurgical procedures to

A. prevent bleeding.
B. decrease intracranial pressure.
C. anesthetize the operative site.
D. fight possible post-operative infection.
B. As an osmotic diuretic, mannitol pulls fluid from the cranial tissue into the circulatory system, thereby decreasing cranial pressure.
Which of the following types of connective tissue fastens muscle to bone?

A. cartilage
B. ligament
C. synovium
D. tendon
D. Tendon is a type of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.
smooth, relatively firm, compressible connective tissue. It cushions most articular surfaces at the ends of bones.
A ligament is
a band or sheet of strong fibrous connective tissue that connects the articular ends of bones.
Synovium is
the soft tissue that lines the non-cartilaginous surfaces within joints.
Which of the following procedures requires an opening into the gallbladder to permit drainage and removal of stones?

A. choledochotomy
B. cholecystostomy
C. cholecystectomy
D. cholecystojejunostomy
B. Cholecystostomy is establishing an opening into the gallbladder to permit drainage of an organ and removal of stones.
incision made into the common bile duct.
is the removal of the gallbladder.
is creating an anastomosis between gallbladder and jejunum to relieve an obstruction in the distal end of the common duct.
Care of a surgical specimen includes placing it

A. in a biohazard trash bag.
B. in a bag or container with formalin.
C. on a RAY-TEC sponge and sent to pathology.
D. in a trash bag.
B. The specimen should be sent to the pathology department or the laboratory in an appropriate container. The specimen should never be thrown away.
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable technique when placing a patient in the lithotomy position?

A. arms placed on arm boards
B. legs placed in stirrups one at a time
C. both legs placed in stirrups simultaneously
D. hips placed over the lower break of the table
B. Legs should not be placed one at a time due to back, knee, and hip pain; also for pressure injury to skin, nerves, and blood vessels and blood pressure changes.
When assisting with the closure of a skin incision and operating the skin stapler, the surgical technologist in the scrub role is placing the staples through which two layers?

A. cuticular and subcuticular
B. subicular and subcutaneous
C. subcuticular ans subcutaneous
D. subcutaneous and fascia
A. These layers are the two most outer layers of the skin and are closed together by the skin stapler.
Which of the following is MOST commonly used for wound closure in the presence of infection?

A. stainless steel
B. polyglactin-910
C. plain gut
D. silk
A. Stainless steel suture is recommended for use in infected areas because it is non-absorbable with indefinite tensile strength.
a multifilament suture?
polyglactin-910, silk
Which of the following procedures may require a postauricular incision?

A. myringotomy
B. tympanostomy
C. adenoidectomy
D. mastoidectomy
D. Mastoidectomy can be approached either through an endaural or a postaural incision.
an incision into the tympanic membrane.
During a LAPAROSCOPIC appendectomy, which of the following types of staplers should the surgical technologist have ready on the back table for removing the appendix and ensuring no spillage of bowel content?

A. intraluminal
B. linear
C. skin
D. purse-string
B. A linear stapler (TA), using either 4 or 6 row blue or white reloads is most commonly used.
intraluminal stapler?
An intraluminal stapler (EEA) is used for low anterior bowel resection.
purse-string stapler?
The purse-string stapler is used only in open procedures.
Gravity displacement sterilizers function on the principle that

A. steam is heavier than air.
B. air is heavier than steam.
C. water is heavier than air.
D. air is heavier than water.
B. Air is heavier than steam causing it so be displaced downward and pushed out a drain at the bottom.
Which of the following is a preferred retractor for a groin incision?

A. Weitlaner
B. Finochietto
C. O'Sullivan-O'Connor
D. Balfour
A. A Weitlaner is the retractor of choice for a groin incision.
When evaluating the patient's skin for the preoperative prep, which of the following is considered a contaminated area?

A. axilla
B. toes
C. body hair
D. draining sinus
D. A draining sinus is a contaminated area of the body. If the area is in the operating site, the surrounding area should be prepped first and the sinus should be prepped last.
Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true?

A. Two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the
counted brush-stroke method.
B. A vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a
10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in
decreasing microbe counts.
D. When gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are
contaminated and should be immediately washed.
C. The hand scrub is done to decrease the number of microorganisms to an irreducible minimum and prolonging the surgical scrub will NOT decrease the microbe count beyond that. It is NOT a sterile procedure as skin cannot be sterilized.
Which of the following is a chemical sterilant?

A. alcohol
B. merthiolate (Thimerosal)
C. glutaraldehyde (Cidex)
D. sodium hypochlorite
C. Cidex is a chemical sterilant used to chemically sterilize instruments.
Kraske (jackknife)
used in ambulatory surgery for rectal procedures.
What is the recommended temperature in an operating room?

A. 15-19° C (59-66° F)
B. 20-24° C (68-75° F)
C. 25-29° C (77-84° F)
D. 30-34° C (86-93° F)
B. The standard temperature is between 20-24° C (68 to 75° F).
In what position is a patient placed for a right nephrectomy?

A. left lateral position
B. right lateral position
C. left lateral kidney position
D. right lateral kidney position
C. This is the correct side of the body. The flank would be elevated, and the kidney rest would be used.
In which of the following positions should a patient be placed for a low anterior colon resection?

A. dorsal recumbent
B. prone
C. lateral
D. lithotomy
D. The lithotomy position allows access to the sigmoid colon, perineum, anus, rectum, and vaginal urethra.
Dorsal recumbent position?
is mainly used for orthopedics, thorax, head and neck, or abdominal procedures.
Prone position?
for surgeries associated with the spine, posterior cranium, dorsal body surface, or posterior lower extremities.
The lateral position ?
would allow access to the hip, hemithorax, and the retroperitoneal space.
How much 0.25% bupivacaine (Marcaine) should be mixed with 1 mL of 1.0% lidocaine (Xylocaine) to make the solution equal strengths of both medications?

A. 2.0 mL
B. 4.0 mL
C. 5.0 mL
D. 10.0 mL
B. The correct calculation is 4 mL's of Marcaine to every 1 mL of Xylocaine. This will make the solution equal strength of both medications.
Which of the following INCREASES air contamination in the operating room?

A. restricting traffic flow in and out of the room
B. damp-dusting with a germicidal solution
C. maintaining air pressure lower than in the outside hall
D. using pneumatic surgical equipment
C. Contaminated air can enter the operating room if air pressure is less than hallway pressure.
During which of the following surgeries is a Meckel's diverticulum typically discovered?

A. hysterectomy
B. appendectomy
C. prostatectomy
D. varicocelectomy
B. During an appendectomy, bowel is examined and can lead to the discovery of a Meckel's diverticulum.
The vermiform appendix originates from the

A. cecum.
B. ileum.
C. sigmoid colon.
D. ascending colon.
A. The vermiform appendix is about 3 inches in length and is attached to the cecum.
the last segment of the small intestine.
How must basins be positioned for sterilization in the autoclave?

A. upside down
B. right side up
C. on their sides
D. tightly stacked
C. The autoclave should be loaded to facilitate removal of air and aid in the flow of the sterilizing agent. Placing basins on their sides helps remove air and exposes all surfaces to the sterilizing agent.
During set-up, if a surgical team member refuses to perform a count, how should the surgical technologist respond?

A. Ask the surgeon if a count is necessary.
B. Continue with case set up.
C. Report the refusal to the charge nurse immediately.
D. Perform a count with another surgical technologist.
C. The legal and recommended practice is that a count be performed. The surgical technologist should report the refusal to the charge nurse immediately so that proper hospital procedure can be performed.
When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy to supine, the patient's legs should be lowered slowly to prevent which of the following?

A. hypotension
B. laryngospasm
C. respiratory distress
D. peroneal nerve damage
A. The legs should be lowered slowly as blood supply has been altered by the position and simultaneously to avoid lumbar torsion.
Which of the following instruments is necessary for an open cholecystectomy?

A. Oschner forceps
B. Jennings retractor
C. Mixter clamp
D. O'Sullivan-O'Connor retractor
C. A Mixter (right angle) clamp is necessary for an open cholecystectomy.
Once the spinous process is exposed during a laminectomy, the next instrument needed for the removal of the lamina is a

A. Kerrison rongeur.
B. pituitary rongeur.
C. Penfield dissector.
D. periosteal elevator.
A. A Kerrison rongeur is a bone-biting instrument used to remove the lamina in a laminectomy.
Which of the following instruments must be readily available for a modified radical mastectomy?

A. Stevens scissors
B. Jorgenson scissors
C. extra #11 blades
D. extra #10 blades
D. The skin is undercut in all directions to the limits of dissection by means of an #10 blade. Knife blades will need to be changed on a regular basis in order to ensure precise dissection.
Which of the following is associated with secondary intention wound healing?

A. delayed suturing
B. tissue granulation
C. wound dehiscence
D. uncomplicated healing
B. When wound edges cannot be approximated, the wound is left open to heal by secondary intention which allows tissue granulation to occur.
The surgical technologist in the scrub role MUST keep track of blood loss as well as

A. weigh the blood soaked sponges.
B. measure the amount of collected fluid.
C. administer blood replacement.
D. track amount of irrigation used.
D. The surgical technologist in the scrub role should monitor the amount of irrigation used and subtract that amount from the total amount in the cannister to estimate the blood loss.
Which of the following is true regarding the care of rachetted instruments following surgery?

A. Instruments should be soaked in a saline solution.
B. Instruments should be prepared for decontamination with curved tips up.
C. Instruments should be opened for washing and sterilizing.
D. Instruments should be sterilized in the sonic washer.
C. Rachetted instruments should be opened so all of the debris can be washed away.
Which of the following structures is behind and below the base of the penis?

A. scrotum
B. seminal vesicles
C. vas deferens
D. prepuce
A. The scrotum is located behind and below the base of the penis.
seminal vesicles lies?
The seminal vesicles lie on the fundus of the bladder and are superior to the base of the penis.
vas deferens extend from
the epididymis, lie within the spermatic cord and lie superior to the base of the penis.
foreskin surrounding and protecting the head of the penis which is located at the distal end of the penis.
A #12 knife blade on a #7 handle is MOST commonly used for what type of surgery?

A. gastrectomy
B. hysterectomy
C. adenoidectomy
D. tonsillectomy
D. The curve of the #12 on the #7 handle helps the surgeon reach down into the tonsil fossa.
A pad-like sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a

A. bursa.
B. fossa.
C. ganglion.
D. ligament.
A. The bursa is pad-like sac or cavity found in connective tissues, usually in the vicinity of joints.
A fossa
is a furrow or shallow depression.
A ganglion
is a fluid-filled sac that can arise from almost any tendon sheath or joint in the hand or wrist.
A ligament
is a band or sheet of strong fibrous tissue connecting the articular ends of bones, serving to bind them together and to facilitate or limit motion.
Wrinkle-free padding is applied to an extremity before application of a tourniquet to avoid

A. skin injuries.
B. improper inflation.
C. excessive blood loss.
D. skeletal injuries.
A. Wrinkle-free padding is used to protect the skin and equally distribute the pressure from the tourniquet.
Which of the following is the best sequence for cleaning the operating room after placement of the dressings?

A. Remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table.
B. Remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to remove drapes from the patient, remove instruments and supplies from the back table.
C. Remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to remove drapes from patient, remove gloves and don a pain of unsterile gloves to clean the back table.
D. Remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to clean back table.
A. PPE (personal protective equipment) will protect surgical personnel from coming in contact with body fluids on the drapes. After the drapes are removed, the surgical technologist can safely remove the gown and gloves to complete clean-up with a pair of unsterile exam gloves. Note: The surgical technologist may be required to remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, in some circumstances.
A major function of the colon is to

A. absorb water.
B. secrete hormones.
C. secrete digestive enzymes.
D. absorb the products of digestion.
A. Reabsorbing water is a primary function of the colon, along with elimination of digestive wastes.
functions of the small intestine
Absorbing the products of digestion and Secreting hormones
Secreting digestive hormones?
a function of the parietal cells of the stomach.
Which scissor is most likely found in a basic hysterectomy set-up?

A. Potts-Smith
B. Stevens
C. Jorgenson
D. Iris
C. A Jorgenson scissor is a heavy and curved dissecting scissor used in OB/GYN surgery.
Which of the following is a procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck?

A. rhinoplasty
B. rhytidectomy
C. cheiloplasty
D. blepharoplasty
B. Rhytidectomy removes excess skin on the face and neck.
is plastic surgery on the lips.
In comparison to oral Fahrenheit temperatures, rectal Fahrenheit temperatures are

A. exactly the same.
B. approximately 1 degree lower.
C. approximately 1 degree higher.
D. approximately 2 degrees higher.
C. Rectal temperatures are 1 degree higher than oral temperatures.
Which of the following procedures involves the injection of contrast media into the spinal subarachnoid space?

A. myelogram
B. arteriogram
C. lumbar puncture
D. pneumography
A. A myelogram is injection of contrast media into the spine subarachnoid space.
An arteriogram
is the injection of contrast media into the arteries.
a procedure that allows access to the subarachnoid space for removal of cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes.
lumbar puncture
A pneumography
is an anatomical illustration of the lung.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?

A. tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. cold, clammy skin
D. increased respirations
B. Hypertension is NOT a symptom of shock. Hypotension is a symptom.
tachycardia ?
rapid pulse