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NASM CPT Final Exam 2018

NASM
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Terms in this set (500)

When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate?
upon waking in the morning
Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency.
YMCA 3-Min Step Test & Rockport Walk Test
What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage?
Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin fold measurements
What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease?
35.0-39.99
What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation.
Gluteus maximus
What do you call measurable data regarding a clients physical state, such as body composition, movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory ability?
Objective information
What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background
Subjective information
What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment?
Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended
What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment?
Height of a chair
Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view.
Feet turn out and knees move inward
Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view.
Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out?
Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head)
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out?
Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward?
Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis
What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's knees move inward during an Overhead Squat Assessment?
Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean?
Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean?
Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches?
Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches?
Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward?
Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor
What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's arms fall forward during an Overhead Squat Assessment?
Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff
After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch?
Overactive muscles
After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen?
Underactive muscles
Name movement compensations observed during a Pushing assessment.
Low back arches, shoulder elevates, head migrates forward
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's lower back arches?
Hip flexors and erector spinae
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's lower back arches?
Intrinsic core stabilizers
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's shoulder elevates/head migrates forward?
Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate?
Middle/ lower trapezius
During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward?
Deep cervical flexors
Name the assessment that measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control.
Shark Skill Test
What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation?
Wearing dress shoes (high heels)
Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure
Beta-blockers
Name 2 conditions in which Beta-blockers might be prescribed.
High blood pressure and arrhythmias
What muscle action develops tension while lengthening and prevents resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner?
Eccentric
What muscle action develops when a muscle exerts more force than is placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle?
Concentric
Name the imaginary bisector that divides the body into right and left halves.
Sagittal plane
This movement primarily occurs from side to side, as if there were a wall in front of and behind the body.
Frontal plane movements
Name the energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body.
Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP
What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test?
Zone one
What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test?
Zone two
What information can be provided to the health and fitness professional by knowing the client's occupation?
Common movement patterns
What relevant information can you learn about a client based on their occupation and movement capacity?
Extended periods of sitting, repetitive movements, dress shoes, mental stress
Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain?
Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
This chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs.
Left atrium
Give the straight percentage method equation for calculating a client's target heart rate.
(220-client's age) x desired intensity
Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration.
Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration.
Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor
What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client?
Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same time each day) and average the results to ensure accuracy
Name the functional unit of the muscle that lies in the space between two Z lines. It produces muscular contraction and is formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin.
Sarcomere
The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.
Biomechanics
The heart rate training zone between 65 to 75% that builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery.
Zone 1
The heart rate training zone between 76 to 85% that increases both aerobic and anaerobic endurance.
Zone 2
The heart rate training zone between 86 to 95% that builds high-end work capacity.
Zone 3
Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts.
Systolic blood pressure
Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.
Diastolic blood pressure
The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat.
Bioelectrical impedance
What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest
What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease?
A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females
Muscles that assist the prime movers.
Synergists
Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is____.
25 or greater
Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues.
Mechanoreceptors
What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test?
Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Golgi tendon organs
Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change
Muscle Spindles
On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat?
Very overweight clients
The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.
Length-tension relationship
What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
Synergistic dominance
The process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
Autogenic inhibition
Name some of the benefits of circumference measurements.
Can be used on obese clients, good for comparisons and progressions, good for assessing fat patterns and distribution, inexpensive, easy to record
Name the systems of the human movement system (kinetic chain).
Nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system
Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise.
Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas
What are some primary causes of muscle imbalance?
Postural stress, emotional duress, repetitive movement, cumulative
trauma, poor training technique
Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance.
Knowledge of results
The energy pathway used in moderate to high intensity activities that can only be sustained for 30 to 50 seconds.
Glycolysis
The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response.
Motor control
Repeated practice of motor control processes, which leads to a change in the ability to produce skilled movements.
Motor learning
When assessing a client during a Single-leg Squat, from which vantage point should you view the client?
Anterior
Which muscle synergies (muscle groups) are primarily used in a Shoulder Press?
Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius
The name of the receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint.
Joint receptors
Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this.
Muscle imbalance
The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.
Neuromuscular efficiency
A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle.
Epimysium
What are the three support mechanisms of blood?
Transportation, regulation and protection
The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people?
Individuals lacking shoulder stability
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation?
Latissimus dorsi
Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment.
Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome
What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion syndrome?
Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion
Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome.
Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain
What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome?
Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain
Name the altered joint mechanics associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension
Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique
Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome.
Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae
Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome.
Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome
Which muscles would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome?
Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, and infraspinatus
Average stroke volume of an adult.
70 mL
Name two abdominal muscles used for trunk rotation.
Internal and external obliques
Name five performance assessment tests.
Davies Test, Shark Skill Test, Push-up Test, Upper Extremity Strength Assessment, Lower Extremity Strength Assessment
What regressions could you make for clients who are unable to perform a Single-leg Squat assessment?
Use outside support for squatting assistance or perform a Single-leg Balance without squat
A force that produces rotation.
Torque
Movement of the bones around the joints.
Rotary motion
What are the four Ps of marketing?
Product, price, place, promotion
How many calories are in a gram of fat?
9
Making a good first impression includes the following:
Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body language
Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence.
Self-management, goal setting, self- monitoring, positive self-talk, psyching up, imagery
Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat.
Nonessential amino acids
Name the five stages of change.
1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance
What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals?
Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support
The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals.
Instrumental support
Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern.
Emotional support
This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise.
Informational support
This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise.
Companionship support
Type of questions that can be answered with one word.
Directive questions
Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients.
Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction
What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer?
2.0
The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART.
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals?
1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment?
The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
Estimated Average Requirement
The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined.
Adequate Intake
The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases.
Tolerable Upper Intake Level
What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer?
Fiber
What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions?
Carbohydrates
Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods.
Carbohydrates
The daily recommended intake of fiber.
38gformen;25gforwomen
What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes?
1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb)
The number of amino acids the body uses.
20
Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer.
Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids
Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins A, D, E, and K.
Fats
What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male?
3 liters
What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake?
20-35%
Name the eight essential amino acids.
Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine
Name the process in which amino acids are used in energy production. It occurs when the body is in a negative energy balance.
Gluconeogenesis
A substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake.
Dietary supplement
The process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation
Exercise imagery
What are four psychological benefits of exercise?
Promotes positive mood, reduces stress, improves sleep, reduces depression and anxiety
How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat?
3500
What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves.
A, D, B6
Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates.
Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet
Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%.
Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet
Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%.
Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet
Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content.
RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet
What are the risks of following an overly restrictive diet? Which is a very low calorie diet?
Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation
What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE).
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6-10% of total energy expenditure (TEE).
Thermic effect of food (TEF)
Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service.
Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints
Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat.
Excess protein intake
A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios.
Complete protein
A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids.
Incomplete protein
What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount?
Limiting factor
What are the 10 nonessential amino acids?
Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine
What are the two semi-essential amino acids?
Arginine and histidine
What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet?
More than 35%
Name three monosaccharides.
Glucose, fructose, and galactose
Name three disaccharides.
Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water?
60%
What are five things the body needs fats for?
Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells
What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume?
20 to 25% of total caloric intake
Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration.
Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin
Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration.
Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen
Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration.
Water and sodium
The fluid loss of even _____ percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels.
2
In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake?
At least one week
What is the duration of the post-workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion?
90 minutes
Name seven typical disordered eating patterns.
Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates
Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements.
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc
Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes.
Dietary reference intake
What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D?
Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage
What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium?
Kidney stones
What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron?
Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation
How often does a NASM CPT need to renew their credentials?
Every 2 years
What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal?
20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs
What is the traditional reason for use of a dietary supplement?
To provide the body with nutrients that might not be adequately supplied by a diet
Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE?
20%
The professional who is legally qualified to practice in the field of nutrition.
Registered Dietician (RD)
Four scenarios where supplemental protein may be helpful.
Quick amino acid consumption before or after weight training; to replace whole-food protein for weight loss; when whole food is not available; for bodybuilders, wrestlers, or weight conscious athletes preparing for competition
How many calories are in one gram of a carbohydrate?
4 calories
Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates.
1.5 g/kg
What is the ultimate nutritional limiting factor for exercise performance?
Carbohydrate availability
Give four reasons why the body needs carbohydrates.
They are the preferred form of energy, they constantly need to be replaced, parts of the central nervous system relies exclusively on carbohydrates, they efficiently burn and use fat and protein
Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body.
Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation
Name four body function processes that are improved with adequate water consumption.
Endocrine gland function, liver function, metabolic function, body temperature regulation
Name four nutritional guidelines for lean body mass gain.
Consume 4 to 6 meals per day, spread protein intake throughout day, take advantage of the post-workout window of opportunity to have protein and carbohydrates, don't neglect the importance of carbohydrate and fat intake
What are nine nutritional guidelines for weight loss?
Spread protein, carbohydrate, and fat consumption throughout the day; choose whole grains and vegetables over refined grains and simple sugars; eat 4 to 6 meals per day; avoid empty calories; drink plenty of water; weigh and measure foods for one week to get a better understanding of caloric intake; make small decreases in calories and increase activity; consume less that 10% of calories from saturated fat; limit alcohol consumption
Name four precautionary statements on dietary supplements.
Investigate the use of multivitamins for your specific needs, specific compounds can allow the body to function at full capacity, individual results may vary, general population should not use supplements for medicinal purposes
Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV.
Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium
A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories.
Kilocalorie or Calorie with a capital C
Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum total of what three energy components?
Resting metabolic rate (RMR), Thermic effect of food (TEF), and Energy expended during physical activity
Give factors that affect protein requirements
An individual's daily exercise and physical activity levels, daily caloric consumption, body-composition goals, sports-performance goals
How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?
6-12 ounces
What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain?
4-6
People in this stage of change do exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month.
Preparation
Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer
Nondirective or open-ended
The primary purpose of a business.
To create and keep a loyal customer base or following
The premise on which all buying decisions are based.
Emotion
Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression?
20 seconds
What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication?
1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means
What are some common barriers to exercising?
Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience
Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising.
Lack of time
The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances,
Nutrition
Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).
Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process.
Cumulative injury cycle
The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia.
Self-myofascial release
Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics.
They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis
What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury?
Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue
Name four core-strength exercises.
Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations
Name four core-stabilization exercises.
Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs
Name four core-power exercises.
Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw
Name five balance-stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch
Name five balance-strength exercises.
Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance
Name three balance-power exercises.
Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization
What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises?
Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jump- down with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization
Name four plyometric-strength exercises.
Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up
Name three plyometric-power exercises.
Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics
Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model.
Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press
Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.
Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press
Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model.
Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up
Name two different leg-stabilization exercises.
Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance
Name two strength level exercises for the legs.
Leg Press and Barbell Squat
Name two power level exercises for the legs.
Squat Jump and Tuck Jump
Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises.
Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press
Give examples of total-body strength exercises.
Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise
Give examples of total-body power exercises
Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk
Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training.
Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press
Give examples of shoulder-strength exercises.
Seated dumbbell shoulder press and Seated shoulder press machine.
Give three examples of shoulder- power exercises.
Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press
Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model.
Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row
Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.
Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pull- down; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row
Give examples of back-power exercises.
Medicine ball pullover throw and soccer throw
Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
Davis's law
What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program?
Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities
Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum.
Bracing
It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order.
1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo- pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency
What are the proper backside mechanics during sprinting?
Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis
What are the proper frontside mechanics during sprinting?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.
Agility
The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate for force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.
Quickness
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
Speed
The ability of the body to produce high levels of force for prolonged periods of time.
Muscular endurance
What is a component of core-power exercises that make them easy to identify?
Explosive movements with medicine balls
Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
Plyometric training
What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching
What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held?
30 seconds
Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization?
Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable
Body position progressions used for balance training.
1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable
Three types of core systems.
Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system
What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self- myofascial release?
30 seconds
What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity?
Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test
The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements.
Proprioception
What are the acute variables for static stretching?
1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching?
Reciprocal inhibition
When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching?
After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5
How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last?
5-10 minutes
What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment
Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Walking or jogging at 65-75% of maximal heart rate
Example of a Zone 2 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Group exercise classes or spinning at 76-85% of maximal heart rate
Example of a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.
Sprinting at 86-95% of maximal heart rate
Type of training that has been found to be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training.
Circuit training
Name the structures that make up the core.
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint
Name the five muscles of the Local Stabilization System of the core.
Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm
Name the four muscles of the movement system of the core.
Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps
The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint.
Flexibility
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
Relative flexibility
What are the benefits of a warm-up?
Increased heart rate and respiratory rate, increased tissue temperature, and increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise.
The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.
SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity
What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for?
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
What kinetic chain deviations must a certified personal trainer watch for in the cardiorespiratory portion of the workout for clients who possess rounded shoulders?
On steppers and treadmills watch for the grasping of the handles; on stationary bikes, treadmills and elliptical trainers watch for rounding of the shoulders.
Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise.
Knowledge of performance
The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.
Mechanical specificity
The state where there is an elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise.
Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome.
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training.
Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control
SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations?
Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors
What is the drawing-in Maneuver?
A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine.
Benefits of a cool-down include the following:
Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline
The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating______________.
controlled instability
Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include.
Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball
Exercises that use quick, powerful
movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
Plyometric training
Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production.
Integrated performance paradigm
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.
Strength
What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises?
Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific
Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position
What is dynamic balance?
Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling
What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise?
Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase
What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum?
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk
The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
Rate of force production
The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements.
A slight forward lean with neutral spine
What happens during the eccentric phase of a plyometric exercise
Increase in muscle spindle activity by pre stretching the muscle before activation
Research has demonstrated increased electromyogram activity and pelvic stabilization when this maneuver is performed.
Drawing-in maneuver
What is delayed-onset muscle soreness?
Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.
What is the proper way to progress an exercise in the stabilization level of training?
Increase proprioceptive demand
Give eight reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training.
Correct muscle imbalances, increase joint range of motion, decrease excess tension of muscles, relieve joint stress, improve extensibility of musculotendinous junction, maintain normal functional length of muscles, improve neuromuscular efficiency, improve function
Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.
Pattern overload
What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum?
Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility
The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition.
Active flexibility
During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome do stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain and emotional fatigue occur?
Exhaustion phase
The stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion
Self-myofascial release
What are three things recent research has demonstrated regarding circuit training?
It is just as beneficial as traditional cardiorespiratory training, it produced greater levels of EPOC and strength, and it produced near identical caloric expenditure when compared with walking at a fast pace.
The recommended reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
12-20 reps, 1-3 sets
The recommended intensity level for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance phase of the OPT model.
50-70%
The resistance training tempo used in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
4/2/1
The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model.
0-90 seconds
What is the recommended resistance training exercise selection for Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Perform 1 strength exercise superset with 1 stabilization exercise
List the acute variables for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training of the OPT model.
Perform 8-12 reps, 2-4 sets; 2/0/2 tempo for strength exercises, 4/2/1 tempo for stabilization exercises; 70- 80% intensity; 0-60 seconds rest
The recommended number of sets for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model?
3-5
The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model.
0-60 seconds
What repetition tempo is used for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model?
2/0/2
What is the recommended exercise selection and intensity for Phase 3 of the OPT model?
2-4 strength level exercises per body part, 75-85% intensity
What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model?
1-5 reps, 4-6 sets
What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in the Maximal Strength phase of the OPT model?
1-3 strength exercises per body part
What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
85-100% intensity, 3-5 minutes rest
What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model?
1-5 reps for the strength exercise and 8-10 reps for the power exercise, 3-5 sets
What is the recommended repetition tempo for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model?
1 strength exercise superset with 1 power exercise
Which phase(s) of the OPT model are most important for a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance and Phase 2 Strength Endurance
Name the training system that involves performing one set of each exercise.
Single-set system
In what Phase of the OPT Model would you perform Plyometric exercises as fast as possible?
Phase 5 Power
A resistance training system popular since the 1940s that consists of performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise.
Multiple-set system
A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set.
Pyramid system
A system of strength training that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another.
Superset system
A resistance training system that consists of a series of exercises the client performs one after the other with minimal rest between each exercise.
Circuit training system
The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit.
Peripheral heart action system
The resistance training system that involves breaking the body up into parts to be trained on separate days.
Split-routine system
A resistance training system that alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity.
Vertical loading
The resistance training system where the client performs all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part.
Horizontal loading
Name the four primary areas of focus in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training.
Increasing stability, increasing muscular endurance, increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature, improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination
The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.
Muscular hypertrophy
Name four upper body progressions in the Progression Continuum.
Two-arms, alternating-arms, single- arm, single-arm with trunk rotation
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest amount of time.
Power
What is the recommended rest period between pairs in Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model (in reference to resistance training).
1-2 minutes
What is the recommended rest period between circuits for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model?
3-5 minutes
Name benefits of suspension body- weight training.
Increased muscle activation, low compressive loads to the spine, increased performance, potential increase in caloric expenditure, improvements in cardiovascular fitness
Name six benefits of vibration training.
Improved circulation and cardiovascular function, alleviation of muscle soreness, weight reduction and increased metabolism, increased bone density, increased flexibility and range of motion, improved overall well-being
Approximately, what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds?
85 to 90%
What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training?
Cellular adaptations
Name three physiological considerations when training youth.
1. Submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement): children are less efficient and tend to exercise at a higher percentage of their peak oxygen uptake as compared to adults. 2. Glycolytic enzyme production is insufficient to sustain bouts of high- intensity exercise. 3. Limited ability to sweat in response to hot, humid environments (decreased tolerance to temperature extremes).
What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training?
Neurologic adaptations
What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
Increasing the speed of the movement or the load used
What Phases of the OPT model should be used for improving general sports performance?
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance, Phase 2 Strength Endurance, and Phase 5 Power
What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching
Straight percentage equation for determining max heart rate.
220 - age
Number of recommended plyometric (reactive) exercises for clients training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training.
0-2
Name the nine acute variables of training.
Repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, training volume, rest interval, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection
The type of specificity that refers to the energy demand placed on the body
Metabolic specificity
The type of specificity that refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection
Neuromuscular specificity
What are some benefits of kettlebell training?
Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance; increased mental focus and physical stamina; increased oxygen uptake; increased total-body conditioning; recruitment of the posterior chain; increased core stability and muscular endurance; increased strength and power; improved grip strength; increased metabolic demands and caloric expenditure
What is the amount of time active- isolated stretches should be held?
1-2 Seconds
What are the three adaptations/levels of the Optimum Performance Training model?
Stabilization, Strength, Power
Which cardiorespiratory training stage uses 65-85% intensity?
Stage II
What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 3 of the OPT model?
6-12
What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance of the OPT model?
8-12
What are the recommended repetition tempos for resistance training exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
2/0/2 strength exercises and 4/2/1 stabilization exercises
Percentage of intensity for resistance training in the second Phase of the OPT model.
70-80%
What is the repetition range for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
1-5
What are three goals of Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model?
Enhance neuromuscular efficiency, enhance prime mover strength, increase rate of force production
What are three goals of Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Increase motor unit recruitment, increase frequency of motor unit recruitment, improve peak force
Name the seven performance benefits achieved when following the OPT model.
Strength, power, endurance, flexibility, speed, agility, and balance
In a core training program, what is the number of core exercises recommended in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
0-4
What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Increasing proprioceptive demand, volume, intensity or by decreasing rest periods.
What is the primary goal in balance training?
To challenge the limits of stability
Name six special considerations for clients with hypertension.
Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers, don't let clients over grip equipment, modify tempo to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle action, perform exercises in standing or seated position, allow client to stand up slowly, progress client slowly
Name sample core exercises to use with a client that has hypertension.
Standing Torso Cable Iso-rotation and Standing Cobra
What are three things that clients should have established prior to incorporating dynamic stretching into their exercise program?
Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities
Heart rate zones used in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training.
Zone 1: 65-75%, Zone 2: 76-85%, Zone 3: 86-95%
What are two methods of progression in the Maximal Strength Training level of the OPT model?
Increase volume and load
What are two methods of progression in the Power level of the OPT model?
Increase speed and load
What exercise positions should be avoided after 12 weeks of pregnancy?
Supine and prone position exercises
What two flexibility techniques are recommended as a proper warm-up before athletic activity?
SMR (self-myofascial release) and dynamic stretching
What are three regressions for performing a Prone Iso-abs exercise?
Perform in standard push-up position, perform in push-up position with knees on floor, perform with hands on bench and feet on floor
What are two progressions for a Ball Dumbbell Row?
Alternating-arm and single-arm
Give one regression for a Ball Dumbbell Row.
Kneeling over ball
Name two progressions for Step-up to Balance.
Step-in frontal plane and step-in transverse plane
Give three progressions for Ball Squat, Curl to Press exercise.
Alternating-arm, one-arm, single-leg
What is the correct tempo for plyometric-stabilization exercises?
Hold landing for 3-5 seconds
What is the recommended tempo for core exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Medium
What is the recommended tempo for plyometric exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Repeating
What is the recommended tempo for resistance training exercises in Phase 4 of the OPT model?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
Physiological and functional changes associated with aging include reductions in the following:
Maximum attainable heart rate, cardiac output, muscle mass, balance, coordination, connective tissue elasticity, and bone mineral density
Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein
Diabetes
What are four special considerations for training clients with diabetes?
Make sure client has appropriate footwear, have client keep a snack with them, use SMR with care and under supervision of a physician, avoid excessive plyometric training and higher intensity training
What blood pressure reading defines hypertension?
Greater than or equal to 140/90
Condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones, resulting in porosity and fragility.
Osteoporosis
What is the correct repetition tempo for core-power exercises?
X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)
What are the recommended repetitions for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
1-5 reps strength and 8-10 reps power
What is the intensity level for power exercises performed in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
30-45% of 1RM or up to 10% of body weight
What are some special considerations for a client with osteoporosis?
Progression should be slow and well monitored; exercises should be progressed to free sitting or standing; focus exercises on hips, thighs, back and arms; avoid spinal loading; make sure client is breathing normally
What are the most appropriate phases of the OPT model to use with an obese client?
Phases 1 and 2
Name special consideration for training a client with arthritis.
Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions, stay in pain-free ranges of motion, only use SMR if tolerated by the client, there may be a need to start out with just 5 minutes of exercise and progressively increase.
Name special considerations when training a youth client.
Progression should be based on postural control and make exercising fun
Name three low-volume high-intensity training adaptations.
Increased rate of force production, increased motor-unit recruitment, increased motor-unit synchronization
What adaptations occur from high volume training?
Increased muscle cross-sectional area, improved blood lipid serum profile, and increased metabolic rate
What is the adaptation yielded from 3- 5 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 75-85% intensity?
Hypertrophy
Muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with what percent of 1 RM?
50-70%
What are the acute variables for active-isolated stretching?
1-2 sets, hold 1-2 seconds, 5-10 repetitions
What are the acute variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 repetitions, 3-10 exercises
Number of repetitions per exercise that should be performed for dynamic stretching.
10 repetitions
Which phases should be included in an annual plan for a client with the goal of basic body fat reduction?
Phases 1 and 2
After LEAVING the LEFT Ventricle, Blood ENTERS which of the following Structures
Aorta
Which of the following is the best example of an exercise that predominately uses the ATP-PC Pathway for Energy
a Set of 3 Barbell Cleans
Front* *Lunges* + *Bicep* *Curls* occur in which *Plane* *of + * *Lunges* + *Bicep* *Curls* occur in which *Plane* *of occur in which *Bicep* *Curls* occur in which *Plane* *of nt* *Lunges* + *Bicep* *Curls* occur in which *Plane* *of* *Motion*
Sagittal plane
The carpals of the hand are which of the following types of bones
Short
Dynamic stretching uses which of he following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility
Reciprocal Inhibition
Which of the following is necessary for Actin & Myosin Filaments in the Sarcomere to have the GREATEST Degree of Overlap
Optimal Length-Tension Relationship
Which of the following muscles actions lengthens a sacomere
Eccentric
Holding a Static-Stretch for prolonged period of at least 30-sec. causes which of the following Neuromuscular phenomena...?
Autogenic Inhibition
Which of the following terms refers to a neurotransmitter that carries action potential across a synapse
Acetylcholine
Which of the following joints is between the metacarpals and phalanxes
Condyloid
Which of the following Muscles is a SYNERGIST during the Seated-Cable Row exercise
Biceps Brachii
The autonomic nervous system contains which of the following subdivisions
Sympathetic
Increase force output of the synergists for hip extensions to compensate for the weaken gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following
Synergistic dominance
According to the sliding filament theory, muscular contraction occurs when
Myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weaken gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts
Synergistic dominance
Which of the following test should a Trainer use in his Cardiorespiratory Assessment to determine in which HR training zone the training should begin
YMCA Step-Test
The Durnin-Wonmersley formulas four sites of skiinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations
Biceps, Triceps, Subscapular, and Iliac Crest
The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is Primarily aimed at Identifying an individuals
Level of Risk for Cardiorespiratory Disease
Which of the following Methods uses a Percentage of a client's ESTIMATED Maximal *HR* to *Calculate* *Target* HRCalculatee following Methods uses a *Percentage* of a client's *ESTIMATED* *Maximal* *HR* to *Calculate* Target HR
Peak-Maximal HR
If a client demostrates an EXCESSIVE Forward Lean during the Overhead Squat Assessment which of the following Muscles should be Stretched during the Clients Warm-up?
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following would be MOST Useful in determining Shoulder Complex Compensations
Pushing Assessment; Lateral-view
Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body
Push -up
The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of he following
Estimated oxygen consumption
During a Static Postural Assessment a personal trainer observes that a client has Protracted Shoulders & a Forward Head. Which of the following Muscles would he expect to be SHORTENED?
Stermocleidomastoid + Pectoralis Major
While observing a pulling assessment a personal trainer notices a clients shoulders elevate which of the following exercises is most likely underactive
Lower Trapezius
While observing a pulling assessment a personal trainer notices a client's shoulder elevating which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the clients underactive muscles
Ball Cobra
While performing the Overhead Squat Assessment the Personal Trainer observes a client demonstrating a Low-Back Arch movement dysfunction which of the following muscles is probably over-active
Latissimus Dorsi
During a single leg squat assessment a personal trainer notices his clients knee drifting inward which of the following muscles is probably underactive
Gluteus Medius
A Personal Trainer is working w/ a Client who regularly wears high-heels. The Trainer should expect to see OVER-ACTIVITY or Tightness in (1) _______, (2)______, & (3)_____ ______
(1) Gastrocnemius, (2) Soleus, & (3) Achilles Tendon
Which of the following Static Stretches is MOST appropriate if a Clients Feet turn outward during the Overhead Squat Test
Gastrocnemius Stretch
When performed at an appropriate tempo which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the Power of a clients Pectoralis Major
Medicine Ball, Rotation Chest Press
Which of the following exercises is appropriate training modification for a client who is taking medication for Hypertension
Peripheral-Heart Action Resistance exercises
A client has Coronary Heart Disease is Obese & is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her Physician. The Trainer should use the ______ Test to measure an exercise intensity.
Use the Talk Test to measure an exercise intensity
A client has been training 3x/week in the Hypertrophy Phase for the last 2 weeks. He has worked with a Rep Range of 8-12 reps @ an Intensity of 80%-85% & Rested for 20-30 sec. b/t/n each exercise. He is NO Longer Improving his Strength and has expressed Feeling Fatigued. Which of the following Modifications should be made to Minimize the Effects of Over-training
8 reps @ 75% Intensity & Rest for 60 sec. b/t/n each exercise
Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects
Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings
A Multiplanar Step-up to Balance is an example of which type of exercise?
Balance-Strength exercise
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscles after a long run she describes feeling knots in the muscle which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first
Self-Myofascial Release
When performing a Single-Leg Squat exercise a client is Unable to keep the Knee of the Balance Leg in-line w/ the Toes which of the following exercises is an appropriate modification?
Single-Leg Balance Reach
While performing a multiplaner lunge to balance exercise a client exhibits excessive extension of he lumbar spine which of the following instructions can help this client
Tell the client to reduce her stride length
Ice Skaters are an example of which type of exercise?
(Ice Skaters are an example of..) Plyometric-Power exercises
With respect to the Integrated Flexibility Continuum in which of the following Categories is a Dynamic Stretching
Functional flexibility
During Sprinting, Backside Mechanics includes which of the following Motions, (1) Ankle _________, (2) Knee ________, & (3) Hip ________
Ankle Plantarflexion, (2) Knee *Extension*, & (3) Hip ExtensionExtensiontarflexion*, (2) Knee *Extension*, & (3) Hip *Extension*
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles
Psoas
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds which of the following systems is the client primarily using to produce energy
Oxidation
A client is performing a standard push up and the trainer notes a low back arch which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive
Transverse abdominis
A client is taking Prescription Beta-Blockers which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform
Standing Cobra
During the descent of a Single-Leg Squat a clients knee moves inward which of the following Muscles should the Trainer recognize as requiring Static-Stretching
Vastus Lateralis
In order to effectively target the piriformis when performing self myofascial release the client should slowly foam roll the
Posterior Hip
When performing the Static Latissimus dorsi Ball Stretch which of the following is a CORRECT Body position
Posteriorly-Rotated Pelvis
Which of the following Pairs is an example of a Phase 2: Strength Endurance Training superset
Barbell Squat + Single-Leg Touchdown
With respect to the general adaption syndrome delayed onset muscle soreness would most likely occur during which of the
Alarm Reaction
Which of the following Repetition Ranges is Optimal for Maximal Strength Adaptations
1-5 reps
Which of he following exercises should be avoided when working with a diabetic client
Proprioceptive Plyometrics
Which of the following is a Primary Adaptation of a HIGH-Volume, LOW-Intensity Resistance Training program
INCREASED Metabolic Rate
A Trainer is working with a Client who is developing Endurance in her Legs using LIGHT-weights + HIGH Reps, which of the following Principles of Specificity is being used...?
Mechanical
Which of the following is an example of a
Core Stabilization exercise
2-Leg Floor Bridge
A client performs a Ball *Squat*, *Curl* *to* *Press* followed by a *Push-up*, a *Standing* *Cable* *Row*, a *Single-Leg* *Scaption*, & *Single-Leg* SquatCurlnt performs a *Ball* *Squat*, *Curl* to Press followed by a Push-up, a Standing Cable Row, a *Single-Leg* *Scaption*, & Single-LegScaptionerforms a *Ball* *Squat*, *Curl* *to* *Press* followed by a *Push-up*, a *Standing* *Cable* *Row*, a *Single-Leg* *Scaption*, & Single-Leg Squat in a Circuit fashion this is an example of which of the following Resistance Training Systems...?
Vertical-Loading Systems
Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action system
Performing a circuit of exercises alternating upper and lower body movements
For the last three months a personal trainer has been working with a client who has coronary heart disease. Which of the following should the trainer consider when progressing the trainer program
Incorporating a circuit training program
Training with an intensity range of 30% to 45% of a one repetition maximum and a repetition tempo of x/x/x is associated with which of the following adaptations
Power
Which of the following exercises should an Intermediate client perform w/ a repeating tempo
Butt-Kicks
A client wishes to INCREASE Muscular Endurance & Stabilization which of the following Acute Variable is most appropriate...?
12 reps @ 70% of 1RM
A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching
I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge
A Rest Interval of 40 sec. b/t/n Sets of Resistance exercises WILL ALLOW Recovery of about which of the following Percentages of ATP and PC
75%
A Client has been Training for a 10K race for 4 months & Starts to experience pain in his Achilles Tendon. Which of the following responses is the client experiencing...?
Exhaustion
A personal trainer suggests that his client increase her heart rate up to 95% of her heart rate maximum which of the following energy pathways is predominately being used at this level of intensity
Phosphagen
What training adaptation is best achieved with a resistance training tempo of 4/2/1
Stabilization
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order ball squat curl to press ball dumbbell chest press standing cable row seated stability ball military press step up to balance and then repeat the sequence which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent
Vertical Loading
Which of the following is a benefit of circuit training programs
Greater levels of excess post exercise oxygen consumption
Which of the following has the highest concentration of calories per gram
Lipids
A persona trainer is advising a client on calorie distribution which of the following falls within the acceptable macronutrient distribution range for protein
30%
LARGE doses of βeta-Carotene intake can cause an INCREASED risk* for which of the following...?
Lung Cancer in Smokers
Which Fatty Acids are predominately implicated to RAISE Low-Density Lipoprotein Cholesterol levels?
Saturated Fatty Acids
Which popular diet has a carbohydrate content greater than 60%
Dean Omish diet
Which of the following is an acceptable Macronutrient distribution Range for Adult Carbohydrate Intake
8 g/kg per day
EXCESS intake of Vitamin-D can lead to....
Calcification of Arteries
Which of the following is the maximum carbohydrate percentage recommended for a sports drink
8%
DECREASED Levels of Thyroid Hormones tend to cause a DECREASE in
Resting-Metabolic Rate
For clients whose goal is to gain lean body mass which of the following is a basic nutritional guideline
Eat 4 to 6 meals per day
A pregnant client decides to start taking a multivitamin under the supervision of her doctor, which of he following attributes of her multivitamin could be harmful during the early stages of pregnancy with the potential of causing birth defects
700 micrograms Vitamin A
Metabolic Syndrome is a cluster of Symptoms characterized by what conditions
(1) Obesity, (2) Insulin Resistance, (3) Hypertension, (4) Dyslipidemia
The Purpose of asking an Open-ended question during a clients Initial session is to....?
Understand a Clients True Motivation & Invite discussion
Which of the following is the best example of a directive question (yes or no answer)
Is it important for you to reach your goal by this summer
An individual exercises regularly but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months in which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual
Action
An individual has a gym membership and visits sporadically but not frequently enough to maintain a well rounded exercise program In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client
Preparation
In which of the following scenarios is a trainer encouraging a client to practice self monitoring
Have a client keep an exercise log on a calender to help keep him motivated
A Client is Losing Motivation to Exercise so his Trainer recommends spending 15 min. before his next session thinking about the Feelings of Accomplishment, Sounds & Smells experienced during his last session. This is an example of which of the following...?
Imagery
A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into preparation section of the stages of change model
Provide the client with easy to read education materials about the benefits of exercise
Which of the following is an example of an open ended question
Why do you want to lose 20 pounds
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser this is an example of which section of the stages of change model
Preparation
A personal trainer provides his client with step by step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press and later asks the client if she was able to perform the exercise this is an example of what type of support
Informational
Which of the following exemplifies professional service and client care according to the code of professional conduct
Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist
A 70 year old client goes to see a personal trainer to regain cardiovascular fitness after a recent heart attack the trainer has not received written clearance from the clients doctor prior to the 1st training session but the client has already completed 10 training sessions with a different trainer what is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take
Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor
What of the following is outside of the personal trainers scope of practice according to the code of professional conduct
Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder
Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainers scope of practice regarding a clients nutrition
Discuss food preparation methods
Which of the following actions falls OUTSIDE a Personal Trainers Scope of Practice
Counsels a client w/ Anorexia about the Health Benefits of a Well-Balanced Diet
Which of the following requirements is necessary for a Personal Trainer to Re-certify his NASM-CPT Certification
Earn 2 CEU's (Continuing Education Units)
Which of the following falls w/in a Personal Trainers Scope of Practice regarding Nutrition?
Discuss Relationship b/t/n Chronic Disease + SPECIFIC Nutrient Deficiencies
According to continuing education requirements which of the following is true
Accumulate 2 units of approved Continuing Education every 2 years
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the opt model
Barbell Squat
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise?
Seated cable row exercise
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this individual?
Action
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