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Terms in this set (361)
When should the decontamination corridor be established?
before personnel begin working in the hot zone
Which is a common technique used for gross decontamination?
a shower system
What are the two procedures of gross decontamination?
Removing outer clothing and continuous shower of water
Which form of decontamination is the most thorough?
Which is a chemical decontamination process?
Which is one of the major categories of decontamination?
What i the major difference between emergency decontamination and gross decontamination?
The location where the decontamination procedure is performed
Absorption as a decontamination technique requires which type of surface to be effective?
What is a disadvantage of the isolation and disposal method of decontamination?
The cost of replacing the disposed equipment
What is one reason that identification of the hazardous material should precede the initiation of any decontamination procedure?
Some materials are water reactive and may require special decontamination procedures
Which form of chemical degradation occurs naturally and requires no intervention by responders?
In what control zone is the decontamination corridor established?
Mass decontamination is the process of:
performing gross decontamination on a large number of people at one time
Which method of decontamination makes use of chemical-specific cleaning solutions?
From the following list, which item is removed last during the decontamination process?
- Protective suit
- Personal clothing
Where should firefighters proceed to after thorough decontamination?
The technical decontamination process typically consists of how many steps?
It varies, depending on the circumstances
How should absorbent materials that are saturated with hazardous liquids be disposed of?
According to applicable laws and requlations
When is Technical Decontamination performed relative to gross decontamination?
Which method of decontamination may produce heat?
For what type of hazardous material is disinfection an effective decontamination strategy?
What is the subject of the acronym ALARA?
Levels of contaminants
What process involves a contaminant adhering to the surface of another material?
What is the planned and systemic process of reducing contamination to a level that is as low as reasonably possible?
For which item is isolation and disposal an appropriate decontamination technique?
In what type of decontamination would soil or sawdust be used?
What is true about dilution of a hazardous material with water?
It increases the volume of contaminated material
What is the term for the transfer of a hazardous material from its source to people, animals, the environment, or equipment?
When should a responder undergoing decontamination remove SCBA?
After removal of outer PPE
How does gross decontamination differ from emergency decontamination?
Gross decontamination occurs in the decontamination corridor
What is one of the major categories of decontamination?
Mass decontamination is a way of performing ____________ decontamination quickly on a large number of victims at a hazardous materials incident?
What is the term for the process of reducing and preventing the spread of hazardous materials by persons and equipment?
Which form of decontamination is used to kill microorganisms on tools and equipment?
In what decontamination procedure is a spongey material mixed with a liquid hazardous material and then the contaminated mixture is collected and disposed of?
Which classification of crimes consists of the intentional release or disposal of hazardous materials and waste into the environment?
Which instrument is usually included in the monitoring/detection equipment used at a terrorist/criminal toxic release incident?
What is the process of maintaining continuous possession of a piece of evidence?
Chain of custody
When it is suspected that an explosive device is present, hazardous materials responders should coordinate their actions with the ___________ to conduct an assessment of the scene and plan a response?
Explosive Ordnance Disposal Team (EOD)
The most likely cause of dead or dying animals at or near the scene or known suspected terrorist incident is:
When managing a possible criminal incident, which action should be taken first?
Secure the scene
Which has investigative authority for any suspicious letter or package that is sent through the postal system?
Postal Inspection Service
The FBI has a __________ -step process for collection of evidence.
A witness states that he observed a man remove a gas can from the trunk of his car, enter a building, then return without the gas can. Shortly thereafter, the building began burning. Which type of evidence is this?
Which is an indicator that a letter/package may contain explosives or chemical or biological agents?
An investigator using a computer model to show how fire could spread through a building is an example of ______________ evidence?
You are called to investigate an unusual odor. Upon arrival you find a house with a secure fence, an alarm system, and blacked-out windows. What do these clues indicate?
The ____________________ log is the written record of each person who handled the evidence, and the date and time on which it was transferred from one person to another.
Chain of custody
Which statement about evidence taken from a suspected terrorist/crime scene is correct?
It should undergo technical decontamination
When managing a suspected terrorist/criminal incident, special emphasis should be placed on?
securing the scene
What is the goal of field screening evidence?
To identify immediate hazards
Which type of evidence consists of a minute quantity of physical evidence that is conveyed from one place to another?
Which has investigative authority for any intentional release or attack involving hazardous materials or a WMD?
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
Which statement about interviewing a witness is correct?
the interview should be performed by an investigator or law enforcement officer
When should hazardous materials responders move evidence?
only when it is necessary in order to preserve it
Which is the best container for transporting noncorrosive evidence?
Unused paint can with airtight lid
How many containers will be needed for each piece of evidence that must undergo decontamination?
Which statement about evidence at suspected terrorist/criminal incidents is correct?
Avoid moving or disturbing evidence
At a suspected terrorist/criminal incident, who is responsible for determining which evidence is relevant?
In which method of foam application is a bank of foam formed on the ground in front of the flammable liquid pool and pushed over the pool by the continued application of foam?
You have used sandbags to create a barrier to prevent a hazardous liquid from entering a storm drain. Which product control tactic is this?
Which statement about regular protein foam is correct?
It has good expansion properties
Vapor dispersion with fans or fog streams should only be attempted after:
the hazardous material is accurately identified
Which foam application method is particularly well suited to transport vehicle accidents?
What is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquified gases such as LPG?
Rounded tank ends
A fire fighter is directing a foam stream over an aboveground open-top storage tank, letting the foam gently fall onto the surface of the liquid in the tank. Which foam application method does this describe?
In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what are Class B foams used for on hazardous materials incidents?
to suppress vapor production of un-ignited fuels
What is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquids at atmospheric pressure?
Oval/elliptical cross-sectional tank shape
Absorption is a difficult technique for operations level responders at a hazardous materials incident because:
it requires being in close proximity to the hazardous material
Which cargo tanks are certified to transport flammable and combustible liquids chemicals transported at low pressure (under 25 psi)?
An aboveground storage tank has leaked flammable liquid into the surrounding diked containment area. A foam stream is directed against the side of the tank. Foam is running down the side of the tank and covering the spilled fuel in the containment area. Which foam application method does this describe?
In a hazardous materials situation that is dangerous and unstable and responders cannot be properly protected, which action is most appropriate?
Withdraw to safe distance
Which item will be needed to build a dam in a flowing stream that is contaminated with a hazardous liquid?
What is the first step in a dilution operation?
Assess the viability of the proposed operation
The primary objective of the _______________ phase of a hazardous materials incident is to return the property or site of the incident to its original condition.
When foam is applied to a hazardous materials spill, what happens to the volume of the spill?
What are the actions that stop a hazardous material from leaking or escaping it's container?
How does a spill boom control a hazardous material?
It forms a barrier to the movement of the material
What term means areas in the terrain or places in a structure where materials might be contained or confined?
Natural control points
Where are the remote shut-off valves located on MC-306 cargo tanks?
near the front of the cab
Which protective action uses water or another liquid to reduce the concentration of a hazardous material?
Which item is an absorbent commonly used in hazardous materials operation?
Which phase of a hazardous materials incident begins when the imminent danger to people, property, and the environment is controlled and clean-up begins?
What is a confinement tactic?
What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions?
Initial isolation zone
A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in ______________ of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility.
Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions?
HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B
Which EPA level of protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors?
For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection?
A) you will be exposed to splashes of the material
B) you will have to handle the material
C) there are high atmospheric concentrations of the material
D) None of the above
D) none of the above
What is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud?
specialized computer software
The use of EPA level ______ protective clothing should only be used in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard.
Diversion of a material is an example of which mode of operation?
Which threshold limit value is the maximum concentration at which exposure should not exceed 15 minutes and should not be repeated more than four times per day?
Short-term exposure limit
A person has a radioactive material on their clothing. What is the term for this?
Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week?
What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material?
Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water?
How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate?
All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system
What is the most effective way to maintain security of an isolation perimeter?
posting security personnel
Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called:
What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator?
reduced weight and bulk for the wearer
How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed?
as a percentage
How can thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill?
to indicate the level of material remaining in a container
You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum EPA level of PPE for this situation?
On which type of hazardous materials incident should early responders establish a plan for decontamination?
on all incidents:
- involving gas or vapors
- where direct contact with the material is likely
- involving offensive operations
What is a proximity suit designed for?
Limited exposures to high temperatures
What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym?
Designate and enforce scene control zones
A fully encapsulated suit is part of EPA level __________ protective clothing?
Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder?
An entry team entering a hazardous materials hot zone to attempt victim rescue should have at least _______ members, not including the supervisor.
What is the first step when performing a long backboard rescue from a vehicle?
support the victim's head and cervical spine
In a multiple-casualty situation, it is imperative to rescue which victims first?
Those who have the best chance of survival
What is the correct START triage category for a patient who is unable to follow simple commands?
When balancing risk and benefit, how much risk to the safety of responders is acceptable when there is no potential to save lives?
In which situation would it be appropriate to assign a victim to lead other victims to safety?
When the means of egress is clear and free from danger
What type of search is a rapidly conducted search, focusing on those victims who are easily seen, lightly trapped, or otherwise easily accessible?
When using a webbing sling drag, what helps support the victim's head and neck?
the webbing sling
What is an advantage of the firefighter drag?
it can be used when the victim is havier than the rescuer
In most hazardous materials situations, at least _____ trained responders are required to make a rescue attempt, not including the supervisor.
Which drag provides particularly secure, quick, and efficient removal from a dangerous area?
When an emergency situation threatens the lives of both victims and rescuers, the first priority is to:
quickly remove the victim from the dangerous area
For which situation is the two-person seat carry particularly useful?
victims who are disabled or paralyzed
In general,, when should definitive medical care begin for a contaminated victim of a hazardous materials incident?
Which lift/drag requires two rescuers?
Which factor simplifies victim rescue?
all the victims can move under their own power
In a multiple-casualty situation, the first patients to transport are those who are ______________ tagged.
What is the correct START triage category for a patient with a capillary refill time of 3 seconds?
When using the clothes drag, what supports the victim's head?
the rescuer's arms
What is the simplest rescue technique for a victim who is responsive and able to walk without assistance?
Which statement about emergency decontamination is most correct?
It is the rapid removal of the bulk of the contaminant from an individual in a life-threatening situation
Which statement about secondary search is correct?
it is a thorough, extensive search
Which tactic protects people from a hazardous materials incident by keeping them in a safe atmosphere without evacuating them?
If a hazardous materials entry team has 5 members, how many members should the backup team have?
What is the term for establishing priority of care for multiple victims by sorting them according to the severity of their injuries?
Which odor is commonly associated with illegal drug production?
Which is one of the categories of biological warfare agent?
Which statement about evidence when working at a possible terrorist/criminal scene is correct?
Avoid handling or disturbing evidence
Which action should be taken prior to decontamination of law enforcement personnel at an illicit laboratory scene?
explain the decontamination procedure to law enforcement personnel
Drain cleaners, iodine crystals, table salt, aluminum foil, camera batteries, blenders, and food processors are most commonly associated with the production of illegal:
Which statement about lithium and sodium metal is correct?
they may react violently with water
At what point should decontamination areas and equipment be established when operating at an illicit laboratory scene?
Before personnel enter the scene
Petri dishes, microscopes, and incubators are signs of illegal ___________ production.
You discover an illegal laboratory, which you suspect is producing explosives. Which action should you take first?
Exit the area and establish an isolation perimeter
Which physical property is of particular interest to law enforcement officers dealing with live-human threats at an illicit laboratory?
UFL and LFL
What type of biological agent is ricin?
Biological warfare agents are generally categorized in one of ______ ways.
When managing terrorist/criminal incident, particular emphasis needs to be placed on:
prompt notification of law enforcement authorities
Which is a precursor in methamphetamine production recipes?
Which hazard is unique to illicit laboratories?
mines and booby traps
The majority of materials commonly used in illegal methamphetamine production are:
common and have legitimate uses
When managing a terrorist/criminal incident, particular emphasis needs to be placed on:
scene and evidence security
The muzzle blast of a firearm can result in ignition of a flammable atmosphere if the concentration is:
between the LFL and UFL
Which substance is produced by the majority of illegal labs in North America?
Which is a common clue to the presence of a meth lab?
When should a suspect at an illicit laboratory scene be decontaminated?
At the same time as the officers having custody of the suspect
The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) defines a/an _________________ as "an illicit operation consisting of a sufficient combination of apparatus and chemicals that either has been or could be used in the manufacture or synthesis of controlled substances."
clandestine drug laboratory
What type of biological agent is anthrax?
In an illegal laboratory, you find videotapes, photographs, maps, and blueprints. What should you suspect?
Which is the most common methamphetamine production method?
What is the purpose of the rings around an MC-3122 corrosive tanker?
What is one type of intermodal tank designation?
Which signal word indicates the material is moderately toxic?
Which statement about drum construction is correct?
it is determined by the type of the material it will contain
What does the blue diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate?
What is the approximate maximum capacity of a rail tank car, in gallons?
What is the DOT hazard class for explosives?
The onset of symptoms from a chemical hazard usually begins _________ after exposure.
minutes to hours
What would be a typical pressure reading, in psi, on a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field?
Pipeline warning signs include a waring symbol, the pipeline owner's name, and a/an:
emergency contact number
Which of the following is a significant drawback to using the senses to detect the presence of hazardous materials?
their use involves potential exposure to the hazard
How many gallons can be stored in pressurized horizontal tanks?
more than 1000
Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) would a fire fighter use when he or she knows the chemical identification number of the hazardous material?
What is the term for shipping papers on road and highway transportation vehicles?
bills of lading
If a fire fighter locates Petri dishes, microscopes, and incubators during a hazardous materials response, they may be a sign that ___________ are being used.
How large must the internal capacity of a solids storage container be for it to qualify as a bulk storage container?
more than 882 pounds
If the load contains more than one hazard class, what type of placard might be used during transport?
Which is the best source of basic information about the chemical makeup of a substance, the potential hazards it presents, appropriate first aid, and other pertinent safe-handling data?
Material safety data sheets
Which of these materials is most likely to be transported in a highway tanker that is narrower than most tankers and has several reinforcing rings around the circumference?
A) Petroleum products
B) nonpotable water
C) concentrated sulfuric acid
concentrated sulfuric acid
What is the most common method of transporting hazadous materials?
What is the term for shipping papers carried on marine vessels?
What is the maximum design pressure for a large, fixed-site, compressed-gas cylinder, in psi?
5000 or more
Which one of these materials are non pressurized horizontal storage tanks typically made of?
What do Dewar containers hold?
Which type of railcar design should a firefighter be able to identify?
What is the first step after determining that a hazardous material is present?
Establish control of the scene
What term refers to when a person's internal body temperature falls below 95 degrees F?
Typical span of control is ________ subordinates to one supervisor/
What is the first priority on any hazardous material incident?
At hazardous materials incidents, an assistant safety officer (ASO) may be appointed within the hazardous materials group or branch. For whose safety is this second safety officer responsible?
The hazardous materials Branch/Group
In general, a hazardous material in which state of matter will usually require the largest hot zone?
An intrinsically safe electrical device is one that:
will not ignite a flammable atmosphere
Which ICS section is responsible for providing needed services, facilities, supplies, and other forms of support?
Which of the following is the starting point for making plans to bring an emergency situation under control?
Which function should occur in the cold zone?
What is the ICS term for a geographically defined area of operations?
Who does the Hazardous Materials Branch Director report to?
Operations Section Chief
What is heat stroke?
High body temperature due to failure of the body's heat-regulating systems
What ICS section is responsible for the accounting and financial aspects of an incident?
Once you have determined that a substance is leaking from a container, what should you do next?
Isolate the material
Which is a primary influence on the development of cold-related injuries?
What is one of the key benefits of using ICS?
Where in the ERG can you find evacuation distances for small spills or fires?
in the orange-bordered pages
Hot, dry, red skin is most typical of heat:
Another term for the warm zone is the __________________ zone.
What is one of the command staff functions of the ICS?
the operations function is part of which ICS organizational element>
What job function is part of the ICS command staff?
What function should occur in the warm zone?
What is one of the general staff positions of the ICS?
What term refers to the use of gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection to prevent exposure to a biological agent?
What part of the body does bubonic plague attack?
the lymph nodes
What type of team conducts a quick evaluation of the area to identify the number of people involved?
Part of the definition of terrorism requires that such activity:
be in furtherance of political or social objectives
Which of the following is classified as a choking agent?
C) Carbon Monoxide
D) Carbon Dioxide
What is one potential means for dispersing a chemical agent over a wide area?
Which blister agent causes immediate pain upon contact with the skin?
When responding to a terrorist event, you should be particularly alert for the possibility of:
secondary events designed to harm or hamper emergency responders
Which system is used to communicate with public officials and the public so protective measures can be implemented?
Color-coded threat-level system
What is the term for terrorism that electronically targets computers or the internet?
The highest potential for infection by biological agent is by:
What kit did the US military develop as an antidote to nerve agent exposure?
Which is the best reason for establishing a perimeter around a known or suspected terrorist incident scene?
To deny exit to those who may be contaminated, prior to decontamination
To be effective, liquid nerve agents must be in __________ form.
On the Homeland Security color-coded system, what is the color code for the lowest risk?
What is the most common method for dispersing chemical agents?
Terrorists have used explosive devices in thousands of attacks, but in recent years there has been a new trend in their use. What is this trend?
When should firefighters handle a potentially explosive device?
at no time
If smallpox was eradicated from the world in 1980, why is it a threat today?
some countries kept samples of it alive
Where is the bacterium that causes plague commonly found?
Packing radioactive material around an explosive device creates what is known as a ___________ bomb.
On the Homeland Security color-coded threat-level, what color code represents the most severe risk?
Under what circumstances are alpha particles the most harmful to the human body?
when they are ingested or inhaled
What acronym is used to remember the support of nerve agent exposure?
Domestic terrorism involves those acts that are:
performed by groups in the US with no influence by foreign interests
Who is qualified to use high temperature-protective clothing?
fire fighters who are specifically trained in its use
When atmospheric conditions at a hazardous materials incident are unknown, what is the minimum level of respiratory protection for operations level responders?
Positive pressure SCBA
According to the EPA classification system, what is the level of protection affoded a suit that fully encapsulates the wearer and SCBA?
What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions?
What is the most common problem associated with wearing chemical-protective clothing?
Which statement about decontamination of disposable chemical-protective equipment is correct?
it should be decontaminated sufficiently so that removal is safe for the wearer
You are working at a hazardous materials incident. In your position, there is no potential for harmful exposure to the substance. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation?
Which cooling technology involves a vest designed to wick perspiration away from the body?
phase-change cooling technology
You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that an air-purifying respirator is effective with this substance and that it does not present a hazard to exposed skin. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation?
When referring to a breathing apparatus, what does the S stand for in SARs?
What is the primary role of the medical monitoring station?
to evaluate the medical status of personnel engaged in operations
Chemicals pass into and through a material o a molecular level by which process?
What is one drawback of vapor-protective clothing?
it retains the wearer's body heat
What is the subject of the acronym TRACE-MP?
potential hazards at a hazardous materials incident
Level ________ PPE should be used when the hazardous material identified requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and lungs.
What is the process by which a hazardous chemical moves through a given material on the molecular level?
What is the NFPA standard on vapor-protective ensembles for hazardous materials emergencies?
A/An ___________________ garment provides full body protection from gases, vapors, and liquids.
What is the NFPA standard on liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous materials emergencies?
What chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer?
According to the HAZWOPER regulation, Level _______ is the minimum level of protection to be worn in an unknown environment.
When should the pre-entrance medical monitoring be completed?
just prior to donning PPE
Which statement about chemical-protective clothing is correct?
it may be either encapsulating or nonencapsulating
What is the expansion ratio of propane?
The alteration of the molecular nature is known as a ____________ change.
What is it called when there is not enough fuel in a fuel/air mixture?
What type of agent prevents the body from using oxygen?
What type of agent is designed to incapacitate rather than kill?
What is the temperature at which sustained combustion will occur?
What is an etiological agent?
a biohazard agent causing illness or death
What mnemonic device helps fire fighters remember the seven categories of harm that can be caused by terrorism agents or other hazardous materials?
What is the process by which chemicals enter the body through the gastrointestinal tract?
What quantity is the weight of a liquid as compound to an equal volume of water?
What does the M stand for in the acronym TRACE-MP?
What is the vapor density of air?
Of the following, which is the best example of secondary contamination?
A) exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging
B) contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident
C) contact with the material outside of its containment vessel or packaging
D) contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material
D) contact with runoff from firefighting operations with an ignited material
Which type of radiation is emitted as pure electromagnetic energy?
Normal Temperature and Pressure (NTP) for vapor pressures assume a standard ambient temperature of:
20 degrees C
What is the term for the process by which chemicals are brought into the body through an open cut?
What is the process by which toxic substances are brought into the body through the respiratory system?
What is used as a measurement of the corrosive strength of a substance?
What will gasoline or desil fuel do when water is applied?
float to the top
A person develops asbestosis after repeated exposures to asbestos over 20yrs. This is an example of what kind of health effect?
What does the T stand for in the acronym TRACE-MP?
At what pH is a substance neither acidic nor basic?
What will happen if water is applied to sulfuric acid?
popping and spattering
What mnemonic device helps fire fighters remember a set of lighter-than-air gases?
4H MEDIC ANNA
Which term refers to the concentration of a gas or vapor in air that will burn if provided with a source of ignition?
What is the term for a quick field test to ensure that a gas detector will detect the gases it is intended to?
The ________________ time of a gas detector is how much time it takes to clear a reading so a new reading can be taken.
Which item is required to zero a gas detector?
Which gas is sometimes referred to as "sewer gas?"
A ____________________ is a versatile detection device typically equipped with a combination of toxic gases and sensors and the ability to detect flammable gases and vapors.
When performing atmospheric monitoring of a building, where should you start?
around the outside of the building
Which procedure ensures that a particular instrument will detect the gas or vapor it is intended to at a certain level?
Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?
it has a wide flammable range
A material with a pH of _______ is the most corrosive.
What does pH measure?
the concentration of hydrogen ions
This detection device is dipped into an unknown liquid, allowing the chemical to come in contact with several small "windows," each with specific reagents designed to identify the presence of different chemical classifications.
Chemical test strip
Which type of gas detector operates by using an ultraviolet light lamp to break down the sample gas into electrically charged particles, which produce a current that is amplified and displayed by the instrument?
Ambient air at sea level contains ________% oxygen.
A gas monitor is sampling a combustible gas for which it has not been calibrated. Which statement about this situation is correct?
Accurate readings can be obtained through the use of a correction factor
What is the most commonly encountered source of carbon monoxide?
An oxygen-deficient atmosphere is defined as an oxygen concentration below _______%.
What function does the relative response factor perform?
corrects readings for differing combustible gases
The reagent in ______________ will undergo a particular color change when exposed to the contaminant it is designed to detect.
a colormetric tube
Which statement about detection/monitoring devices is correct?
misinterpreted monitor readings can result in poor decisions
Situational awareness begins with:
obtaining information about the situation
What is the minimal concentration of carbon monoxide at which all emergency personnel should wear SCBA?
Which type of gas detector uses a hand-powered bellows pump to draw a sample?
a colorimetrics tube
What is a neutral pH?
What special capabilities does Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy provide?
Specific identification of many substances by name
Which instrument ca be used to identify the components of a mixed air sample that may contain several different chemicals?
gas chromatography (GC)
What are the three basic steps of surveying the scene?
- Surveying the scene: to collect clues on the type(s) of materials involved
- Collecting the hazard and response information: regarding those materials
- Determining the behavior of the material: based on what the physical properties are determined to be
What senses can provide valuable clues to the responding personnel?
sight, smell, and sound
What are some clues (by sound) that could indicate the type of hazardous material, or the type of incident?
- hissing sound of pressurized container releasing it's contents
- banging/creaking from overstressed containers
What are some clues (by smell) that could indicate the type of hazardous material, or type of incident?
- odor of a gas leak
- burning materials
What are some clues (by sight) that could indicate the type of hazardous material, or type of incident?
- vapor cloud or fire
- injured persons in the area
- condensation lines on pressurized tanks
corrosive reactions taking place
- boiling of unheated substances
What are some of the best ways to survey the scene without risking exposure?
binoculars or other visual aids
What are some important things to note when surveying the scene?
- what type of container
- what is the container's size
- is the container marked
- what is the physical state of the material
- how badly is the container damaged
- how long has the container been leaking
- is the container on fire
- are there any injuries involved
- what is the topography like
- how is the land used
- how accessible is the release
- what are the weather conditions
- are there any nearby bodies of water
- what, if any, are the public exposure risks
- what types of utilities are in the area
- are there any storm or sewer drains nearby
- do potential sources of ignition exist
- is the incident inside a structure
- is anything out of the ordinary occurring
What is NFPA 704?
- marking system used for fixed bulk storage tanks and vessels in fixed facilities
- provides info about general hazards and degree of severity for flammability, toxicity, and reactivity
What does the blue diamond section represent?
health hazards of the material
What does the red diamond section represent?
flammability of the material
What does the yellow diamond section represent?
reactivity of the material
What does the white diamond section represent?
any special hazards associated with the material
What type of markings does the Hazardous Materials Identification System (HMIS) use?
What does the white section in the HMIS indicate?
what level of protective equipment is required
What does the asterisk (*) in the blue section of the HMIS indicate?
designates a material as a carcinogen (cancer-causing material) or for materials known to have an adverse effect given chronic exposure
What is the United Nations Numbering System (UN)?
international system of identifying hazardous materials and dangerous goods
How many digits are UN numbers?
What are the two parts to the UN/NA identification numbers?
- first part divides hazardous materials into nine hazard classes
- second part assigns a four-digit number to specific materials for identification purposes
What are the nine hazard classes?
3) Flammable liquids
4) flammable solids
6) poisons and infectious substances
7) radioactive substances
9) Hazardous materials not otherwise defined
ORM-D) other regulated materials
What forms of transportation is the UN/NA identification number required on?
tank cars, cargo tanks, and portable tanks
What items are represented on placards?
- hazard class symbol
- hazard class designation or 4-digit UN/NA number
- background color that represents the class
- UN hazard class number
What symbol/marking is used to identify elevated temperature materials?
What are elevated temperature materials?
- liquids at or above 212 degrees F
- liquids with a flash point at or above 100 degrees F that are intentionally heated and then transported at temperatures at or above their flash point
- solids at a temperature at or above 464 degrees F
What information are Pipeline markings required to provide?
- contents of the pipeline (product class)
- signal word: caution, warning, danger
- operator of the pipeline
- emergency contact telephone number
What is the symbol for military class 1 hazardous materials, explosive/fire?
mass detonation hazard
What is the symbol for military class 2 hazardous materials, explosive/fire?
explosive with fragments
What is the symbol for military class 3 hazardous materials, explosive/fire?
mass fire hazard
What is the symbol for military class 4 hazardous materials, explosive/fire?
moderate fire hazard
What information does a radioactive label provide?
- the visual hazard symbol indicates a radioactive material as does the UN class number at the bottom
- the vertical bars indicate the shipping category as either radioactive 1,2,or 3
- the contents line identifies the material being shipped in the package
- the activity line indicates the level of radiation emitted by the package
- the transportation index is the maximum level of radiation at a point 1 meter away from the surface of the package
What are the DOT requirements that define Bulk Packaging?
- Liquids: capacity greater than 119 gallons
- Solids: net weight greater than 882 lb or capacity greater than 119 gallons
- Compressed Gas: water capacity in excess of 1,000 lb
What is a DOT 406/MC306 nonpressurized?
- commonly used to transport gasoline, fuel oil, kerosine, and other flammable and combustible liquids
- can be constructed of steel or aluminum
- run to a normal maximum capacity of 9,000 lb
- internal pressure of 3-5 psi
- usually compartmented
- have recessed manheads for rollover protection
- normally egg-shaped or elliptical from the front to rear
- emergency shutoffs are located in front and rear of trailer
- may contain gasoline, fuel oil, alcohol, other flammable/combustible liquids, and class B poisons
Main hazards: fire and environmental damage
What is a DOT 407/MC 307 low-pressure?
- constructed of steel
- may be rubber lined
- normal capacity of 2,000 to 7,000 gallons
- pressure under 40psi
typically double-shelled for leak protection
- recessed manheads for rollover protection
- uninsulated tanks have cross section with external stiffening rings and a single compartment
- insulated tanks have horseshoe shaped cross section with one or two compartments
- may find flammable liquids, combustible liquids, poisons, and many other chemicals in these tanks
Main hazards: fire and environmental damage
What is a DOT 412/MC312 corrosive liquids?
- pressure under 75 psi
- normal capacity of up to 7,000 gallons
- tank cross section is round, similar to the MC 307 but smaller diameter compared to its length
- numerous rings around tank shell for strength and stiffening purposes
- built-in rollover and splash protection
- loading area typically covered with corrosive resistant materials
- typically be constructed in one large compartment
- contain acids of different varieties
Main hazard: chemical burns
What is the MC331 high-pressure tank?
- contain gases or liquids under pressure starting at 100psi
- capacities ranging from 2,500 to 11,500 gallons
- bolted manway at front or rear
- cross section is circular
- has rounded or dome shaped endheads indicating a pressurized container
- front or rear is round as well
- emergency shutoffs are located in front and rear of trailer
- typically be painted white or some other heat-reflective color
- carry propane, liquified natural gas (LNG), anhydrous ammonia, and other gases that have been liquified
Main hazard: depends on the chemical; however, rapid expansion should be expected
What is a MC338 cryogenic liquid trailer?
- heavily insulated steel tanks
- round cross section at front and squared-off cabinet/compartment at the rear where the valves are
- most often marked "refrigerated liquid"
may see puffs of vapor coming off of the tank where the pressure-relief valve is operating
- usually carry liquid oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and other gases that have been converted to a liquid by refrigeration
Main hazards: frostbite and burns
What is a Compressed gas tube trailer?
- units run with pressure between 3,000 and 5,000 psi
- series of steel tubes or cylinders banded and manifolded together
- typically have an overpressure device for each cylinder
- valves are protected with a compartment found at the rear of the trailer
- often carry helium, hydrogen, and other gases under pressure
- can be found at construction or industrial sites
Main hazards: depends on gas; however high pressures should be expected
What is a Dry-bulk cargo tank?
- not typically under pressure, but if so, pressure would be under 22psi
- from side, tank may look like a series of inverted cones connected together
- use air to assist with loading the dry powders
- discharge valves are located at the bottom of the hoppers
- carry a wide range of materials, ex: bakery flour, plastic pellets, fertilizers, and even slurry-like concrete in bulk
Main hazard: depends on the material contained, but toxic materials can also be carried
What are Nonpressure tank cars?
- typical capacity of 4,000 to 45,000 gallons
- operating pressures between 35-100psi
- older cars have expansion dome with visible fittings
- carry wide variety of materials including flammables, combustibles, oxidizers, organic peroxides, poisons, irritants, reactive liquids, and other similar materials
- valves and fittings are visible and accessible
- tank car has flat or nearly flat endheads compared to pressure tank car
Main hazards: depends on material contained
What are Pressurized tank cars?
- range in capacity from 4,000 to 45,000 gallons
- operate at pressures between 100-600psi
- constructed of steel or aluminum
- cylindrical noncompartmented design
- valves, gauges, and pressure relief valves are located inside a protective housing on top of the tank
- flammable liquids and toxic gases usually found in these cars
- tanks have rounded endheads that are more pronounced than nonpressure tank cars
Main hazard: depends on the material contained
What are Cryogenic tank cars?
- heavily insulated steel
- double wall design
- contains liquid refrigerated to -150 degrees F or less
- pressure of 25 psi or less
- fittings are at ground level at either ends or in the center side of the car in a cabinet
- carry same cryogenic materials often carried on the MC338
- liquid oxygen, nitrogen, carbon
dioxide, and other gases that
have been converted to a liquid
What are Dry Hopper cars?
- vary in configuration
- three different models:
- pneumatically unloaded car
- covered hopper car
- open-top hopper car
- Pneumatically unloaded hopper comes with air to assist in the unloading what may be dry caustic soda, nitrate fertilizers, plastic pellets, or other fine powders
- Open-top hopper is used for heavy coarse material like gravel, coal
- Closed top hopper is used to transport cement, grains, similar medium-granulated materials
What are box cars?
- identification of potential hazardous materials is typically not possible by the car's outer appearance
- responders should look for hazard placards
- refrigeration and heating systems may also pose a hazard
What are intermodule containers?
- a tank container that is placed in a frame
- protects the container
- also allows for easy lifting, stacking, and securing
- frame can be made of two types:
- Box type: encloses the tank
- Beam type: consists of frame structures
at the ends of the container
- can be used on ships, railways, or highways
- can transport same types of products as rail and highway containers
- can be found in fixed facilities and nonpressurized or pressurized containers
What are nonpressurized intermodals?
- two types:
- IM-101 and IM-102
- most common type used in
- typical maximum capacity of up to 6,300 gallons
- can carry solid or liquid materials
- some can be pressurized up to 100 psi despite being listed as nonpressure
- may contain nonflammable liquids, mild flammable materials, corrosives, miscellaneous industrial materials
What are Pressurized intermodals?
- typical maximum capacity of 5,500 gallons
- can operate at pressures up to 500 psi
- may contain liquified gases, LPG, anhydrous ammonia, and bromine
What are Cryogenic intermodals?
- designed as a tank within a tank separated by a layer of insulation
- area between the tanks normally containing a vacuum designed to keep contents cold
- construction similar to rail and cargo trailers
- may contain products such as helium, nitrogen, and oxygen
What are Tube module intermodals?
- several cylinders 9 to 48 inches diameter
- permanently mounted in an open frame with a compartment at one end that encloses the valving
- similar to rail and highway trailers
- may contain helium, nitrogen, and oxygen
What are Intermediate Bulk Containers?
- commonly found in industry to transport product around an industrial site and for moving bulk chemicals between processing facilities
- usually square-shaped
- can hold up to 500 gallons of liquid product or an equivalent amount of powders, slurries, or other forms of materials
- can be fabricated of aluminum, stainless steel, or a heavy gauge plastic
- plastic IBC often found inside a heavy gauge wire cage for stability and rigidness
What are Bulk Bags?
- capacities between 500 to 5,000lb
- contain solid materials such as pesticides or fertilizers
What are One-Ton Cylinders?
- capable of transporting one ton of chlorine
- 3ft in diameter and 8ft long with convex or
- transported on railcars and trucks
- contain liquified gases such as chlorine, phosgene, and sulfur dioxide
What are the DOT requirements that define Non-Bulk Packaging?
-Liquids: capacities less than 119 gallons
- Solids: capacities less than 882 lb or 119 gallons
- Compressed Gas: water capacity of 1,001 lb or less
What are the 7 types of Non-Bulk packaging?
- small containers
- dewar flasks
- compressed gas cylinders
What is Type A Radioactive Packaging?
-transports low-level radioactive wastes and radiopharmaceuticals with higher concentration than is allowed in excepted and industrial packaging
- have inner containment vessels of glass, plastic, or metal and packing material of polyethylene, rubber, or vermiculite
What is Type B Radioactive Packaging?
- used to transport spent fuel, high-level radioactive wastes, and high-concentration radio-isotopes
- range in size from a small radiography cameras to 55-gallon drums to heavily shielded steel casks that weigh 98 tons or more
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