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200 terms

RHIT 10

STUDY
PLAY
A hospital has been the messaging technology to securely route an alert for a patient's possible drug interaction or abnormal test result to the appropriate physician's pager number. What is the medical staff using?
clinical information system
A Chief Privacy Officer is evaluating software programs that will support the hospitals policy on security controls for computer terminals. One of the required items included in the RFP to vendors is ___ ___ __.
time out feature
Health Informatics, Inc. is a vendor with a large collection of clinical information systems and hospital information systems that are designed to share data without human or technical intervention. This is a(n) ___ ___.
interfaced system
The function of a(n) ____ ____ _____ is limited to data retrieval.
clinical data repository
A hospital, a 900 bed tertiary health care organization, is undergoing an information systems development. The system that would best meet its need is the ___ ___ ___ ___.
application service provider model
A 16 year old female delivers a stillborn infant at a hospital. The clinical documentation on the stillborn infant would be filed in the ____ record
mothers
When implementing the EHR, what is the technical security standard that requires unique user identification, emergency access procedures, automatic log-off, and encryption and decryption of data?
access control
Of 750 records filed during the week, 75 were not located. What is the filing error rate?
10 percent
A physician performed an outpatient surgical procedure on the eye orbit of a patient with Medicare. Upon searching the CPT codes and consulting with the physicians, the coder is unable to find a code for the procedure. The coder should assign..
an unlisted procedure code located in the eye
A system of preferred terminology for naming disease processes is known as ____ ___.
medical nomenclature
True or False: Principal diagnosis is included in minimum data maintained in the MPI
false
You are reviewing all patients have a diagnosis of anterolateral myocardial infarction within the past 6 months. What would be the best source to identify necessary charts?
disease index
One of the major functions of the cancer registry is to ensure that the patients receive regular and continued observation and management. How long should patient follow up be continued?
for the life of the patient
DSM-IV-TR is used most frequently in what type of healthcare setting?
behavioral health centers
A coder notes that a patient is taking prescription Pilocarpine. The final diagnoses on the discharge summary are CHF and DM. The coder should query the physician about adding a diagnosis of ____.
glaucoma
The patient is diagnosed with CHF. A drug of choice is ____.
digoxin
The ICD-10-CM utilizes a placeholder character, "__". This is used at a ____ character placeholder at certain 6 character codes to allow for future expansion.
x, 5th
The local safety council requests statistics on the number of head injuries occurring as a result of skateboarding accidents during the last year. To retrieve this data, you will need to have the correct ___ ____ and _____ codes
E codes, ICD-9-CM
A patient was admitted with severe abdominal pain, elevated temperature, and nausea. The PE indicated possible cholecystitis. Acute and chronic pancreatitis secondary to alcoholism was recorded on the face sheet as the final diagnosis. The principal diagnosis is
acute pancreatitis
In general, all three key components for the E/M codes in the CPT should be met or exceeded when a ...
new patient is seen
Three key components for E/M codes
history, physical exam and medical decision making
Code first ____ ____.
underlying disease
What classification system was developed to standardize terminology and codes for use in clinical laboratories?
LOINC
LOINC
logical observation identifiers names and codes
What classification system is used to classify neoplasms according to site, morphology and behavior?
ICD-O
ICD-O
international classification of diseases for oncology
According to UHDDS, a procedure that is surgical in nature, carries a procedural or anesthetic risk, or requires special training is defined as a ___ ___.
significant procedure
the "cooperating party" responsible for maintaining the ICD-9-CM disease classification is the ____.
AHIMA
An encoder that prompts the coder to answer a series of questions and choices based on the documentation in the medical record is called a(n) ___ ___ ___.
logic based encoder
An encoder that prompts the coder to answer a series of questions and choices based on the documentation in the medical record is called a(n) ___ ___ ___.
logic based encoder
What classification system was designed with electronic systems in mind and is currently being used for problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance and imaging?
SNOMED CT
The UMLS is a project sponsored by the ___ ___ ___.
national library of medicine
UMLS
unified medical language system
A patient is admitted with SOB and hemoptysis, A Chest X ray revealed patchy infiltrates in the left lung and possible pneumonia. On the third day of hospital stay a bronchoscopy with bx was done which revealed a sall cell carcinoma on the left upper lobe of the lung. A metastatic lesion was detected in the brain. The principal diagnosis is the....
small cell lung carcinoma
A patient was admitted to the ambulatory care unit of the hospital for a planned cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. Before surgery, the patient developed tachycardia and the surgery was canceled. After a workup for tachycardia, the patient was discharged. The outpatient admission should be coded in the following sequence"
cholelithiasis, tachycardia, V code for canceled surgery
A 75 year old female was admitted for repair of a hiatal hernia that was performed on the day of admission. While recovering, the patient fell out of her bed and sustained a fractured femur, which was surgically reduced. Further complications included severe angina for for which a cardiac catheterization and PTCA were performed. The principal procedure is..
herniorrhaphy
Cod 402, Hypertensive Heart Disease, would appropriately be used in which of the following situations?
hypertensive cardiovascular disease with CHF
A patient is admitted to the hospital 6 weeks post MI with severe chest pains, what is the correct diagnosis?
acute MI
Tinnitus due to allergic reaction after administration of eardrops would be coded as a(n)..
adverse effect
acute transplant rejection usually occurs after a period of several ____.
months
A special immune globulin that can halt erythroblastosis
RhoGAM
Receiving vaccination is an example of ____ _____.
artificial imunity
The first muscles affected by myasthenia gravis is the ____ muscles.
facial
A diagnosis of AIDS is made when ____ cell count drops below ____ cells per microliter
T, 200
PMN
polymorphonuclear leukocyte
The leading cause of chronic illness in childhood is ____.
asthma
RA causes chronic inflammation of _____ ____.
connective tissue
people with rheumatoid arthritis have ____ ____ in their blood.
rheumatoid factor
destruction of RBC's
hemolytic
fever characterized by myocarditis and arthritis
rheumatic
type of transplant rejection that actually occurs during the surgical procedure
hyperacute
treatment that works to prevent infection or disease
prophylactic
blood vessel cancer that causes reddish-purple skin lesions
Kaposi's sarcoma
fusion or total loss of joint function
ankylosis
Common name for urticaria
hives
type of immunity associated with circulating antibodies
humoral
another name for polymorphneuclear leukocytes
granulocytes
injection of an increasing amount of allergen over a long period of time
desensitization
A fracture that has protruded through the skin is a/an ________.
open fracture
Joints that allow limited motion are referred to as ________.
amphiarthrosis
An injury to ligaments inside the knee joint is referred to as a ________.
cruciate ligament tear
A rigid muscle contraction of the jaw muscles
tetany
a bone fracture appears to be mashed down, it is a/an _______
compression fracture
A traumatic injury to a joint with partial or complete tearing of ligaments is a ________.
sprain
Gout affects primarily ____.
males
condition caused by a metabolic error in the breakdown of certain protein foods is ________.
gout
TMJ
temporomandibular joint
Bone that is dense, smooth, and compact is referred to as ________.
cortical
The most common primary tumor of bone is _____.
osteosarcoma
An inflammation of the bone commonly cause by infection is ________.
osteomyelitis
A torn meniscus occurs in the ___.
knee
HNP
herniated nucleus pulposus
A painful condition caused by the protrusion of the soft center of a disc in the spinal column is referred to as ________
HNP
a process that causes the characteristic hardness of bones
mineralization
common incomplete fracture that occurs in children
greenstick
cyst that usually forms on a tendon sheath near the wrist
ganglion
overstretching injury of a muscle
strain
partial separation of a joint
subluxation
BMD
bone mass density
a thick fibrous connective tissue
fascia
RICE
rest, ice, compression, elevation
joints that have no movement
synarthrosis
degenerative joint disease
osteoarthritis
joints that allow complete movement
diarthrosis
impaired mineralization of the bone
osteomalacia
measurement of bone thickness
densitometry
joints that allow only limited movement
amphiarthrosis
Spongy bone
cancellous
deformity affecting the big toe
hallux valgus
The document in front of you includes a microscopic description of tissues excised during surgery. The type of document you are most likely to give this form is _____ _____.
pathology report
Patient data element that is collected in the MDS but not in the UHDDS is ____ ____.
cognitive patterns
In the number "10-001" listed in a tumor registry accession register, what does the prefix "10" represent?
the year the case was entered into the database
A risk manager needs to locate a full report of a patients fall from his bed, she would most likely find this information in the ____ ____.
incident report
For continuity of care, ambulatory care providers are more likely than providers of acute acre services to rely on the documentation found in the _____ ____.
problem list
Joint commission does not approve of auto authentication of entries in a health record because evidence cannot be proven that the----
physician reviewed and approved each report
You have been asked to provide information on the menstrual history, number of pregnancies, and number of living children on each OB patient form, the best place in the record to locate this information is the _____ _____.
prenatal record
An H&P is acceptable a week before admission as long as the doctor documents any ___ ____.
interval changes
You have been asked to identify every reportable case of cancer from a previous year. A key resource would be the facility's ____ ____.
disease index
Joint Commission requires the attending physician to countersign health record documentation that is entered by _____ or ____ _____.
interns, medical students
The minimum length of time for retaining original medical records is primarily governed by ___ ___.
state law
The use of personal signature stamps requires special measures to guard against delegated use. In a computerized patient record, similar measures might be utilized to govern the use of ____ ___.
electronic signatures
Discharge summary documentation must include...
significant findings during hospitalization
The performance of quality analysis is an important tool in ensuring data quality. These reviews evaluate...
the overall performance of documentation
Ultimate responsibility for the quality and completion of entries in patient health records belong to the ___ ___.
attending physician
The federally mandated resident assessment instrument used in LTC facilities consist of three basic components:
new care assessment, utilization guidelines, MDS
THe foundation for communicating all patient care goals in LTC settings is the _____ ___ __ ___.
interdisciplinary plan of care
In order to keep abreast changes in the workforce development of EHR specialists as outlined by ARRA and HITECH,you will need to regularly access this governmental agency
ONC
As part of Joint Commission, acute care hospitals are required to use these three elements before surgery.
identification of patient, confirm necessary documents are available, and mark the surgical site
Using the SOAP method of recording progress notes, which entry would most likely include a differential diagnosis?
assessment
You have been asked to print a list of the medical record numbers of patients who had CABG's performed in the past year. Which secondary data source could be used quickly to gather this information?
operation index
Facilities that are scanning and imaging paper records as part of a computer based system must give careful consideration to ___ ___ ____.
bar code palcement
What is a form or view that is typically seen in the health record of LTC patient but is rarely seen in records of acute care patients?
pharmacy consultation
The health record states that the patient is a female, but the registration record has the patient listed as a male. Which of the following characteristics of data quality has been compromised in this case?
data accuracy
The first patient with cancer seen in your facility on January 1, 2012 was diagnosed with colon cancer with no known history or previous malignancies. The accesnsion number assigned to this patient is
12-0001/00
Setting up a drop down menu to make sure that the registration clerk collects "gender" as "male, female, or unknown" is an example of ensuring data ____.
precision
In determining your acute care facility's degree of compliance with prospective payment requirements for Medicare, the best resource to reference for recent certification standards is the ____ ____
federal register
In an acute care hospital, a complete H&P may not be dictated for a new admission when ...
a copy of a recent H&P in the attending physicians office is available
What resource would be most helpful in providing standard definitions for data commonly collected in acute care hospitals when completing a data dictionary?
UHDDS
UHDDS
uniform hospital discharge data set
Physicians can access patient information from another facility using ____.
RHIO
When developing a data collection system, the most effective approach first considers....
the end users needs
A key data item you would find recorded on an ER record but not in an acute care record is the ...
time and means of arrival
A data item to include on a qualitative review checklist of infant and children inpatient health records that is not needed in adult records would be ..
growth and development record
In creating a new form or computer view, the designer should be most driven by...
end users needs
Under what circumstance can an original paper medical record be physically removed from the hospital?
acting in response to a subpoena duces tecum
Using the SOAP style, the patient states low back pain is as severe as it was on admission would be...
subjective
In 1987, OBRA helped shift the focus in LTC to patient outcomes. As a result, core assessment data elements are collected on each SNF resident as defined in the ___.
MDS
You need to track the field name of a particular data field and the security levels applicable to that field. Your best source for this information would be the facility's ___ ___.
data dictionary
A Medicare patient was admitted for disc surgery, but the progress notes indicate that due to heart irregularities, he may not be good surgical risk. You expect that a(n) ___ ____ will be added to his health record according to ____ regulations.
consultation report, COP
Physical assessment is an example of an ___ entry in the SOAP notes.
objective
According to ___ and ____, H&P must be completed prior ____ after ___ or prior to ___.
JCAHO, COP, 24 hours, admission, surgery
Consistently entering data into the patients record at the time and location of service instead of waiting for retrospective analysis is called ___ __ ___ ____.
point of care documentation
An example of a primary data source for health care statistics is the ____ ___.
hospital census
During retrospective review of an inpatient's record, the clerk notes that on day 4 of hospitalization there was a missed dose of insulin. What type of review is the clerk performing?
qualitative review
In your facility, it has become critical that information regarding patients who are transferred to oncology unit to be sent to an outpatient scheduling system to facilitate outpatient appointments. This information can be obtained most efficiently from the ____ ____.
R-ADT system
In your facility, the health care providers from every discipline document progress notes sequentially on the same form. Your facility is utilizing ____ ___ ___.
integrated progress notes
What service is least likely to be provided by a facility accredited by CARF?
palliative care
When partnering with other organizations, you value the importance of a development to support the exchange of health information across the continuum within a geographical community. You are promoting the organization to join a ____.
RHIO
When comparing trauma care services to other hospital based ED's, to ensure that your facility is collecting the same data as other facilities, you review elements from what data set?
DEEDS
To obtain information about the qualifications of individuals in your facility who have been authorized to record verbal orders, you will consult the hospital's ___ ___ and ____
bylaws, rules, regulations
computers that share resources such as printers, or hard disk space across a network
server
the standard microcomputer interface, type of user interface that allows a user to interact with software using text, graphics, and visual images, such as icons.
GUI
GUI stands for
Graphical user interface
run in local network
intranet
can be run outside of a network
extranet
HCFA
healthcare financing administration
formerly known as CMS
HCFA
work to ensure health provisions for those receiving medicare, medicaid and childrens health car
HCFA
works to standardize measures in health information management
AHIMA
numbers assigned to ambulatory procedures and services
CPT
primary purpose to provide voluntary accreditation
JCAHO
JCAHO
joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations
monitors disease outbreaks and assesses the performance of health systems around the world
WHO
CARF
commission on accreditation of rehabilitation facilities
customer focused standards to measure and improve quality of rehabilitation medicine
CARF
AoA
administration on aging
provides services to the elderly to help them remain independent
AoA
created to represent African American physicians and health professionals
NMA
NMA
national medical association
A method of determining criteria for cases that should be included in a registry
case definition
The number of new cases of a specific disease
incidence
PQRI
physician quality reporting initiative
a Medicare program that gives bonuses to physicians when they use treatment plans and clinical guidelines that are based on scientific evidence
PQRI
AARA
american recovery and reinvestment act
HIE
health information exchange
NHIN
national health information network
provision of financial incentives to physicians who provide evidence-based treatments to their patients
pay for performance
RCM
revenue cycle management
the process of analyzing large amounts of data to discover patterns or knowledge
data mining
EDI
electronic data interchange
HITECH
health information technology for economic and clinical health
NPP
notice of privacy practices
a HIPAA-mandated document stating the privacy policies and procedures of a covered entity
NPP
TPO
treatment, payment, and health care operations
under HIPAA, three conditions under which patients' protected health information may be released without their consent
TPO
NPI
national provider identification
under HIPAA, system for identifying all health care providers using unique ten-digit identifiers
NPI
intentional act of deception to take financial advantage of another person
fraud
malignant neoplasms of lymphatic tissues
lymphoma
determining the degree of spread of a malignant tumor
staging
pus-forming
pyogenic
blood poisoning
septicemia
excessive collagen formation; can result in hard, raised scar
keloid
general ill feeling
malaise
malignant disease of the bone marrow
leukemia
do not utilize the lymphatic system as readily as do carcinomas
sarcomas
In general, the overall survival rate of cancer is ___ percent
50
A blood transfusion reaction is an example of ______.
isoimmunity
A disorder based on immunity against other humans is referred to as ________.
isoimmune
Universal blood donor type
O
two most common blood types
O, A
Blood types are identified by____.
antigens
The acute infection stage of HIV is ___ to ___ ___ after initial infection
1, 3 weeks
indicate the formation of antibodies on the red blood cells
Coombs test
Once AIDS is diagnosed, life expectancy is approximately ___ to ___ years
3, 5
Bones in the pectoral girdle
clavicle, scapula
number of bones in the body
206
Term meaning front of elbow
antecubital
visualization of hollow organs
radiopaque
soft tissue visualization
MRI