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Instrument Flying Unit 11 IFR Flights
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1. (Page 372) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?
A. 12,000 feet
B. 15,000 feet
C. 16,000 feet
B. 15,000 feet
2. (Page 372) While passing near the CORTEZ VOR, southbound on V187, contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on
A. 118.575 MHz
B. 108.4 MHz
C. 122.3 MHz
A. 118.575 MHz
3. (Page 372) Your original route of flight was CEZ V391 JNC. However, due to thunderstorms en route, ATC revises your route to CEZ V391 DVC V68 MTJ V26 JNC. Calculate how much additional fuel you will consume given the following: winds=230@40 knots TAS=130 knots GPH=17
A. 13.2 gallons
B. 5.5 gallons
C. 9.1 gallons
B. 5.5 gallons
4. (Page 372) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187?
A. 10,900 feet MSL
B. 15,000 feet MSL
C. 12,400 feet MSL
C. 12,400 feet MSL
5. (Page 372) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?
A. 36 NM south of JNC
B. 52 NM south of JNC
C. 74 NM south of JNC
B. 52 NM south of JNC
6. (Page 375) What minimum navigation equipment is required en route on V448 to identify MOPIO?
A. One VOR receiver
B. Two VOR receivers and DME
C. One VOR receiver and DME
C. One VOR receiver and DME
7. (Page 376) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16R on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
A. 363 feet MSL
B. 374 feet MSL
C. 396 feet MSL
A. 363 feet MSL
8. (Page 376 and page 381) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?
A. 415 fpm
B. 478 fpm
C. 555 fpm
B. 478 fpm
9. (Page 377) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
A. 0800-2130
B. 0730-1400
C. 0600-2330
C. 0600-2330
10. (Page 380) To which maximum service volume distance from the OED VORTAC should you expect to receive adequate signal coverage for navigation at 8,000 feet?
A. 100 NM
B. 80 NM
C. 40 NM
C. 40 NM
11. (Page 380) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNATS6.MOURN) departure?
A. R-295 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet
B. R-210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet
C. R-265 within 15 NM below 9,000 feet
A. R-295 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet
12. (Page 378 and 379) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots and taking off on Runway 14, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (in feet per NM) to 4,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedures?
A. 435 fpm
B. 500 fpm
C. 1,000 fpm
C. 1,000 fpm
13. (Page 385) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is
A. 6,400 feet
B. 6,500 feet
C. 7,000 feet
C. 7,000 feet
14. (Page 385) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?
A. One VOR receiver
B. One VOR receiver and DME
C. Two VOR receivers
A. One VOR receiver
15. (Page 385) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum altitude at TROTS intersection is
A. 7,100 feet
B. 10,000 feet
C. 11,500 feet
C. 11,500 feet
16. (Page 387) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International in a Category B airplane?
A. 1,120 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM
B. 700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM
C. 700 feet MSL; visibility 1 NM
B. 700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM
17. (Page 387 figure 188) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 11.3 DME fix (COVDU) and the I-GPO 7.3 DME fix?
A. 320 fpm
B. 600 fpm
C. 710 fpm
B. 600 fpm
18. (Page 387 figure 188) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054 radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
A. completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer
B. intercepting the glide slope
C. CREAK outbound
C. CREAK outbound
19. (Page 386) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 22?
A. 380 fpm
B. 583 fpm
C. 887 fpm
C. 887 fpm
20. (Page 383 and Page 386) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206 radial of the instrument departure procedure?
A. On the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206
B. outside the 9 DME arc and past R-206
C. inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206
A. on the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206
21. (Page 387) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7.3 DME fix (HUDUT) and the I-GPO 4.1 DME fix?
A. 320 fpm
B. 740 fpm
C. 510 fpm
B. 740 fpm
22. (Page 387) What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International Airport?
A. I-GPO 1.2 DME
B. 6.2 NM from HUDUT FAF
C. 160 radial of BTG VORTAC
A. I-GPO 1.2 DME
23. (Page 387) When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?
A. 3,500 feet MSL
B. 5,700 feet MSL
C. 6,200 feet MSL
C. 6,200 feet MSL
24. (Page 387) When conducting a missed approach at PDX, what is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the runway and BTG VORTAC?
A. 4200 feet MSL
B. 3500 feet MSL
C. 6200 feet MSL
B. 3,500 feet MSL
25. (Page 392) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
A. 2 to 3
B. 5 maximum
C. 10 to 20
C. 10 to 20
26. (Page 392) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?
A. After descending to 1,440 feet MSL
B. After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first
C. When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile
C. When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile
27. (Page 391) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure?
A. 425 fpm
B. 580 fpm
C. 642 fpm
C. 642 fpm
28. (Page 390) Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs?
A. 20 DME from GVO VORTAC
B. 20 DME from MQO VORTAC
C. 30 DME from SBA VORTAC
A. 20 DME from GVO VORTAC
29. (Page 390) What is indicated by the inverse "H" symbol in the radio aids to navigation box fro SAN MARCUS VORTAC?
A. VOR with TACAN compatible DME
B. The availability of HIWAS
C. The VOR has a high altitude SSV Class Designation
B. The availability of HIWAS
30. (Figure 189 page 391 and legend 27 on page 393) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure?
A. 578 fpm
B. 543 fpm
C. 642 fpm
A. 578 fpm
31. (Page 392) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 3,100 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,400 feet MSL at the FAF?
A. 350 fpm
B. 400 fpm
C. 450 fpm
A. 350 fpm
32. (Page 396) For planning purposes, what is the highest usable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?
A. 16,000 feet MSL
B. 14,500 feet MSL
C. 13,999 feet MSL
A. 16,000 feet MSL
33. (Figure 167 page 397 and figure 168 page 398) At which point does the BYP.BYP6 arrival begin?
A. At the LIT VORTAC
B. at GLOVE intersection
C. At the BYP VORTAC
C. At the BYP VORTAC
34. (Page 399) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 33 approach be initiated?
A. When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator
B. After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint
C. Immediately upon reaching 4.1 DME from the FAF
A. When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator
35. (Page 399) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively fro the circling approach procedure?
A. 1,240 feet MSL; 1/2 SM
B. 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM
C. 1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM
B. 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM
36. (Page 395 and page 400) When DFW is landing to the North, at CURLE expect
A. to be instructed to maintain 200 knots
B. to fly a course of 010
C. radar vectors
C. radar vectors
37. (Figure 40 page 403) For planning purposes, what is the highest usable altitude for an IFR flight on V16 from the BGS VORTAC to ABI VORTAC?
A. 17,000 feet MSL
B. 18,000 feet MSL
C. 6,500 feet MSL
A. 17,000 feet MSL
38. (Figure 174 page 400 and figure 175 page 405) At which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?
A. ABI VORTAC
B. GLEN ROSE VORTAC
C. DELMO intersection
B. GLEN ROSE VORTAC
39. (Figure 174 page 400 and figure 175 page 405) Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL)
A. 123.775
B. 115.0
C. 119.87
C. 119.87
40. (Figure 174 page 400 figure 175 page 405) On which heading should you plan to depart DElMO intersection?
A. 016
B. 039
C. 355
C. 355
41. (Figure 177 page 406) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the THRE for RWY 36L?
A. 25 feet
B. 18 feet
C. no difference
A. 25 feet
42. (Page 406) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
A. localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability
B. localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available
C. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability
C. localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability
43. (Figure 177 page 406 and legend 27 on page 407) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glide path for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed)
A. 425 feet per minute
B. 530 feet per minute
C. 637 feet per minute
C. 637 feet per minute
44. (Page 408 and 409) What is your position relative to the FLOSI intersection northbound on V213 airway?
A. West of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection
B. East of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection
C. West of V213 and past the FLOSI intersection
A.West of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection
45. (Page 413) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?
A. When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude
B. When 3 minutes (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 373 feet MSL, whichever occurs first
C. Upon reaching 373 feet AGl
A. When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude
46. (Page 413) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
A. 3,000 feet MSL
B. 1,800 feet MSL
C. 1,080 feet MSL
B. 1,800 feet MSL
47. (Page 413) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?
A. 173 feet MSL
B. 200 feet AGL
C. 270 feet MSL
A. 173 feet MSL
48. (Figure 210 page 413 and legend 27 page 414) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glide path for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
A. 395 fpm
B. 480 fpm
C. 555 fpm
B. 480 fpm
49. (Figure 210 page 413 and legend 30 page 415) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley international?
A. HIRL, REIL, and VASI
B. HIRL and VASI
C. ALSF2 and HIRL
C. ALSF2 and HIRL
50. (Figure 210 page 413 and legend 32 on page 416) After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?
A. DH 424/24
B. No adjustments are required
C. DH 374/24
B. No adjustments are required
51. (Figure 208 page 411 and figure 209 page 412) At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?
A. CAM VORTAC
B. CANAN intersection
C. STELA intersection
B. CANAN intersection
52. (Figure 76 page 419 and figure 211 on page 421) Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?
A. L-2
B. L-7
C. L-13
C. L-13
53. (Figure 211 page 421) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?
A. When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact
B. At STAKK intersection
C. Over the BOZEMAN VOR
B. At STAKK intersection
54. (Figure 211 page 421) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure from RWY 9?
A. 350 fpm
B. 475 fpm
C. 968 fpm
C. 968 fpm
55. (Figure 78 page 420) When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
A. 10,200 feet
B. 10,500 feet
C. 8,500 feet
A. 10,200 feet
56. (Refer to figure 78 on page 420) What is the max altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?
A. 14,500 feet MSL
B. 17,000 feet MSL
C. 18,000 feet MSL
B. 17,000 feet MSL
57. (page 420) What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?
A. 8,500 feet MSL
B. 10,200 feet MSL
C. 10,000 feet MSL
B. 10,200 feet MSL
58. (Page 421) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
A. 11,800 feet MSL
B. 10,800 feet MSL
C. 10,200 feet MSL
C. 10,200 feet MSL
59. (Page 422) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 28R in an aircraft with a Vso of 72 knots?
A. A
B. B
C. C
B. B
60. (Page 422) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?
A. three
B. four
C. five
A. three
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