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163 terms

Midterm 1 Preparation

Fall 2012 Questions
Professor Smith told one class that drinking alcohol has been found to increase sexual desire. He informed another class that drinking alcohol has been found to reduce sexual appetite. The fact that neither class was surprised by the information they received best illustrates the power of
A) replication.
B) hindsight bias.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) the placebo effect.
B) hindsight bias
Our tendency to believe we know more than we do illustrates
A) naturalistic observation.
B) illusory correlation.
C) overconfidence.
D) the standard deviation.
C) overconfidence
Hindsight bias and overconfidence often lead us to overestimate
A) the placebo effect.
B) wording effects.
C) the standard deviation.
D) our intuition.
D) our intuition.
Three key attitudes of scientific inquiry are
A) pride, enthusiasm, and ingenuity.
B) ingenuity, practicality. and certainty.
C) certainty, creativity, and curiosity.
D) curiosity, skepticism, and humility.
D) curiosity, skepticism, and humility.
A questioning attitude regarding psychologists' assumptions and hidden values best illustrates
A) replication.
B) critical thinking.
C) hindsight bias.
D) overconfidence.
B) critical thinking.
Professor Ambra was skeptical about the accuracy of recently reported research on sleep deprivation. Which process would best enable her to assess the reliability of these findings?
A) naturalistic observation
B) replication
C) random sampling
D) the case study
In a written report of their research, psychologists specify exactly how anxiety is assessed, thus providing their readers with a(n)
A) hypothesis.
B) independent variable.
C) operational definition.
D) standard deviation.
C) operational definition.
The case study is a research method in which
A) a single individual is studied in great depth.
B) a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviors.
C) organisms are carefully observed in a laboratory environment.
D) an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behavior.
A) a single individual is studied in great depth.
In which type of research is a representative, random sample of people asked to answer questions about
their behaviors or attitudes?
A) experimentation
B) the survey
C) the case study
D) naturalistic observation
B) the survey
Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two variables
A) vary together.
B) are random samples.
C) influence each other.
D) show statistically significant differences.
A) vary together.
To determine whether the strength of people's self-esteem is related to their income levels, researchers
would most likely make use of
A) case studies.
B) correlational research.
C) experimentation.
D) naturalistic observation.
B) correlational research
If the points on a scatterplot are clustered in a pattern that extends from the upper left to the lower right, this would suggest that the two variables depicted are
A) normally distributed.
B) positively correlated.
C) negatively correlated.
D) not correlated.
C) negatively correlated.
Suppose that people who watch a lot of violence on TV are also particularly likely to behave aggressively. This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching violence influences aggressive behavior because
A) random sequences often don't look random.
B) correlation does not prove causation.
C) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations.
D) events often seem more probable in hindsight.
B) correlation does not prove causation.
Which of the following methods is most helpful for revealing cause-effect relationships?
A) the survey
B) the experiment
C) correlational research
D) naturalistic observation
B) the experiment
In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of
A) naturalistic observation.
B) survey research.
C) a case study.
D) an experiment.
D) an experiment
In a study of the effects of drinking alcohol, some participants drank a nonalcoholic beverage that actually smelled and tasted like alcohol. This nonalcoholic drink was a
A) dependent variable.
B) replication.
C) placebo.
D) double blind.
C) placebo.
In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable.
A) dependent
B) independent
C) control
D) experimental
B) independent
In a group of five individuals, two report annual incomes of $10,000, and the other three report incomes of $14,000, $15,000, and $31,000, respectively. The mode of this group's distribution of annual incomes is
A) $10,000.
B) $15,000.
C) $16,000.
D) $31,000.
D) $31,000.
During the past year, Zara and Ivan each read 2 books, but George read 9, Ali read 12, and Marsha read 25. The median number of books read by these individuals was
A) 2.
B) 10.
C) 12.
D) 9.
D) 9.
The symmetrical bellshaped figure used to represent the distribution of many physical and psychological characteristics is called a
A) bar graph.
B) normal curve.
C) correlation.
D) scatterplot.
B) normal curve.
Psychologists occasionally deceive research participants about the true purpose of an experiment in order to prevent them from
A) worrying about the potential harm or discomfort they may experience.
B) realizing that their privacy is being violated.
C) deciding that they really don't want to take part in the experiment.
D) trying to confirm the experimenters' predictions.
D) trying to confirm the experimenters' predictions.
A biological psychologist would be most interested in conducting research on the relationship between
A) neurotransmitters and depression.
B) skull shape and bone density.
C) self-esteem and popularity.
D) genetics and eye color.
The function of dendrites is to
A) receive incoming signals from other neurons.
B) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.
C) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) control pain through the release of opiate-like chemicals into the brain.
A) receive incoming signals from other neurons.
A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the
A) synapse.
B) agonist.
C) action potential.
D) refractory period.
C) action potential.
The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) synapses.
D) genes.
B) neurotransmitters.
The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the ________ nervous systems.
A) autonomic
B) sympathetic
C) somatic
D) peripheral
D) peripheral
The central nervous system consists of
A) sensory and motor neurons.
B) somatic and autonomic systems.
C) the brain and the spinal cord.
D) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
C) the brain ad the spinal cord.
Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) parasympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) autonomic
D) autonomic
The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of
A) interneurons.
B) endorphins.
C) neural networks.
D) glial cells.
The part of the central nervous system that carries information from your senses to your brain and motor-control information to your body parts is the
A) pituitary gland.
B) pancreas.
C) spinal cord.
D) reticular formation.
C) spinal cord.
A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus is called a(n)
A) neural network.
B) action potential.
C) neurotransmitter.
D) reflex.
D) reflex.
Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) limbic system.
D) reticular formation.
B) endocrine system.
Surgical destruction of brain tissue is called a(n)
B) synapse.
C) lesion.
C) lesion.
To identify which specific brain areas are most active during a particular mental task, researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n)
A) fMRI.
B) hemispherectomy.
C) ACh agonist.
D) brain lesion.
A) fMRI.
The cerebral cortex is the covering layer of the
A) brainstem.
B) corpus callosum.
C) amygdala.
D) cerebrum.
D) cerebrum.
In a clinical trial of neural prosthetics with paralyzed humans, a 25-year-old man constructed shapes on a computer screen by activating neurons in his
A) sensory cortex.
B) cerebellum.
C) motor cortex.
D) amygdala.
The sensory cortex is most critical for our sense of
A) sight.
B) hearing.
C) touch.
D) smell
C) touch.
Brain plasticity may contribute to the effectiveness of
A) phrenology.
B) electroencephalograms.
C) constraint-induced therapy.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
The visual cortex is activated when blind people read Braille. This best illustrates
A) plasticity.
B) neural prosthetics.
C) hemispherectomy.
D) phrenology.
Those whose corpus callosum is surgically severed are said to be patients with
A) brain plasticity.
B) phrenology.
C) neurogenesis.
D) split brains.
D) split brains.
Compared with right-handers, left-handers are
A) more likely to experience migraine headaches and less likely to suffer from allergies.
B) less likely to experience migraine headaches and more likely to suffer from allergies.
C) more likely to experience migraine headaches and more likely to suffer from allergies.
D) less likely to experience migraine headaches and less likely to suffer from allergies.
Endorphins are most directly involved in the control of
A) body temperature.
B) physical pain.
C) muscle contraction.
D) attention.
B) physical pain.
To monitor the sequence of activity in different regions of the brain, researchers are most likely to make use of a(n)
A) brain lesion.
B) fMRI.
C) electroencephalogram.
D) hemispherectomy.
Phineas Gage underwent a dramatic personality change after a tamping iron inflicted massive damage to his
________ lobes.
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) frontal
After Terry lost a finger in an industrial accident, the area of his sensory cortex devoted to receiving input from that
finger gradually became very responsive to sensory input from his adjacent fingers. This best illustrates
A) phrenology.
B) neurogenesis.
C) plasticity.
D) tomography.
The person most likely to suggest that the shape of a person's skull indicates the extent to which that individual is argumentative and aggressive would be a
A) neurologist.
B) behavior geneticist.
C) psychoanalyst.
D) phrenologist.
To fully appreciate the interaction of neural activity, mental processes, and the functioning of human communities, it
is most necessary to recognize that people are
A) consciously aware.
B) morally accountable.
C) biopsychosocial systems.
D) products of multiple neural networks.
C) biopsychosocial systems.
The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n)
A) association area.
B) myelin sheath.
C) glial cell.
D) synaptic vesicle.
B) myelin sheath
Dendrites are branching extensions of
A) neurotransmitters.
B) endorphins.
C) neurons.
D) glial cells.
C) neurons.
A synapse is a(n)
A) chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions.
B) automatic response to sensory input.
C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
D) neural cable containing many axons.
C) junction between a sending neuron and receiving neuron.
An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the surface of the brain is called a(n)
A) fMRI.
C) PET scan.
Which of the following body parts is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue in the motor cortex?
A) arms
B) face
C) trunk
D) knees
The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that
A) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body.
B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
C) controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs.
D) directs the muscle movements involved in speech.
B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
Neurosurgeons have severed the corpus callosum in human patients in order to reduce
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) epileptic seizures.
C) neural plasticity.
D) reward deficiency syndrome.
One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology centers around the issue of
A) identity or intimacy.
B) continuity or stages
C) imprinting or object permanence.
D) conservation or egocentrism.
As compared to the production of egg cells, sperm cell production
A) begins later in life.
B) involves a jellylike outer covering.
C) begins earlier in life.
D) involves differentiation prior to fusion with the egg.
A teratogen is a(n)
A) fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division.
B) unborn child with one or more physical defects or abnormalities.
C) chromosomal abnormality.
D) substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child.
Darlene smoked heavily during the entire 9 months of her pregnancy. Her newborn baby will most likely be
A) underweight.
B) autistic.
C) hyperactive.
D) hearing impaired.
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include
A) egocentrism.
B) brain abnormalities.
C) visual impairments.
D) autism.
Mr. Hersch triggered a rooting reflex in his infant son by touching him on the
A) foot.
B) knee.
C) arm.
D) cheek.
Habituation refers to the
A) awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed.
C) adjustment of current schemas to make sense of new information.
D) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.
From ages 3 to 6, the brain's neural networks are sprouting most rapidly in the
A) frontal lobes.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) brainstem.
Maturation refers to
A) the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviors.
B) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.
C) any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development.
D) the physical and sexual development of early adolescence.
Infant motor development is typically characterized by individual differences in ________ of the major developmental milestones.
A) both the sequence and the age-related timing
B) the sequence but not the age-related timing
C) the age-related timing but not the sequence
D) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing
Cognition refers to
A) an emotional tie linking one person with another.
B) the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
C) any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain.
D) any process of change that accompanies maturation.
Nageeb thought all nurses were young females until a middle-aged male nurse took care of him. Nageeb's altered conception of a "nurse" illustrates the process of
A) habituation.
B) assimilation.
C) accommodation.
D) attachment.
If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to
A) deal with the discipline of toilet training.
B) see things from the point of view of another person.
C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape.
D) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences.
Mrs. Pearson cut Judy's hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia's into six pieces. Sylvia cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that Sylvia doesn't understand the principle of
A) object permanence.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) accommodation.
Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a toy doll as a Christmas present. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
A) accommodation.
B) object permanence.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.
Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has proposed that autism is indicative of an inborn
A) stranger anxiety.
B) fetal alcohol syndrome.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) male systemizing tendency.
The Russian psychologist Vygotsky suggested that children's ability to solve problems is enhanced by
A) basic trust.
B) inner speech.
C) conservation.
D) imprinting.
At about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears and distress. This best illustrates
A) role confusion.
B) insecure attachment.
C) egocentrism.
D) stranger anxiety.
Studies of monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that mother-infant emotional bonds result primarily from mothers providing infants with
A) adequate nourishment.
B) body contact.
C) the opportunity to explore.
D) self-esteem.
In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting, infants with a secure maternal attachment are most likely to
A) act as though their mothers are of little importance to them.
B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings.
C) cling to their mothers and ignore the new surroundings.
D) show hostility when their mothers approach them after a brief absence.
A mother who is slow in responding to her infant's cries of distress is most likely to encourage
A) conservation.
B) insecure attachment.
C) object permanence.
D) egocentrism.
Many researchers believe that adult styles of romantic love correspond with childhood patterns of
A) habituation.
B) attachment.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.
Severe and prolonged child sexual abuse places children at risk for
A) fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) menarche.
C) imprinting.
D) substance abuse.
The McDougals use harsh discipline on their children and demand unquestioning obedience. Psychologists are likely to characterize the McDougals as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) egocentric
C) permissive
D) authoritative
Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be
A) authoritarian.
B) conservative.
C) permissive.
D) authoritative.
People experience rapid physical growth and sexual maturation during
A) late adolescence.
B) puberty.
C) the preoperational stage.
D) late childhood.
Which of the following is an example of a secondary sex characteristic?
A) female ovaries
B) male facial hair
C) the male grip
D) female height
The selective loss of unused connections among brain cells is called
A) pruning.
B) imprinting.
C) conservation.
D) accommodation.
Even though smoking marijuana would reduce the pain associated with her chronic medical condition, Juanita believes it would be morally wrong because it is prohibited by the laws of her state. Kohlberg would suggest that Juanita demonstrates a(n) _______ morality.
A) conventional
B) unconventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional
Critics of Kohlberg's theory of moral development have suggested that postconventional morality is more characteristic of ________ than of ________.
A) individualistic societies; collectivist societies
B) socialists; capitalists
C) African Americans; White Americans
D) Catholics; Protestants
According to Erikson, teens who suffer role confusion have not yet
A) experienced a sense of basic trust.
B) achieved a sense of autonomy
C) strived for a sense of competence.
D) solidified a sense of identity.
Adolescence is typically a time of
A) diminishing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.
B) growing parental influence and growing peer influence.
C) diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence.
D) growing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.
An elaborate ceremony used to celebrate a person's emergence into adulthood is an example of a
A) schema.
B) critical period.
C) secure attachment.
D) rite of passage.
Which of the following is true of adolescence in contemporary industrialized societies, as compared to previous centuries?
A) It begins earlier in life and ends earlier in life.
B) It begins later in life and ends earlier in life.
C) It begins earlier in life and ends later in life.
D) It begins later in life and ends later in life.
Physical abilities such as muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and cardiac output reach their peak during
A) late adolescence.
B) early adulthood.
C) puberty.
D) middle adulthood.
The ratio of males to females first begins declining during
A) prenatal development.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.
Aerobic exercise programs during late adulthood stimulate improvement in
A) object permanence.
B) basic trust.
C) menarche.
D) memory.
During the last few years, 75-year-old Mrs. Yamaguchi has gradually become so mentally disoriented that she can't find her way around her own house and often fails to recognize her husband. It is most likely that Mrs. Yamaguchi is suffering the effects of
A) crystallized intelligence.
B) menopause.
C) habituation.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
When adults of varying ages were tested for their memory of a recently learned list of 24 words, the older adults demonstrated
A) no decline in either recall or recognition.
B) a decline in recognition but not in recall.
C) a decline in recall but not in recognition.
D) a decline in both recognition and recall.
Professor Parker suggested that heterosexual adults are genetically predisposed to form monogamous bonds because this practice facilitated the cooperative nurture and survival of children. The professor's suggestion best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.
A) authoritarian
B) postconventional
C) psychosocial
D) evolutionary
When children grow up and leave home, mothers most frequently report feeling
A) depressed.
B) bored.
C) happy.
D) anxious.
The stability of personality traits is greater among
A) boys than among girls.
B) men than among women.
C) adults than among children.
D) preschoolers than among adolescents.
Questions about whether anxious children will grow up to be either fearful or relaxed adults most directly highlight the issue of
A) continuity or stages.
B) stability or change.
C) identity or role confusion.
D) nature or nurture.
Damage to a region of the temporal lobe essential to recognizing face results in a condition known as
A) the McGurk effect.
B) Young-Helmholtz syndrome.
C) synaesthesia.
D) prosopagnosia.
Sensation is the
A) transformation of sound and light into meaningful words and images.
B) detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system.
C) organization and interpretation of environmental events.
D) conscious awareness of a familiar stimulus.
The process by which we organize and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects and events is called
A) sensory adaptation.
B) sensation.
C) perception.
D) accommodation.
The effect of prior experience and current expectations on perception best illustrates the importance of
A) accommodation.
B) transduction.
C) sensory thresholds.
D) top-down processing.
Psychophysics is best defined as the study of relationships between
A) sensation and perception.
B) stimulus energies and neural
C) absolute thresholds and difference thresholds. impulses.
D) physical stimuli and psychological experience.
Soothing musical recordings accompanied by unheard verbal messages designed to increase a desire to lose weight best illustrate
A) synaesthesia.
B) sensory interaction.
C) subliminal stimulation.
D) difference thresholds.
After the invisible word "bread" was quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus, observers detected the related word "butter" much faster than the unrelated word "bubble." This best illustrates the impact of
A) sensory adaptation.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) priming.
D) Weber's law.
Some participants in a subliminal persuasion experiment thought that they were receiving subliminal affirmations of their self-esteem when in reality they were receiving subliminal memory-enhancement instructions. These individuals subsequently demonstrated
A) an actual improvement in their memory.
B) an erroneous belief that their memory had improved.
C) an actual enhancement in self-esteem.
D) an erroneous belief that their self-esteem had improved.
If the just-noticeable difference for a 10ounce weight is 1 ounce, the just noticeable difference for an 80-ounce weight would be ________ ounce(s).
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10
Diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as
A) accommodation.
B) blindsight.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) transduction.
The adjustable opening in the center of the eye is the
A) fovea.
B) iris.
C) cornea.
D) pupil.
The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the
A) pupil.
B) cornea.
C) retina.
D) iris.
The area of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the
A) blind spot.
B) visual cortex.
C) cornea.
D) lens.
Which of the following types of cells are located in the brain's occipital lobe?
A) rods and cones
B) bipolar cells
C) hair cells
D) feature detectors
Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates
A) serial processing.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) sensory interaction.
D) blindsight.
Small differences in the intensity of a sound received by each ear enable us to identify the ________ of the sound.
A) location
B) amplitude
C) pitch
D) absolute threshold
You are in an unfamiliar setting and your eyes are closed. Which of the following sounds would be hardest for you to locate correctly?
A) a bell ringing 6 feet directly in front of you
B) a pen hitting the top of a table beside you
C) a crying child standing 5 feet off to your right
D) music from a loudspeaker 15 feet to your left
Kinesthesis refers to the
A) quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
B) process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural signals.
C) diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
D) system for sensing the position and movement of bones, ears, tendons, and joints.
With her eyes closed, Sierra can accurately touch her mouth, nose, and chin with her index finger. Sierra's accuracy illustrates the importance of
A) accommodation.
B) kinesthesis.
C) sensory interaction.
D) sensory adaptation.
Phantom limb sensations best illustrate that pain can be experienced in the absence of
A) sensory input.
B) top-down processing.
C) conscious awareness.
D) parallel processing.
Experimenters bent a finger slightly backward on the unseen hands of 16 volunteers, while simultaneously severely bending a finger on a visible fake rubber hand. This experiment illustrated the impact of ________ on the volunteers' experience of pain.
A) blindsight
B) synaesthesia
C) psychological influences
D) phantom limb sensations
Mr. Kim's experience of chronic back pain is influenced by his cultural background, his attentional processes, and nerve damage caused by an automobile accident. An integrated understanding of Mr. Kim's suffering is most clearly provided by
A) Weber's law.
B) the volley principle.
C) opponent-process theory.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.
Research indicates that we have a receptor for a seeming fifth taste sensation, the meaty taste of
A) fish oil.
B) umami.
C) vitamin E.
D) protein.
The green-colored ham and eggs had such a strange appearance that they tasted terrible to Sam. This illustrates the importance of
A) difference thresholds.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) subliminal stimulation.
D) sensory interaction.
The Gestalt principles of proximity and similarity refer to ways in which we
A) adapt to perceptual changes.
B) activate meaningful perceptual sets.
C) organize stimuli into coherent groups.
D) see objects in three dimensions.
Infants are especially likely to avoid crawling over the edge of a visual cliff if they
A) have a lot of previous crawling experience.
B) have little previous experience with heights.
C) lack a capacity for psychokinesis.
D) lack vision in one eye.
The visually perceived distance between ourselves and an object provides an important cue for our perception of the object's
A) brightness.
B) shape.
C) color.
D) size.
The Moon just above the horizon typically appears to be unusually
A) large because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
B) bright because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
C) large because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
D) bright because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
Schemas are best described as
A) concepts that organize sensory input.
B) networks of interconnected brain cells.
C) visual receptor cells located in the eye.
D) monocular cues for depth perception.
Who would be most involved in designing user-friendly programming controls for TVs, DVD, and Blu-Ray players?
A) evolutionary psychologists
B) human factors psychologists
C) Gestalt psychologists
D) parapsychologists
ESP refers to
A) perception that occurs apart from sensory input.
B) the ability to move objects without touching them.
C) a readiness to perceive an object in a distorted fashion.
D) all of these characteristics.
Scientific analyses of the predictive powers of dreams offer support for the existence of
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) precognition.
D) none of these things.
Thousands of controlled experiments indicate that
A) many people have ESP.
B) ESP exists only in a few specially gifted people.
C) there is no reliable evidence that anyone possesses ESP.
D) it is impossible to conduct scientifically valid tests of ESP.
Seals in an aquarium will repeat behaviors, such as slapping and barking, that prompt people to toss them a herring. This best illustrates
A) respondent behavior.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) observational learning.
D) operant conditioning.
If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly associated with food in the mouth, the UR is the
A) ringing bell.
B) salivation to the ringing bell.
C) food in the mouth.
D) salivation to the food in the mouth.
In Pavlov's experiments, the taste of food triggered salivation in a dog. The food in the dog's mouth was the
A) US.
B) UR.
C) CS.
D) CR.
A dog's salivation at the sight of a food dish is a(n)
A) conditioned stimulus.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) unconditioned response.
D) conditioned
In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, a CR was
A) salivation to the sound of a tone.
B) salivation to the taste of food.
C) the sound of a tone.
D) the taste of food.
If the sound of an electric can opener causes a child to salivate because it has previously been associated with the presentation of food, the child's salivation to the sound of the can opener is a(n)
A) conditioned response.
B) unconditioned response.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) unconditioned stimulus.
The initial stage of classical conditioning during which a response to a neutral stimulus is established and gradually strengthened is called
A) association.
B) acquisition.
C) observational learning.
D) shaping.
When a CS is not paired with a US, the subsequent fading of a CR is called
A) discrimination.
B) generalization.
C) delayed reinforcement.
D) extinction.
After Pavlov had conditioned a dog to salivate to a tone, he repeatedly sounded the tone without presenting the food. As a result, ________ occurred.
A) generalization
B) negative reinforcement
C) latent learning
D) extinction
The reappearance, after a time lapse, of an extinguished CR is called
A) generalization.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) secondary reinforcement.
D) shaping.
Which of the following provides evidence that a CR is not completely eliminated during extinction?
A) partial reinforcement
B) spontaneous recovery
C) generalization
D) discrimination
After repeatedly drinking alcohol spiked with a nauseating drug, people with alcohol dependence may fail to develop an aversion to alcohol because they blame their nausea on the drug. This illustrates the importance of ________ in classical conditioning.
A) biological predispositions
B) negative reinforcement
C) cognitive processes
D) spontaneous recovery
Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats challenged the previously accepted principle that
A) positive reinforcement is more effective than punishment in changing behavior.
B) the US must immediately follow the CS for conditioning to occur.
C) learning is influenced by the frequency of association between the CS and US.
D) learning occurs only if a response is followed by reinforcement.
Little Albert developed a fear of rats after a white rat was paired with a loud noise. In this case, the loud noise was the
A) unconditioned stimulus.
B) conditioned stimulus.
C) conditioned reinforcer.
D) delayed reinforcer.
The law of effect refers to the tendency to
A) learn associations between consecutive stimuli.
B) learn in the absence of reinforcement.
C) repeat behaviors that are rewarded.
D) lose intrinsic interest in an over-rewarded activity.
To teach an animal to perform a complex sequence of behaviors, animal trainers are most likely to use a procedure known as
A) delayed reinforcement.
B) latent learning.
C) generalization.
D) shaping.
Teachers who effectively shape their students' study habits are most likely to
A) avoid the use of negative reinforcement to motivate effective study.
B) reinforce effective study with primary rather than secondary reinforcers.
C) reinforce effective study on a fixed-interval schedule.
D) reinforce even minor improvements in students' study skills.
Escape from a punishing event is a ________ reinforcer.
A) positive
B) negative
C) partial
D) delayed
Jacinda has a glass of wine after work because it relieves her anxiety. Her wine drinking is likely to continue because it is followed by a ________ reinforcer.
A) secondary
B) partial
C) negative
D) positive
When the Zantays eat dinner, the family dog begs for food. Sometimes, but not often, the children give in to the dog's begging and pass their pet a tasty morsel. You would be most justified in predicting that
A) the dog is eventually going to stop begging for food.
B) as soon as the children stop reinforcing the dog's begging, it will stop begging.
C) the dog is going to be quite persistent in its begging in the future.
D) the dog will always beg for food even if the Zantays never reinforce the begging.
Luana edits manuscripts for a publisher and is paid $25 for every three pages she edits. Luana is reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) fixed-ratio
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio
A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
A) specified time period has elapsed.
B) unpredictable time period has elapsed.
C) specified number of responses have been made.
D) unpredictable number of responses have been made.
After receiving a couple of traffic tickets for speeding, Masako no longer drives faster than the legal speed limit. This best illustrates the impact of
A) observational learning.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) punishment.
A child learns to stop fighting with his brother after the fight leads to suspension of the child's TV-viewing privileges. In this case, the suspension of TV-viewing privileges is a
A) positive reinforcer.
B) negative reinforcer.
C) positive punishment.
D) negative punishment.
Most psychologists think that the use of punishment is
A) ineffective in even temporarily restraining unwanted behavior.
B) more effective than negative reinforcers in shaping behavior.
C) the opposite of positive reinforcers and thus is its psychological equivalent in terms of changing behavior.
D) less effective than positive reinforcers in promoting desirable behavior.
Some psychologists believe that rats develop mental representations of mazes they have explored. These representations are called
A) primary reinforcers.
B) operant chambers.
C) discriminative stimuli.
D) cognitive maps.
Caroline loves to read and enjoys looking up the meanings of words she does not know. In school, her teacher promises a gold star to students each time they learn a new word. The teacher's behavior is most likely to undermine
A) latent learning.
B) intrinsic motivation.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) generalization.
Operant conditioning involves a learned association between
A) two responses.
B) two stimuli.
C) two reinforcers.
D) behavior and its consequence.
When one monkey sees a second monkey touch four pictures in a certain order to gain a banana, the first monkey learns to imitate that sequence. This best illustrates
A) secondary reinforcement.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) observational learning.
D) shaping.
Researchers discovered that the regions of the frontal lobe activated when a monkey moves peanuts to its own mouth are also activated when the monkey simply observes other monkeys move peanuts to their mouths. This discovery pointed to the significance of
A) intrinsic motives.
B) mirror neurons.
C) extrinsic motives.
D) cognitive maps.
Like European Christians who risked their lives to rescue Jews from the Nazis, civil rights activists of the 1960s had parents who
A) consistently used reinforcement in combination with punishment to shape their children's moral behavior.
B) modeled a strong moral or humanitarian concern.
C) consistently used psychological punishment rather than physical punishment in shaping their children's behavior.
D) consistently explained to their children the harsh consequences of immoral behavior.
A dramatic increase in children's violent play immediately after they viewed a video of the "Power Rangers" illustrates the role of television as a source of
A) respondent behavior.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) negative reinforcement.
D) observational learning.
Ten-year-old Karen frequently watches violent movies on television. This is most likely to lead her to
A) underestimate the actual frequency of violent crimes in the real world.
B) experience less distress at the sight of other children fighting on the school playground.
C) become more hesitant about personally starting a fight with another child.
D) become less fearful about being criminally assaulted.