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Anatomy: Chapter 18-21

Terms in this set (63)

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that...
A)the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
B)parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
C)the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
D)the atrioventricular (AV) node would become the pacemaker of the heart
A)the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by...
A)blocking the action of calcium
B)decreasing heart contractility
C)causing a decrease in stroke volume
D)causing threshold to be reached more quickly
D)causing threshold to be reached more quickly
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from...
A)a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
B)decreased delivery of oxygen
C)an inadequate supply of lactic acid
D)a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
B)decreased delivery of oxygen
During exercise, which of the following would occur on an electrocardiogram (ECG) compared to an individual at rest?
A)the P-R interval would decrease
B)the time from one R to the R of the next heartbeat would decrease
C)the S-T segment would decrease
D)the T wave would decrease
B)the time from one R to the R of the next heartbeat would decrease
Select the correct statement about cardiac output
A)A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction
B)If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased
C)stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases
D)decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume
A)A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
A)lacks striations
B)has more nuclei per cell
C)cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells
D)has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
D)has hap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates...
A)ventricular repolarization
B)ventricular depolarization
C)atrial repolarization
D)atrial depolarization
D)atrial depolarization
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to...
A)pump blood with greater pressure
B)pump blood through a smaller valve
C)expand the thoracic cage during diastole
D)accommodate a greater volume of blood
A)pump blood with greater pressure
Given an end diastolic volume (EDV) of 120 ml/beat and an end systolic volume (ESV) of 50 ml/beat, the stroke volume (SV) would be...
A)120 ml/beat
B)50 ml/beat
C)170 ml/beat
D)70 ml/beat
D)70 ml/beat
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
A)The tricuspid valves divides the left atrium from the left ventricle
B)The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
C)Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart
D)The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent back flow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction
D)The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent back flow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction
Which of the following receive(s) blood during ventricular systole?
A)pulmonary arteries only
B)aorta only
C)pulmonary veins only
D)both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
D)both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following?
A)friction of blood against the chamber walls
B)closure of the heart valves
C)opening of the heart valves
D)excitation of the sinoatrial (SA) node
B)closure of the heart valves
Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
A)atrioventricular (AV) valve
B)bundle branches
C)atrioventricular (AV) node
D)sinoatrial (SA) node
A)atrioventricular (AV) valve
If a person stands up suddenly from the prone (lying) position they may feel a sudden dizzy or lightheadedness. Which of the following is the least likely physiological response to the stimulation?
A)increasing peripheral resistance due to vasoconstriction
B)faster heart rate and greater heart contractility
C)increased parasympathetic nerve impulses to the heart
D)increased sympathetic output to heart
C)increased parasympathetic nerve impulses to the heart
Each of the following describes the action of aldosterone except one. Which of the following does not describe the activity of aldosterone hormone?
A)It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine
B)It promotes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the kidney to the blood
C)It will reduce urine output
D)It promotes an increase in blood pressure
A)It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the...
A)left side of the head and neck
B)left upper arm
C)myocardium of the heart
D)right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
D)right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?
A)They distribute blood to various parts of the body
B)The contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter
C)They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue
D)Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells
B)The contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter
Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?
A)chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes
B)neural controls
C)renal regulation
D)baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
C)renal regulation
During a marathon which of the following hormones is least likely to be released by the runner?
A)epinephrine
B)angiotensin II
C)antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D)atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D)atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
The pulse pressure is...
A)systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
B)systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
C)systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
D)diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
C)systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
Which of the following would not promote reabsorption from the venous end of the capillary bed?
A)decreasing hydrostatic pressure of the blood
B)increasing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid
C)reducing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid
D)increasing solute concentration in the plasma of the circulating blood
B)increasing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid
Which of the following statements is not true of the precapillary sphincters?
A)They allow blood to bypass the true capillaries that are fed by the metarterioles
B)They increase or decrease rates of perfusion to the tissues served by the true capillaries
C)They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel
D)They regulate the flow of blood in tissues served by the true capillaries
C)They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel
Blood flow to the skin...
A)Is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells
B)is controlled mainly by decreasing pH
C)increases when environmental temperature rises
D)increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze
C)increases when environmental temperature rises
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?
A)a decrease in oxygen levels
B)a decrease in carbon dioxide
C)changes in arterial pressure
D)an increase in oxygen levels
C)changes in arterial pressure
Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of...
A)arterioles
B)arteries
C)veins
D)capillaries
D)capillaries
Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by...
A)increasing hydrostatic pressure and edema will occur
B)decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases
C)decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur
D)increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases
C)decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur
Which of the following chemicals affects blood pressure for both the short and long term?
A)atrial natriuretic peptide
B)nitric acid
C)angiotensin II
D)aldosterone
C)angiotensin II
Histologically, the .... is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer
A)tunica adventitia
B)tunica intima
C)tunica externa
D)tunica media
D)tunica media
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is FALSE?
A)it consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together
B)it branches off of the inferior vena cava
C)its major vessels are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins
D)it carries, nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms to the liver for processing
B)it branch off the inferior vena cava
In the brain the fluid that filters out of capillaries is highly regulated. You would expect to see...feeding the brain
A)fenestrated capillaries, with thin diaphragms made of extracellular glycoproteins
B)continuous capillaries, with no intercellular clefts
C)metarterioles leading directly to thoroughfare channels
D)sinusoid capillaries, with incomplete basement membrane
B)continous capillaries, with no intercellular clefts
Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the portion...
A)esophagus
B)large intestine
C)stomach
D)small intestine
D)small intestine
Select the correct statement about lymph transport
A)under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits
B)lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling
C)lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles
D)lymph transport is faster than that occurring in the veins
C)lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscle
When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is...
A)increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to the blockage
B)abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region
C)severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb
D)shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
C)severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb
The thymus is the most active during...
A)middle age
B)childhood
C)fetal development
D)old age
B)childhood
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?
A)lumbar trunk
B)thoracic duct
C)right lymphatic duct
D)cisterna chyli
C)right lymphatic duct
The lymphatic capillaries are...
A)less permeable than blood capillaries
B)completely impermeable
C)as permeable as blood capillaries
D)more permeable than blood capillaries
D)more permeable than blood capillaries
Functions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT...
A)storage of iron
B)forming crypts that trap bacteria
C)removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood
D)storage of blood platelets
B)forming crypts that trap bacteria
Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue
A)Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood
B)lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue
C)T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances
D)once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently
B)lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue
Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n)
A)tonsil
B)Peyer's patch
C)thymus
D)appendix
A)tonsil
Which of the following exampling below describes an autoimmune disease?
A)infection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity
B)antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness
C)uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells
D)release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis
A)infection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
A)protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
B)activates the inflammatory process
C)protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
D)activates complement mechanism
A)protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by...
A)reducing its size
B)forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
C)producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
D)immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
C)producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation.
A)it requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens
B)it activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them
C)it is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function
D)classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins
B)it activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?
A)infusion of weakened viruses
B)booster shot of vaccine
C)passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
D)exposure to an antigen
C)passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
Plasma cells...
A)are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
B)have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
C)have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens
D)are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
B)have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
An advantage to adaptive immunity is...
A)the use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells
B)the ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens
C)its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen
D)its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure
C)its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen
Overlap in the innate and adaptive immune system is seen in all of the following examples but one. Which of the following examples does not illustrate the overlap of innate and adaptive immune responses?
A)NK cells causing apoptosis of an abnormal host cell, lacking MHC proteins
B)Macrophages becoming activated macrophages in response to cytokines released by T-helper cells
C)Plasma cells that produce large amounts of IgE that will ultimately allow mast cells to release histamine
D)dendritic cells presenting antigens on their MHC II proteins to T-helper cells
A)NK cells causing apoptosis of an abnormal host cell, lacking MHC proteins
Vaccines work by...
A)suppressing inflation to help spread healing
B)priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
C)boosting innate immunity with cytokines
D)providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections
B)priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
A)gastric juice
B)phagocytes
C)keratin
D)cilia
B)phagocytes
Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by...
A)penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells
B)allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria
C)disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane
D)providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol
C)disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane
All but one of the following occur during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does not describe the process of inflammation.
A)vasocontriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury
B)release of prostaglandins resulting in pain
C)chemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury
D)increases capillary permeability
A)vasoconstriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
A)T cells and B cells become activated when they bind to recognized antigens
B)The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs.
C)It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist
D)After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the counters with antigens occur
D)After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the counters with antigens occur
Phagocyte mobilization involves...
A)mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
B)margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues
C)monocytes as the most active phagocyte
D)diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
A)mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
Select the best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation.
A)teaching a lymphocyte to recognize "self" from foreign antigens
B)allowing the survival of lymphocytes that cannot bind to MHC proteins
C)removal of lymphocytes that fail to recognize "self"cells
D)removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
D)removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to local hyperemia caused by...
A)complement production
B)phagocyte mobilization
C)vasoconstriction
D)vasodilation
D)vasodilation
Select the correct statement about antigens.
A)one antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody
B)"self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens
C)the largest type of antigen is called a hapten
D)only small antigens exhibit reactivity
A)one antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed...
A)opsonization
B)diapedesis
C)chemotaxis
D)agglutination
A)opsonation
Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation...
A)T-cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them
B)autoimmune diseases would be likely to result
C)monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages
D)NK cells would be non-functional
A)T-cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them
Protects mucosal barriers
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
A)IgA
Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
C)IgD
First tp peak during a primary immune response
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
B)IgM
Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
D)IgG
Involved in allergies
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
E)IgE
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