Bontrager positioning for Final
Terms in this set (189)
How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine?
where does the spinal cord begin?
below the medulla oblongata
How many bones are in an adult?
abnormal anterior concavity of the lumbar spine (swayback)
abnormal convexity of the thoracic spine
thoracic & sacral
first primary curve
posterior part of vertebral arch
what forms the vertebral arch
two pedicles & two laminae
articulation of the rib to thoracic vertebrae
which vertebra has no body?
outer fibrous portion of vertebral disk
how many foramina does a cervical vertebrae have?
where are the zygapop joints of C2-C7 located?
right angles, or 90° to midsagittal plane
What is the best position to view zygapop joints C2-C7
where are the cervical intervertebral foramina located?
what is the best way to view cervical intervertebral foramina?
45° oblique with a 15° cephalad angle of the beam
support the weight of the head and assist in head rotation
lateral masses of C1
what position best views the thoracic zygapop joints
70-75° oblique position
what position best demonstrates the thoracic intervertebral foramina
lateral (90° from midsagittal plane)
what side does the LPO position open up
for a posterior oblique cerival spine in which intervertebral foramina are opened?
upside (farthest away from IR)
what is at level to C7
body of T1
what is at level to C3
what is at level to C1
U-shaped dip on the superior margin of the sternum
jugular notch(at level T2 and T3)
2 inches inferior to the manubrial notch
sternal angle at level (T4 and T5)
digital kv range for cervical spine
digital kv range for thoracic spine
what SID is used for lateral, swimmers, and oblique projections of the cervical spine to compensate for increased OID?
fx resulting from hyperflexion of the neck
fx that occurs when the neck is subjected to extreme hyperextension
neck stiffness due to age related degeneration of intervertebral disks
if the teeth are superimposed over Dens for an open mouth projection
reposition by slight hyperextension of the neckor angle CR cephalic
what is the tube angle for AP axial cervical spine projection
15-20° cephalad (CR lower margin of thyroid cartilage)
tube angle for RAO/LAO
15-20° caudad to C4
tube angle for RPO/LPO
15-20° cephalad to C4
to raise chin and tilt head back as much as possible
where should the CR be directed for a AP thoracic spine?
T7 (3-4 inches below jugular notch)
how much rotation of the body is needed to create 70° oblique thoracic spine
20° from true lateral
where are the intervertebral foramen of the lumbar spine situated to the midsagittal plane?
what angle do the zygapop joints of the lumbar spine form an angle to the midsagittal plane?
30-50° (upper near 50°, lower near 30°, average 45°)
how many sets of pelvic sacral foramina are in the sacrum?
small bony projections at the inferoposterior aspect of the sacrum
what is the neck of the Scottie dog?
what projection is best to view lumbar intervertebral Foramina
what corresponds to L4-L5
what corresponds to S1-S2
what is the disadvantage for PA lumbar spine
primary malignant neoplasms that spread to distant sites via blood and lymphatics
destructive lesions with irregular margins
dissolution of a vertebra, separation of the pars interarticularis
where is the CR directed on an AP lumbar spine with a large IR
level of Iliad crest (L4-L5)
where is the CR directed for a lumbar spine on a small IR
level of lower coastal margin (L3)
for an oblique lumbar projection if the pedicle is closer to the midline of the vertebral border and less of the pedicle is seen
indicates over rotation
where is the CR directed for spot projection
1.5 inches inferior to Iliad crest and 2 inches posterior to ASIS
where is lower margin of IR placed during scoliosis series
1-2 inches below iliac crest
method that assists in differentiating deforming primary curve from compensatory curve (scoliosis)
where is the direction of the beam for AP axial sacrum?
2 inches superior to pubic symphysis and 15° cephalad (prone 15° caudad)
where is CR for lateral sacrum/coccyx
3-4 inches posterior to ASIS
how many ribs connect directly to the sternum
which ribs connect to costocartilage 7
which ribs are considered false ribs?
how much higher is the vertebral end of the rib compared to the sternal end?
how much obliquity is needed to view the sternum in a thin chested thorax?
how many ribs are shown above the diaphragm on full inspiration?(errect)
upper 9-10 posterior ribs
best projection if a pt has an injury to right anterior ribs
fx of adjacent ribs in 2 or more places caused by blunt trauma
how many cranial bones are in the skull?
how many facial bones are in the skull
smooth raised prominence between the eyebrows
slight depression above each eyebrow
what houses the organs of hearing, equilibrium and mastoid air cells
petrous pyramid in the temporal bone
which bone serves as an anchor for the other 7 cranial bones?
central depression on the body of the sphenoid that looks like a saddle
sella turcica (houses pituitary gland)
back of the sella turcica
shallow depression that begins on the posteroinferior aspect of dorsum sellae
clivus(support for pons)
what projects superiorly from the cribiform plate?
what part of the ethmoid helps form the bony nasal septum?
inferior aspect of the body of each maxillae where 8 upper teeth occur
what triangular bone has furrow-like depressions for blood vessels
the process at the anterior end of the mandibular notch
which sinus exhibits a definite cavity at birth
which sinus can be affected by a tooth infection
where are ethmoid sinuses contained?
within the lateral masses or labyrinths of the ethmoid bone
air fluid level within the sphenoid sinuses after skull trauma
drainage pathways of the frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid sinuses
where are the sphenoid sinuses located on an open mouth waters method?
in the mouth
when a fragment of bone is separated and depressed into cranial cavity (ping pong fx)
a benign, cystic mass or tumor most common in middle ear
where does the top or the ear (TEA) correspond to
highest level of the petrous ridge
what is the average difference of an angle exist between OML &IOML
what must be perpendicular to the plane of the IR when head is in a true lateral position
interpupillary line (IPL)
what are the digital kv factors for cranium & facial?
what are the two common positioning errors
rotation and tilt
when mid saggital plane is rotated, not parallel to tabletop
where is the CR for the AP axial towne method?
30° caudad to OML, or 37° caudad to IOML at 2.5 inches above glabella
where is the CR placed for lateral skull
2 inches superior to EAM, MSP parallel to IR
where is CR placement for caldwell method?
Angle CR 15° caudad to exit nasion (petrous pyramids are projected into lower 1/3 of orbits), OML perp to IR; alternative with CR 25-30° caudad
where does the CR exit in a PA skull projection
where is the CR for the HAAS method?
CR angled 25° cephalad to OML exits 1 1/2 inches superior to nasion
where does the CR exit in the waters facial method?
acanthion, OML forms a 37° angle
where does the CR exit in the Caldwell facial method?
nasion, CR angled 15° caudad
where does the CR exit for the modified waters facial projection?
acanthion; LML perp, OML 55° angle with IR
where is the CR directed for lateral sinus?
midway between outer can thus and EAM
what is the largest solid organ in the human body?
liver, 3-4lbs, right upper quadrant
what are the major functions of bile?
aid in digestion of fats by emulsifying fat globules and absorption of fat
how much bile does the gallbladder hold?
whatare the functions of the gallbladder?
store bile, concentrate bile, and contract when stimulated
condition of having gallstones
accessory organs of digestion
salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder
the act of swallowing
the top of the stomach
the bottom of the stomach
where does barium settle in the stomach if pt is supine?
where does barium settle in the stomach when pt is prone/erect
first portion of the small intestine (small bowl)
what are the parts of the duodenum
bulb, papilla, horizontal, ascending portion
how long does it take for the stomach to empty after an average meal
what must be chemically digested to be absorbed
carbs, proteins, lipids
biologic catalysts found in digestive juices produced by salivary glands in the mouth and stomach, small bowel and pancreas
where does most absorption of digestive end products occur?
negitive contrast media with sawllowed air, CO2 gas crystals, and normally present gas bubbles in the stomach
a mixture of barium sulfate and water
usually contain 60% weight-to-volume of barium sulfate to water( 1 part BaSO4 to 1 part water)
3 or 4 parts BaSO4 to 1 part water
upper GI series
esophagogram, barium swallow to exam pharynx and esophagus
outpouching of the esophagus
what may be performed to detect esophageal reflux
breathing exercises, water test, compression paddle technique, toe touch maneuver
as the pt exhales and then tries to inhale against a closed glottis
radiographic examination of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum
Upper GI series
undigested material that becomes trapped in stomach
pouchlike herniations of a portion of the mucosal wall
how long is the small intestine
7 meters or 23 feet
how long is the large intestine
1.5 meters or 5 feet long
the radiographic procedure designed to study the large intestine
what are the three parts of the small intestine
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
the widest portion of the large intestine
in a supine position where does barium go in the large intestine
ascending and descending colon and aspects of the sigmoid colon
function of small intestine
function of duodenum and jejunum
absorption and reabsorption
movements in large intestine
peristalsis, haustral, churning,mass peristalsis, and defecation
scarring of bowel that produces "cobblestone" appearance
regional enteritis (crohn disease)
three bands of longitudinal muscle that runs the length of the large intestine
infection of the lumen of the small intestine
sprue malabsorption syndrome
unable to process and absorb nutrients
telescoping of the intestines
most common type of colon cancer (looks like Apple core)
how high should the enema bag be above the table
no higher than 60 cm or 24 inches
two stage procedure
thick barium coats the left side of the intestine, air pushes barium to the right side
what position places the kidney parallel to the IR
remove waste, regulate water levels, regulate acid-base balance and electrolyte levels
when kidney drops down further than 2 inches
how long does it take for contrast to get to ureters
functional unit of the kidneys
sections of ureter constriction
urteropelvic junction, brim of pelvis, ureterovesical
muscular area formed by two ureteral openings
kidneys and ureters
stones, often uric acid
positive charged cations
blood, urea, nitrogen (normal levels 8-25mg)
normal creatinine levels
lack of urination
presence of gas in urine
loss of consciousness
abnormal rotation of kidney
inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney (bright disease)
abnormal condition of water in the kidney
artificial opening between bladder and rectum
three separate focal levels are commonly taken
for pts with high blood pressure
torn artery in the brain (highest death rate 30%)
avascular necroses of femoral head (boys 5-10)
Fracture of the fifth metacarpal
Fracture at the distal end of the radius that displaces the smaller fragment posteriorly
excessive inferior displacement of the kidneys or kidney prolapse
scanty production of urine
The shaft of a long bone (primary ossification center)
End of a long bone (secondary ossification center)
Where diaphysis and epiphysis meet
Growth plate, made of cartilage, gradually ossifies until about 25
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