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AO2 Study set
Terms in this set (366)
What is responsible for the efficient attainment of aircraft and equipment readiness in support of operational objectives?
Who serves as a contact point between work centers and the SPAWAR Systems Center Atlantic (SSCA) and is responsible for the management of all aspects of the MDS to include NALCOMIS reports/inquiries at the activity level?
System Administrator/Analyst (SA/A)
OMA NALCOMIS Optimized squadrons that operate from a detachment based concept for how many or more days shall have one System Administrator (SA) per detachment attend the NALCOMIS OOMA system analyst course (Course C-555-0049)?
Which publication provides the standardized policy and procedures for Aviation Logistics Information Management and Support (ALIMS) operations?
Unless otherwise specified in aircraft MRCs, fuel samples must be taken within how many hours preceding the aircraft's initial launch?
What is the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record form number?
What is defined as an operational evolution where an aircraft is refueled while the engine(s) is (are) operating?
What is defined as an operational evolution where the pilot/crew of manned aircraft is changed while the engine(s) is (are) operating and the aircraft is to be immediately relaunched?
What are required to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and equipment are functioning per predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment?
Functional Check Flights (FCFs)
Unless directed by the applicable T/M/S NATOPS manual, Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) may not require an Functional Check Flight (FCF), other than for acceptance inspection, after completion of standard rework, or when not flown for how many or more days?
Completed Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklists shall be retained in the aircraft maintenance files for a minimum of how many months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater?
Which maintenance concept divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into small packages or phases of approximately the same work content?
For aircraft not having preservation maintenance technical manuals, preservation shall be performed per which publication?
To meet unusual situations or to ease workload scheduling, reporting custodians may apply plus or minus deviations to inspection intervals, if specified in T/M/S MRCs or commercial aircraft derivative task cards. If deviations are not specified in T/M/S technical manuals or commercial aircraft derivative task cards, the following maximum deviations may be applied. Plus or minus which percent, or a portion thereof, may be applied to the authorized inspection interval of scheduled maintenance requirements based on flight hours, operating hours, cycles, or events?
Which form is used to document aircraft daily and turnaround inspections?
Pre-flight/Daily/Turnaround/Post-flight Maintenance Record (OPNAV 4790/38)
The daily aircraft inspection is conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. The daily inspection is valid for a period of how many hours commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed, provided no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing has been performed?
Commanding Officers (COs) may authorize pilots-in-command to conduct applicable T/M/S NATOPS pilot inspections, ensure servicing requirements are accomplished, and sign the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) in the certification block while operating away from home without qualified maintenance personnel for periods not exceeding how many hours?
The turnaround inspection is conducted between flights to verify the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and to detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. The turnaround inspection is valid for a period of how many hours commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed, provided no flight and no maintenance other than servicing occurs during this period?
Which type of inspections are scheduled inspections with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase?
When an individual special inspection or a group of special inspections due simultaneously will consume more than how many hours of elapsed maintenance time, the inspection requirements may be divided into portions performed incrementally at any time during the allowable deviation period?
Which type of maintenance requirements are unscheduled events required as the result of a specific over limit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection?
Which type of inspection is a general inspection of a specific area of an aircraft?
Which delivery procedure eliminates the requirement for configuration verification during acceptance inspection when received from the factory?
Joint Strike Fighter (JSF)
Aircraft originally planned for short-term transfer, but due to operational or Test Evaluation (TE) requirements exceed how many days, will require a complete transfer inspection before transferring the aircraft to another reporting custodian?
Per OPNAVINST 3110.11, aircraft that fail Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) must be inducted for Phased Depot Maintenance (PDM) no later than how many days after the current Period End Date (PED)?
How many days of advance notice, via naval message, is required prior to sending an aircraft to the Aerospace Maintenance and Regeneration Center (AMARC) for storage?
Engines with major inspection intervals of 400 hours or more will have major inspections performed if what percent or less of the interval remains until the next inspection?
Engines with major inspection intervals of less than 400 hours will have major inspections performed if less than how many hours remain until the next inspection?
Which form is used to record Support Equipment (SE) issue and receipt transactions?
Support Equipment Transaction Report (OPNAV 4790/64)
Which form is used to record acceptance information, custody and transfer, rework, preservation and depreservation, Technical Directives (TDs), and any other miscellaneous history required to accompany the Support Equipment (SE) throughout its service life?
Support Equipment (SE) Custody and Maintenance History Record
All Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) inspections are special inspections based on calendar days and are authorized a plus or minus how many days deviation during compliance by the prescribed maintenance level?
Scheduled Removal Components (SRC) and Assemblies with operating limitations are normally replaced at the scheduled inspection which falls nearest to the applicable limitation. To reduce replacements at other than scheduled inspections, a margin of plus or minus what percentage of the stated operating limitations is authorized for components or assemblies, unless such extension is prohibited by the applicable PMIC or other directive?
Where must orders to cannibalize come from?
What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspections, transfer or receipt of aircraft, and compliance with Technical Directives (TDs)?
Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)
What is Phased Depot Maintenance (PDM) categorized as which is scheduled D-level maintenance performed per an established recurring schedule?
What is designed to protect the material condition of aircraft which are not expected to be flown for extended periods of time?
For aircraft without specific T/M/S operational system check maintenance technical manuals, aircraft systems will be exercised every how many days (+/- 3 days) using applicable maintenance technical manuals?
Which preservation category would be assigned to Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which has anticipated usage within the next 90 days?
Which preservation category would be assigned to Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which could possibly be used within the next 180 days?
which preservation category would be assigned to support equipment, armament weapons support equipment, weapons handling equipment. which is not needed for extremely long periods of time excess of 180 days
Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for 0-90 days?
Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for 0-365 days?
Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for 0-indefinitely?
What are all activities in the Navy assigned for determining priorities for material support based on their mission?
Force Activity Designator (FAD)
Which series contains instructions for using the material priority system and for assigning Force Activity Designators (FADs)?
Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to repair Support Equipment (SE) that is inoperative and a workaround, redundancy, or local backup is available?
Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to stop an Awaiting Parts (AWP) condition on a specific end item or component (other than aircraft engines) undergoing repair?
Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to stop to stop an Awaiting Parts (AWP) condition on components and aircraft engines undergoing repair when directly related to aircraft support?
Which project code "Broad Arrow" is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) to material requirements for nonoperational Support Equipment (SE) used in direct support of operational aircraft for which there is no redundancy?
Which project code means engine maintenance work stoppages for all model aircraft engines?
Which workload priority will be set by production control for all workload for activities within 30 days of deployment, regardless of NMC/PMC status?
Which workload priority will be set by production control for repair of critical Local Repair Cycle Assets (LRCA) and Support Equipment (SE)?
Which workload priority will be set by production control for repair of noncritical Local Repair Cycle Assets (LRCAs) and Support Equipment (SE), and repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed allowance stock?
Which workload priority will be set by production control for processing of salvaged material and non-aeronautical work?
When check, test, and repair capability does not exist at the IMA, all AVDLRs and some field level repairables (FLR) must be shipped to the designated support point (DSP), designated rework point (DRP), or another activity having the capability to repair that component. Under normal circumstances, the determination must be made within 24 hours. When determined that repair capability does not exist, the component will be shipped to another activity within 48 hours. Total IMA, Supply and Maintenance, hold time shall not exceed how many days?
Who serves as a contact point between work centers and the SSCA and is responsible for the management of all aspects of the MDS to include NALCOMIS reports/inquires at the activity level?
Maintenance Database Administrator/Analyst (MDBA/A)
Which Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) Support Equipment (SE) report occurs when there is an item of inoperative Support Equipment (SE) and there is no redundancy in that piece of SE, or the redundancy is inadequate such that aircraft support will be impacted, thereby, jeopardizing the operational readiness of supported units?
Broad Arrow (BA)
All repairable Support Equipment (SE) components beyond Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) repair capability shall be preserved, packaged, documented, and shipped within how many hours via fastest traceable means to the organic or commercial DRP or ATAC hub (as appropriate)?
What is defined as the overhaul, repair, check, test, certification, modification, or manufacturing of aeronautical material, mission equipment, engines, and Support Equipment (SE)?
What is responsible for the development, expansion, execution, and support of maintenance plans for component repair?
COMNA V AIRSYSCOM
Which codes specify if a component is intended to be repaired at the O- level, I-level, or D-level of maintenance?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the activity is specifically not authorized to repair the item in applicable directives, for example, required maintenance function not assigned by SM&R code, MIM, maintenance plan, other technical decision, peculiar item from an aircraft not supported by an activity, or SM&R coded XXXXD?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to lack of equipment, tools, or facilities?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to a lack of technical skills?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed because required parts will not be available?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the activity's authorized level of maintenance is limited to check and test only and repair is required?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to a lack of technical data
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when some level of repair beyond check and test is authorized, but the maintenance function required to return the item to a RFI condition is not assigned by SM&R code, MIMs, maintenance plan, or other technical decision?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized and feasible but not attempted due to an EI exhibit, SRC data unknown and cannot be determined, item under warranty, I-level repair costs exceed AVDLR Net Unit Price or replacement cost, excessive backlog, budgetary limitations, materials in excess of requirements, or when specifically directed by the ACC or TYCOM?
Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when a repairable item is so severely worn or damaged that repair is not feasible, as determined by local maintenance personnel, or specifically directed by ACC or TYCOM?
Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) 2, BCM 3, and BCM 6 are authorized only if the deficiency in equipment, skills, or technical data cannot be resolved within how many days?
Which centers are contact points within maintenance organizations where requirements for indirect material are coordinated with the aviation support division
Who is responsible for overall management of material control function.
maintenance material control officer
which instruction contains the responsibilities and procedures for establishing maintaining and modifying the navsup wws consolidated remain in place list
which form must material control obtain signature on of work center personnel receiving material
material control must turn in defective repairable consolidated remain in place list components within how many hours of receipt
which codes are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support levels and using commands for the logistic support of systems, equipment, and end items.
source, maintenance, recoverability, (SMR)
which type of funds will be used to finance the cost of paints wiping rags towel service cleaning agent and cutting compounds used in preventive maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft
Aviation fleet maintenance
What must each ship, aviation squadron, and command establish to record OPTAR grants and the value of transactions authorized to be incurred as chargeable to the ACC or TYCOM operating budget?
Requisition/OPTAR Log (NAVCOMPT 2155)
How often must the Summary Filled Order/Expenditure Difference Listing (SFOEDL) (original and 1 copy) be forwarded by the DFAS to individual OPTAR holders for each OPTAR held?
After posting the differences, the OPTAR holder will review the listing and annotate transactions considered invalid with the rejection codes. Which publication are rejection codes listed in?
The Age Unfilled Order Listing (AUOL) lists all unfilled orders held in the DFAS files over how many days old which have not matched with related expenditure documents and have not been cancelled?
How often at a minimum must flight packets be inventoried by the Supply Officer or Material Control Officer?
What are all components received in the repairable material section (RMS) SSU from O-level or I-level maintenance units processed through to determine whether the component is within the check, test, or repair capability of the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
Aeronautical Material Screening Unit (AMSU)
What is the title of the overall program which provides the data required for the effective management of Support Equipment (SE) at all levels of aircraft maintenance?
Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL)
What shall be used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S?
Aircraft Inventory Records (AIRs)
Who is the sole authority for changes and revisions of Aircraft Inventory Records (AIRs)?
COMNA V AIRSYSCOM
Which form shall be completed to identify shortages of Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR) items and MESM related equipment which are not available for transfer, concurrent with the aircraft?
Aircraft Inventory Record Shortages (OPNAV 4790/112)
When an aircraft is transferred via a D-level or contractor program, the transferring activity will ship only the minimum of essential Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR) items, noting all shortages on an Aircraft Inventory Record (Shortages) (OPNAV 4790/112). The remaining equipment will be shipped to the receiving activity how many days prior to the scheduled depot or contractor completion date?
When shortages are discovered upon receipt of an aircraft and are not properly recorded in the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR), the receiving organization will itemize shortages and submit a list of such shortages, within how many working days after receipt of the aircraft, to the organization from which the aircraft was received?
What is the Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss form number?
Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR) shortages which persist for how many days before transfer, without proper authority/justification noted in Column D or E of the Aircraft Inventory Record (Shortages) (OPNAV 4790/112), will be forwarded to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.6) for resolution?
Which department is responsible for providing NTCSS IT21 Optimized OMA NALCOMIS support for tenant fleet aircraft and reserve squadrons?
Combat Information Systems (CIS)
How many parts is the Naval Aeronautical Publications Index made up of?
What specifies all maintenance significant repair parts associated with the equipment and is the basis for allowances?
Allowance Parts List (APL)
What is designed to let the Supply and Maintenance personnel identify and order replacement parts for the aircraft or equipment?
Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
How often must Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) Control Station Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs) be inventoried and verified?
Which publication provides guidance for shipping classified information to the Washington National Records Center?
Which form is used to monitor structural life limited components designated for D-level replacement which do not require Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) or Assembly Service Record (ASR) documentation
Structural Life Limits (OPNAV 4790/142)
What is the Monthly Flight Summary form number?
Which form used in the logbook and the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR), provides a record of all scheduled and conditional inspections performed on the aircraft during each period and on equipment for which an AESR is required?
Inspection Record (OPNAV 4790/22A)
O-level activities maintaining helicopter dynamic components requiring an Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) are not required to log repetitive Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) inspections based on less than how many hour intervals?
A minimum of how many years of data will be maintained at all times on the Conditional Inspection page?
Which form used in the logbook and the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR), contains a complete record of all repair, reconditioning, standard rework, conversion, modification, modernization, and Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) inspections performed on the aircraft by a repair activity or on the equipment by any I-level or D-level activity?
Repair/Rework Record (OPNAV 4790/23A)
Which form used in the logbook and the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR), contains a record of Technical Directives (TDs) affecting the airframe structure and its integral parts?
Technical Directives (OPNAV 4790/24A)
Which type of entry provides for a consolidated accounting of Technical Directives (TDs) when the equipment is new and upon completion of each standard rework or first-degree engine repair?
Which code is used to indicate Technical Directives (TDs) that have been issued but not incorporated, including TDs that are only partially incorporated?
Which form is used in the logbook and the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) to record significant information affecting the aircraft for which no other space is provided in the logbook?
Miscellaneous/History (OPNAV 4790/25A)
What is the Preservation/Depreservation Record form number?
Which form is used in the logbook and the AESR to maintain a current inventory of all equipment, components, and assemblies requiring an MSR, ASR, EHR, or SRC card?
Inventory Record (OPNAV 4790/27A)
What is designed to provide a current configuration and inspection record of ALSS components, kits, and assemblies?
Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138)
What is designed to provide a record of the current configuration of all personal survival equipment issued to the aircrew?
Aircrew Personal Equipment Record (OPNAV 4790/159)
Which publication contains maximum ground test stand/engine test cell time a propeller may accumulate?
What are items with rework or overhaul life limits and subassemblies designated to be removed and discarded candidates for?
Assembly Service Record (OPNAV 4790/106A)
What is a two page form that provides a method of monitoring specific maintenance data on designated aeronautical components and equipment that do not qualify for a Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card?
Equipment History Record (EHR) Card (OPNAV 4790/113)
What is a two page form used to record maintenance history, installation, and usage data?
Scheduled Removal Component Card (OPNAV 4790/28A)
What contains the electronic baseline, actual inventory, and historical information of aircraft, engines, SE, ALSS, and associated assemblies?
Configuration Management Auto Log Set (CM ALS)
Which Configuration Management Auto Log Set (CM ALS) record permits aircraft identification, the monthly compilation of significant flight operational data, and collection of historical OPNAV XRAY data throughout the service life of an aircraft?
What provides Configuration Management Auto Log Set (CM ALS) Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) equipment identification, monthly compilation of significant flight operational data, usage parameters, and accumulative usage data throughout the service life of the equipment?
Equipment Operating Record (EOR)
Modular engine design allows I-level activities to readily remove and replace interchangeable modules with Ready for Issue (RFI) spares. Which record provides the method for recording the maintenance data for these modules and their life limited assemblies and components?
Module Service Record (MSR)
What is used to record maintenance history for repairable components not designated as life limited?
Tracked Component Record (TCR)
Aircraft/Equipment Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log-Set (ALS) may be purged after how many years from the completed action/entry date from the last recorded flight?
Which system is the Navy's official aircraft inventory program of record for all Navy and Marine Corps aircraft from initial acceptance to final disposition at AMARG, FMS or disposal?
DECKPLATE - AIRRS
What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes?
What is the Material Inspection and Receiving Report form number?
DD Form 250
XRAY reports can be modified in OOMA within a period of how many days from date and time of creation?
How often will the CNO (N98) approve a list of aircraft strike and disposition?
How many categories are there in which to declare a strike?
Which category of strike is declared when the loss or damage is to the extent that restoration is uneconomical or militarily impractical?
Category 1 (Damage)
Which category of strike is declared when the depreciation caused by time and usage to the extent restoration is uneconomical or militarily impractical?
Category 2 (Depreciation)
Which category of strike is declared for administrative decision reasons not related to damage, depreciation or completion of service life, such as obsolescent or excess aircraft; aircraft intentionally destroyed (including drones) in test, training or battle; aircraft diverted for use in ground training; and aircraft transferred to foreign governments, MAP/FMS, or other non-Navy recipients.?
Category 3 (Administrative)
Which Category are Aircraft striked to if eligibility for strike is due to completion of service life?
How often are Reporting Custodians required to report Aircraft Hours in Life?
what is the procedure required when Navy property and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) material, including IMRL equipment/SE, in Navy custody is lost, damaged, or destroyed?
What is fundamentally the prevention of the occurrence of defects and is an integral part of every maintenance process from start to completion?
How many Quality Assurance (QA) objectives are within the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)?
Who is responsible for managing the overall quality assurance effort within the maintenance department?
What is defined as the planned and systematic pattern of actions taken to verify the item conforms to specifications and will perform satisfactorily?
Quality Assurance (QA)
What is defined as the physical examination and testing of aircraft, engines, equipment, components, parts, and materials to determine conformance to specifications?
What is the minimum required paygrade to be designated as a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)?
What is the minimum required paygrade to be designated as a Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representative (CDQAR)?
What is the minimum required paygrade to be designated as a Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)?
QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs permanently attached or TAD to the activity must be designated by the activity's CO in writing via which form?
Quality Assurance Representative/Inspector Recommendation/Designation
COs of activities that deploy detachments may authorize detachment officers in charge (OINC) to designate Quality Assurance (QA) personnel, provided the deployment period is in excess of how many days and all procedures and requirements for designating QA personnel are accomplished by the detachment?
Completed Functional Check Flight (FCF) Checklists will be retained in the aircraft's history file for a minimum of how many months, or one phase cycle, whichever is greater?
A Quality Assurance (QA) stamp may not be reassigned to another inspector within a period of how many months?
The Quality Assurance (QA) Supervisor is the Maintenance Department Safety Manager. Responsibilities are addressed in OPNAVINST 5100.23 for ashore activities and which publication for afloat activities?
Which publication contains policy for Maintenance Department participation in aviation safety, including investigation and reporting of aviation hazards that are not reportable under the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)?
Which form must be prepared and forwarded by anyone witnessing Support Equipment (SE) misuse/abuse to the activity having reporting custody for the SE?
Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse Form (OPNAV 4790/108)
Completed Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse Forms (OPNAV 4790/108s) must be retained in electronic or hardcopy format for how many years?
Which program has the objective of verifying a safe working environment when working on aircraft and aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks?
Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)
What is the Artisan Inspector Designation form number?
The D-level FRC QA Department must continually monitor AI performance to include auditing and periodic verification by a QA Specialist. How often must a working-level forum be held by the area QA Specialist with the AIs to evaluate program performance, monitoring results, and improvement opportunities?
What is defined as the probability that an item will successfully perform its designated function for a definite period under specified operational conditions?
Which program provides monitoring, analysis, and specialized knowledge to initiate preventive actions that are effected by engineering, production, and other departments?
Depot Level Quality Program (DLQP)
What is documented affirmation that all product characteristics affecting quality conform to applicable specifications and requirements?
When a certifier is transferred, extension of certification authority must be approved or disapproved per the Depot Level Quality Program (DLQP) after it has been absolutely determined that the certifier is thoroughly trained and qualified for the products, processes, systems, or areas he or she will be certifying. When reassigned after being loaned or detailed outside of their designated trade skill for longer than how many years, employees must also be reevaluated for extension of certification authority?
Which category of verification temporarily imposes mandatory verification requirements and may be conducted on high failure rate items, items without objective evidence of good quality, instances where the quality level is suspect or inadequate, or while conducting audits?
Type II (Temporary Mandatory)
Completed (certified and, when applicable, verified) aeronautical work documentation must be retained (at a minimum) for engines and flight critical safety item components for a minimum of how many years?
Completed (certified and, when applicable, verified) aeronautical work documentation must be retained for non-critical safety item components for a minimum of how many months for work documents specifically identified (traceable) to non-critical safety item components transferred from a FRC D- level to a Fleet Industrial Supply Center (FISC)?
What are independent reviews conducted to compare some aspect of performance with set quality standards for that performance?
What must be used for the identification, correction, and prevention of conditions that degrade the quality or reliability of products, processes, or systems?
Which information technology system must be used to document corrective and preventive actions
Electronic Continual Analysis and Metrics (eCAM)
How many ways are deficiencies classified as?
Which type of deficiency defect is likely to result in hazardous or unsafe conditions for individuals using or maintaining it?
Which type of deficiency defect is likely to result in the failure or reduced material utility of a unit or product?
Which type of deficiency defect is not likely to materially reduce the utility of a unit or product or has little bearing on the use or operation of a unit?
What within quality assurance workbench (QAWB) NAVAIR Depot Maintenance System (NDMS) business processes document internal product deficiencies?
Discrepancy Work Orders (DWOs)
Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR) is performed only under which conditions?
Which manual was established jointly by the Navy, Air Force, and Army as a combined effort to consolidate and coordinate corrosion control best practices for aircraft and avionics
Cleaning and Corrosion Control
Which word is used when a procedure is mandatory?
What are issued as naval messages to expedite the release of urgent and essential operational and maintenance change information?
Interim Rapid Action Changes (IRACs)
What must an activity be established on which is maintained by the Naval Air Technical Data and Engineering Service Command (NATEC) to automatically receive future changes and revisions to NAVAIR technical manuals?
Automatic Distribution Requirements List (ADRL)
Up to what percentage of military avionic failures are due to the corrosion process?
The two most important factors in preventing corrosion, and the only ones which can be controlled by field personnel, is the application of protective coatings along with the removal of what?
Aluminum along with which other alloy found in aviation equipment will normally begin to corrode if salt deposits, other corrosive soils, or electrolytes are allowed to remain?
Chloride content should be less than how many parts per million for aircraft washing and rinsing?
Which instruction must reporting Navy personnel identify/report corrosion discrepancies in accordance with?
he appropriate parent service organization documents or which publication should be referenced for the handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials?
Materials or processes considered to be an improvement over existing ones, after local laboratory analysis and evaluation, shall be forwarded to the Aircraft Controlling Custodians (ACC) or whom else for submission to the parent service organization for further evaluation?
System Program Manager (SPM)
What is the chemical or electrochemical deterioration of a material referred to as?
Aluminum and magnesium form corrosion products that are white oxides or what else?
What is the most common type of corrosion (and the one that can be most effectively treated by maintenance personnel)?
What is the smallest unit of an element, made up of a positively charged nucleus surrounded by a system of negatively charged electrons?
There are over how many elements?
What is a negatively charged subatomic particle called?
What cannot move through metal conductors?
What is a liquid (usually water) solution containing ions called?
Which branch of science is concerned with chemical reactions at surfaces in contact with electrolytes?
How many conditions must exist before metal corrosion can occur?
What is corroding metal called?
When corrosion products form, they often precipitate onto the corroding surface as a what?
Since corrosion products occupy more volume than the original metal, the paint surfaces may become blistered, flaked, chipped, or appear in which way?
Which stage is the best time to prevent corrosion?
Aluminum, steel, titanium, along with which other type of metal are the most commonly used in aircraft construction?
Most alloys are made up entirely of small crystalline regions called what?
Which form of corrosion are many alloys used in aircraft construction sensitive to?
Stress corrosion cracking
Which type of corrosion is probably the most common type?
Which type of corrosion occurs when different metals are in contact with each other and an electrolyte?
Equipment should be properly packaged in accordance with which standard to minimize damage during shipment?
Which manual describes the NAVAIR Technical Manual Program and provides guidance on maintaining technical manuals?
If you are to maintain complex weapons systems, you must be able to get the required information from what?
Technical manuals are divided into two major types; What are they?
Operational and maintenance
Which manuals contain descriptions of weapons systems with instructions for their effective use
Which type of manuals contain a description of the weapons systems from the viewpoint of upkeep and repair?
What manuals are prepared for specific requirements to support defined maintenance concepts and predetermined maintenance level coverage?
What manuals are divided by functions and tasks?
The usability of a manual has how many primary elements?
Text for what medium emphasizes coordination between text and illustrations, line art instead of photographic art for illustration legibility, and a comprehensive index for many points of entry
The individual WP has a how many-digit code number that appears in the upper right comer of the page?
Intermediate- and depot-level manuals are based on what rather than system breakdown?
Technical manuals are updated by two methods; What are they?
Changes and revisions
What to a technical manual is the official release of new or correction pages to a part or portion of an existing document?
A revision normally takes place when more than what percent of the pages are affected by a single change or accumulated changes?
A WP consisting of how many pages or less will always be revised?
Changes are issued as either routine or what else?
Rapid Action Changes (RACs)
What determines when there is a requirement to change a manual and authorizes that the change be made?
Changes to illustrations, line drawings, and photographs are normally identified by a miniature what
What are used for diagrams and schematics to highlight the areas containing the changed information?
Shading and screening
Manuals prepared in what format are compatible to microfilm and paper media?
When several changes are made at once in the same area of an illustration, what may be used to indicate the general area?
What is used to expedite the dissemination of urgent operation and maintenance change information?
How many numbering systems are presently in use by NAVAIR?
The NAVAIR manual publication number is divided into how many parts, separated by a dash?
What numbering system is part of the effort to standardize technical manual numbers for all ships, aircraft, and equipment?
What instruction establishes the TMINS for aeronautic publications?
The standard TMINS number is made up of how many distinct parts?
The second part of the TMINS is called the suffix. It is an added field of up to how many characters (including the slash)?
The remaining how many characters of the PI are called the technical manual (TM) identifier
Before you attempt any task on an aircraft, consult the what for that particular model of aircraft?
What contains a list of weapons systems component parts keyed to simple illustrations
All aeronautic publications, changes, technical directives, and forms issued by NAVAIRSYSCOM are cataloged in the what?
The NAPI consists of how many sections which make it easier to locate and order specific publications and changes?
A complete NAPI should be maintained by what division in its technical library
What flight manual contains the complete operating instructions for a specific aircraft and its operational equipment?
Routine NATOPS flight manual changes are generally issued every how many days
What are used to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and other items of equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment?
Functional Check Flight Checklist
What provides information to the pilot and crew on how to "fight" the aircraft
What checklists are abbreviated step-by-step procedures taken from the amplified procedures displayed in the weapons or stores loading manuals?
What contain abbreviated procedures for use in high-tempo operational areas?
What manuals contain instructions for the effective use and support of weapons systems or equipment?
What series manuals cover standard aviation maintenance practices that apply to all aircraft rather than to a particular aircraft?
What are prepared on a systems maintenance concept, and they appear in two basic formats, conventional and work package?
What manual identifies assigned system-related equipment codes pertaining to various servicing and maintenance functions?
What is used as a guide in making structural repairs to the airframe?
Basic structural repair data, common to all aircraft, is released in what general engineering series manual?
What are reciprocating engines, jet propulsion engines, jet propulsion/turboshaft engines, rocket-type jet engines and Auxiliary Power Units (APU)?
The IPB is divided into how many sections?
Policy for the management of automation-type technical manuals is contained in what instruction?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS) publications consist of maintenance requirements cards (MRCs), periodic maintenance information cards (PMICs), checklists, and what else?
What divide the total scheduled maintenance tasks into small packages of approximately the same work content, which are accomplished sequentially at specific intervals?
What evaluations are conditional maintenance actions that are depot-level evaluations of an aircraft's general material condition?
What identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals?
What format for inspections provides maintenance personnel with abbreviated requirements for turnaround and preoperational inspections?
What aid the planning and accomplishment of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks during inspections?
What along with other publications, such as maintenance digests, prepared by weapons systems and equipment manufacturers are neither authorized nor approved for distribution to naval personnel?
The Naval Aviation News is published how often for the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) by NAVAIRSYSCOM and the Naval Historical Center?
Approach, the Naval Aviation Safety Review, is published how often by the U.S. Naval Aviation Safety Center and gives the most accurate information currently available on the subject of aviation accident prevention?
Mech is published bimonthly by the U.S. Naval Safety Center. It is distributed to naval aeronautic organizations on the basis of one copy per how many persons?
he purpose of what instruction is to preserve human and material resources?
Which instruction provides policies and guidelines for administration of the NAVOSH program Navywide?
What contains safety precautions applicable to forces afloat?
What is an important element designed to maintain equipment in a configuration that provides the optimum conditions of safety, operational, and material readiness?
What is a document containing instructions and information that directs the accomplishment and recording of a material change, a repositioning, a modification, or an alteration in the characteristics of the equipment to which it applies?
What is a technical directive issued by message or message format letter that dictates urgent dissemination?
What is an interim document comprised of instructions and information that directs a onetime inspection to determine whether a given condition exists?
What is a message TD, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces?
What contains complete information on the RAMEC program?
What clarifies, adds to, deletes from, makes minor changes to, or cancels an existing technical directive?
What is a completely new edition of the existing directive?
What is the process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated?
What is the process by which interim changes are removed from active files after a formal TD has been issued?
What is the process by which a TD is removed from the active files?
All TDs are issued by NAVAIR or what else, except in cases where the time delay in obtaining approval is unacceptable?
What TDs are issued when an uncorrected, unsafe condition exists that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
What TDs are issued under the governing factors of combat necessity or hazardous conditions that could result in injury to personnel, damage to valuable property, or unacceptable reductions in operational efficiency?
What TDs are used to authorize, accomplish, or modify only?
What is used to confirm a modification that has been completely incorporated by the contractor or in-house activity in all accepted equipment (before issuance of the TD)?
What serves as a centralized source of up-to-date information for all mechanics and technicians, and gives all personnel an excellent source of reference material to help with personal training and individual improvement?
What controls technical publication activities within the command?
What division has overall management responsibility for the technical library?
For mission-essential publications, the central library submits the what?
Commands functioning with minimal publications (how many or less) and no automatic data processing (ADP) support may use the older Naval Warfare Publication Library (NWPL) system for publication management rather than the Technical Publications Library Program?
What form ensures that changes and revisions to technical publications have been issued and incorporated in a timely manner?
The QA division audits the CTPL at least how often?
The central library audits dispersed libraries at least how often to ensure that their publications are current and in good material condition?
What is used to improve the quality and accuracy of technical manuals?
All routine technical publication deficiencies are reported on what form?
You should refer to what instruction for the format and content of the message and the procedures for filling out OPNAV 4790/66?
Who has overall responsibility for ensuring maintenance is accomplished following 3-M System and quality maintenance procedures and that the 3-M System functions effectively within the command?
Who is the command's 3-M System Manager?
Who is the functional manager of the 3-M System?
3M System Coordinator
The 3M System Coordinator supervision of all administrative facets of the 3- M System program. This position will be assigned in writing as the PRIMARY DUTY of an Officer, Chief Petty Officer or Petty Officer First Class (who has been assigned what secondary Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC))?
The 3M System Coordinator Ensure all routing review signatures have been applied prior to forwarding 3-M documents to the designated data processing activity within how many working days of document origination or as operationally feasible?
Who is responsible for the final approval of the 3-M Quarterly Schedule?
What shall be submitted requesting a LOEP change for new adds and for equipment removals?
Department LCPO shall be 3-M PQS qualified up to what level?
Department 3-M System Assistant
Who will review, approve, and close out weekly schedules?
The Division Officer shall ensure all Work Center weekly schedules are updated how often?
The Division LCPO/LPO shall be qualified 3-M PQS up to what level?
Who is responsible to the Division Officer via the LCPO/LPO for the effective operation of the 3-M System within their respective Work Center?
Work Center Supervisor
What will the Work Center Supervisor use as a daily working document for the scheduling of any maintenance actions not included on the PMS schedules?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project (CSMP)
What provides the maintenance and material managers throughout the Navy with the means to plan, acquire, organize, direct, control, and evaluate manpower and material resources expended or planned for expenditure in support of maintenance?
3-M Organizational Level Maintenance provides a means to effectively manage and control organizational maintenance. It is primarily managed via the what?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project (CSMP)
What 3-M Systems Central Database is the focal point for receipt and distribution of maintenance and material data?
Naval Sea Logistics Center (NAVSEALOGCEN)
What is the source for configuration and logistic support data available to ships and other fleet and shore activities?
The Division Officer shall check the Work Candidate/JSN log at least how often?
What type of maintenance action is not expected to be accomplished by ship's force within the time frame prescribed by the TYCOM?
For non-automated sites, what Ship's Maintenance Action Form is used to report a deferred maintenance Action?
What occurs when a maintenance action alters the design or operating characteristics of the equipment?
What provide the management of configuration and scheduling information for each equipment requiring periodic maintenance or calibration?
What is a process that provides the capability for data collection on unique data elements, related to specific equipment, that are in addition to the standard Work Candidate (2-Kilo) submission?
The value contained in the what controls whether an individual equipment record is regarded as an SLR record?
As a general rule equipment will automatically be removed from SLR after a period of how many years?
Who are responsible for informing applicable TYCOMs/Fleet Commanders if the SLR data is not being received?
What provides the TYCOM with the means of determining urgent repairs for scheduling IMA availability, shipyard overhauls, or restricted availability?
Who is responsible for evaluating and resolving errors in the CSMP?
Who may request assist visits from the type commanders who can recognize problems the command may be having difficulty in effectively identifying, scheduling, performing, and documenting maintenance actions?
The goal for structurally secure facilities is to provide at least how many minutes resistance to forced entry?
Which types of devices are barriers and locks?
Deficiencies that will be corrected within how many days do not require a waiver
Waiver and exception requests involving which type of transport of AA&E must be coordinated with the Military Traffic Management Command?
Which categories of AA&E are not authorized to be possessed by Reserve Officers Training Corps (ROTC/JROTC) units or gun clubs?
Category I or Category II
Enter dates of screening, rescreening, and associated interviews in the person's personnel record and maintain for at least how many months after termination of the person's assignment (or 6 months after the final interview if the person is disqualified for personnel assigned to duties involving control of or unescorted access to AA&E)?
How often at a minimum must personnel be rescreened for personnel assigned to duties involving control of or unescorted access to AA&E?
A GSA-approved Class 5 vault door, or a door as required for armories secured with a high security hasp and padlock, will be used on structures housing which type of AA&E?
Secret or Confidential AA&E will receive protection equivalent to that provided for what Risk Categories respectively (or higher if required by the Risk Category)?
II and III
Which instruction contains the procedures for personal weapons control and accountability?
What must include a continuously manned alarm control center where alarms annunciate and from which a response force can be dispatched (local alarms (i.e., alarm bells located only at the protected location) are not acceptable)?
Military, civil service, or contractor personnel may monitor alarms, except for Marine Corps Electronic Security System (MCESS) Operators, who will be military police personnel possessing what MOS code?
How long should the daily logs be kept and maintained of all alarms, including the nature of the alarm (e.g., intrusion system failure or nuisance alarm), date and time, location, and response made to identify IDS reliability problems?
How often must visible transmission lines be inspected?
How many independent means of alarm signal transmission to the monitoring location must be provided if line supervision is unavailable?
What must IDS's that transmit alarm signals over a shared network (such as a local area network (LAN), wide area network (WAN), public switched telephone network (PSTN), or the internet) have which will allow data transfers only between IDS components?
How long must backed up, protected, independent power be provided for IDS systems?
To provide for controlled entry by authorized personnel, what should telephone communications between an alarm control center and alarmed zones be considered as to an what to the IDS?
How often at a minimum must activity personnel test IDS systems after installation?
What must be installed as an IDS component on all Risk Category I and II ammunition and explosives storage facility active doors equipped with high security padlocks and hasps?
Anti-Intrusion Barrier (AIB)
How many minutes within an alarm or report of intrusion in AA&E storage areas must an armed response force be able to respond?
What cannot be used to negate the requirement for guards, roving patrols, or constant surveillance, unless used in conjunction with another access control or IDS technology?
How long must the records of guard checks be kept and maintained?
Which instruction should be used to train the security force in the use of deadly force?
What is the minimum size candle that must be used to provide enough light to allow the observation of people at exterior doors of all storage rooms and structures containing arms or Category I or II A&E?
Which class of GSA-approved vault doors may interior doorways to armories and magazines use?
5 or 8
How often should high security locks or lock cores be rotated to allow preventive maintenance?
At least what-gauge of steel or the equivalent containers can the keys to Category III and IV AA&E be secured in?
How often should keys and locks be inventoried?
The unauthorized possession of keys, key blanks, keyways, or locks adopted by a DoD component to protect AA&E is a criminal offense punishable by imprisonment of up to how many years?
Activities must conduct AA&E security surveys every 12 months (how many months for ships) and maintain records for 3 years for review during assistance visits, command inspections and explosive safety inspections?
Which publication contains the construction standards that will be followed when building armories?
Storage facility doors will be constructed of 1 3/4-inch thick solid or laminated wood with a 12-gauge steel plate on the outside face, or of standard 1 3/4-inch thick, hollow metal, industrial-type construction with minimum 14- gauge skin plate thickness, internally reinforced vertically with continuous steel stiffeners spaced how many inches maximum on center?
Windows, ducts, vents, or similar openings of how many square inches or more with the least dimension over 6 inches will be sealed with material comparable to that of the adjacent walls?
How many square inches when open will not be exceeded by weapon issue points?
Which GSA-approved container class can be used to store armory arms?
When weapons are in transit, stored in depots or warehouses, or held for contingencies, crates or containers will be fastened together in groups totaling at least how many pounds, and banded or locked and sealed?
What is the minimum interval during non-duty hours that facilities must be checked by a security patrol at irregular intervals?
What is the minimum interval that museum personnel must check arms during public visitation hours?
How often at a minimum must Navy and Marine Corps Museums and displays inventory arms by serial number?
Which categories of storage facilities should be protected with IDS unless they are continuously manned or under constant surveillance?
Category I and II
Which categories of storage facilities do not require IDS?
Category III and IV
Who are responsible for ensuring the adequacy of requisition verification including positive steps for rejecting excess and unauthorized requisitions
How often at a minimum must all category 2 and 3 missiles and rockets be inventoried with a 100% count
What is the central records repository for worldwide navy non-nuclear expendable ordnance
When making inventory adjustments no AA&E loss shall be attributed to an accountability or inventory discrepancy unless investigation has determined that the loss was not the result of what
Which publication governs the disposal of AA&E (Foreign military sales transfer to law enforcement)
Which instruction must the demilitarization of AA&E be accomplished
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