206 terms

DAT Bootcamp - Cellular Energy

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_____ processes break large macromolecules into smaller pieces, and usually release energy in the form of ATP
catabolic

(think catabolism ~ cannibalism)
_____ processes extract energy from ATP and use it to build larger, more complex macromolecules
anabolic
_____ is the ability to do work
energy
_____ energy deals with motion, while _____ energy is related to an object's position
kinetic; potential
_____ energy is a unique type of potential energy, where the chemical bonds serve as a store of internal energy (U)
chemical
energy will not be created or destroyed; it will only convert from one form to another
First Law of Thermodynamics
the First Law tells us that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can change into less _____ forms
useful
what is the most common form of "non-useful" energy release?
heat
heat released by converting one type of energy into another goes toward increasing the _____ of the universe
disorder (entropy)
the degree of randomness or disorder is called _____
entropy (S)
humans use metabolism to become more _____, while their surroundings become more _____
organized; disorganized
_____ measures a system's useful, work performing energy
Gibbs free energy (G)
_____ describes a system's energy as it progresses from an initial to final state
free energy change (ΔG)
_____ is the energy associated with molecular bond energies
enthalpy (H)
change in enthalpy (ΔH) is the _____ between the initial and final states of a reaction
bond energy difference
a negative ΔH means that heat is _____, while a positive ΔH implies that heat is _____
released; absorbed
change in _____ is the difference in chaos between the initial and final states of a reaction
entropy (ΔS)
a _____ means the system becomes more disordered, while a _____ says the system becomes less disordered
positive ΔS; negative ΔS
catabolic reactions release free energy (_____), so they are an example of _____ reactions
-ΔG; exergonic
reactants (initial position) contain more internal energy than the products (final state) in _____ reactions
exergonic
EXergonic reactions mean that free energy is _____ the system
EXiting
exergonic reactions are _____
spontaneous
anabolic reactions absorb free energy (_____), so they are an example of _____ reactions
+ΔG; endergonic
reactants (initial state) contain less internal energy than the products (final condition) in _____ reactions
endergonic
endergonic reactions are _____ reactions
non-spontaneous
if ∆G is _____, the reaction can occur spontaneously
negative
if ∆G is _____, the reaction is non-spontaneous
positive
a system with a high Gibbs free energy is considered _____ stable
less
a system with a low Gibbs free energy is considered _____ stable
more
ATP is an _____ nucleoside triphosphate
RNA
ATP has 3 phosphates covalently linked to a _____ sugar, which also connects to an _____ nitrogenous base
ribose; adenine
_____ are the bonds found between phosphate groups
phosphoanhydride bonds
ATP molecules are _____ because the three phosphate groups are all negatively charged and repel each other
unstable
_____ is the cellular energy currency
ATP
ATP --> ADP +Pi is a _____ reaction
hydrolysis
ATP hydrolysis reactions release free energy, making them _____ and _____
spontaneous; exergonic
ADP + Pi is a _____ reaction
condensation
condensation reactions absorb _____, making them endergonic and non-spontaneous
free energy
ATP provides energy for all cells by transferring _____ from ATP to another molecule
phosphate

(reaction coupling)
_____ links unfavorable reactions with favorable ones, as long as the net free energy change (ΔG) for the two reactions is negative (exergonic and spontaneous)
reaction coupling
reaction coupling links _____ reactions with _____ ones, as long as the net free energy change (ΔG) for the two reactions is negative (exergonic and spontaneous)
unfavorable; favorable
reaction coupling links unfavorable reactions with favorable ones, as long as the net free energy change (ΔG) for the two reactions is negative (_____ and _____)
exergonic; spontaneous
_____ make many ATP molecules through cellular respiration
mitochondria
where are mitochondria found in a eukaryotic cell?
floating in the cytosol

(as a component of the cytoplasm)
how many membranes do mitochondria have?
2
the inner mitochondrial membrane has many indentations called _____ that increase the surface area
cristae
the _____ region between the outer and inner membranes is the intermembrane space
acidic
the acidic region between the outer and inner membranes is the _____
intermembrane space
the area deep to the inner membrane is the _____
mitochondrial matrix
myocytes have a high energy requirement, so there are many _____ in them
mitochondria
erythrocytes function to carry as much oxygen as possible, therefore, they do not contain any _____
mitochondria
the mitochondrial matrix contains its own circular _____ and _____
DNA; ribosomes
the _____ says that the aerobic bacteria became mitochondria, while the photosynthetic bacteria became chloroplasts
endosymbiotic theory
the endosymbiotic theory says that the aerobic bacteria became _____, while the photosynthetic bacteria became _____
mitochondria; chloroplasts
aerobic cellular respiration is a sizable _____ pathway that requires _____
catabolic; oxygen
what are the 4 components of aerobic cellular respiration?
glycolysis; pyruvate manipulations; the Krebs cycle; oxidative phosphorylation
the 4 pathways of aerobic cellular respiration work to break _____ into carbon dioxide and water, with the generation of _____
glucose; ATP
the 4 pathways of aerobic cellular respiration work to break glucose into _____ and _____, with the generation of ATP
carbon dioxide; water
write the overall chemical formula for aerobic cellular respiration:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O
is aerobic cellular respiration overall endergonic or exergonic?
exergonic
is aerobic cellular respiration overall oxidative or reductive?
oxidative
_____ converts a six-carbon glucose molecule into 2 three-carbon compounds called pyruvate
glycolysis
glycolysis converts a six-carbon glucose molecule into _____ three-carbon compounds called _____
2; pyruvate
glycolysis is the only pathway in aerobic glycolysis that does _____, which is why it can participate in fermentation as well
not require oxygen
_____ is the decomposition of glucose into pyruvate in the cytosol
glycolysis
glycolysis is the decomposition of glucose into pyruvate in the _____
cytosol
NAD+/NADH is a _____ (organic cofactor)
coenzyme
glycolysis extracts e- as glucose is broken down, using them to _____ NAD+ into NADH, which travels to the _____
reduce; ETC
glycolysis has 2 main phases, an _____ phase, and an _____ phase
energy investment; energy payoff
steps _____ refer to the energy investment phase of glycolysis
1-5
steps _____ refer to the energy payoff phase of glycolysis
6-10
ATP is "spent" at which steps of the energy investment phase of glycolysis?
1 and 3
2 NADH results from step _____ of the energy payoff phase of glycolysis
6
ATP is produced from steps _____ in the energy payoff phase of glycolysis
7 and 10
_____ of the investment phase of glycolysis uses hexokinase and the free energy released from 1 ATP hydrolysis to "trap" glucose in the cell as _____
step 1; glucose-6-phosphate
step 1 of the investment phase of glycolysis uses _____ and the free energy released from _____ to "trap" glucose in the cell as glucose-6-phosphate
hexokinase; 1 ATP hydrolysis
step 2 of the investment phase of glycolysis uses isomerase to make _____ from glucose-6-phosphate
fructose-6-phosphate
step 3 of the investment phase of glycolysis uses _____ and the free energy released from _____ to make fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
phosphofructokinase; 1 ATP hydrolysis
which molecule breaks down into 2 G3P molecules, allowing for the production of 2 NADH, 4 ATP, and 2 pyruvate through the energy payoff phase of glycolysis?
fructose-1,6,bisphosphate

(going from step 5 --> 6)
both step 6s of the energy payoff phase of glycolysis oxidize _____ and reduce _____
G3P; NAD+ to NADH

(makes 2 NADH - 1 for each step 6 that is occurring)
_____ uses ADP as a direct substrate for its phosphorylation into ATP
substrate-level phosphorylation
substrate-level phosphorylation occurs directly in the _____ during steps _____ of the energy payoff phase of glycolysis
cytosol; 7 and 10
a _____ is an enzyme which phosphorylates a molecule, and it is responsible for the ADP phosphorylations at steps 7 and 10 of glycolysis
kinase
both step 7s of the energy payoff phase of glycolysis use a kinase to make _____
2 ATP

(makes 2 - 1 for each step 10 that is occurring)
both step 10s of the energy payoff phase of glycolysis use a kinase to make _____ and _____
2 ATP; 2 pyruvate

(makes 2 - 1 for each step 10 that is occurring)
the energy payoff phase produces _____ ATP, _____ NADH and _____ pyruvate
4; 2; 2
list the net products of glycolysis from 1 glucose
2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
if glycolysis makes 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvates, why does glycolysis only produce a *net* of 2 ATP?
need to account for energy investment at steps 1 and 3
list what goes into glycolysis
1 glucose, 2 ATP
which group of 3 reactions link glycolysis to the rest of cellular respiration?
the pyruvate manipulation reactions
where do the pyruvate manipulation reactions occur?
in the mitochondrial matrix
pyruvate manipulations occur in the _____ for prokaryotes
cytosol
list the 3 separate reactions of the pyruvate manipulations:
1. decarboxylation; 2. oxidation; 3. add CoA
what catalyzes the pyruvate manipulation reactions?
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) enzyme
the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) is composed of _____ enzymes, 1 for each pyruvate manipulation
3
during pyruvate decarboxylation, pyruvate releases a carbon atom as _____
carbon dioxide
during pyruvate oxidation, the decarboxylation product is converted to a 2 carbon _____
acetyl group
pyruvate oxidation is accompanied by the reduction of _____ to _____
NAD+ to NADH
pyruvate oxidation indirectly depends on _____
oxygen

(regenerates NAD+ in the ETC)
_____ adds to the acetyl group made by pyruvate oxidation to create _____
acetyl-CoA
list the net products of pyruvate manipulations from one glucose
2 CO₂, 2 NADH, 2 acetyl-CoA
where does the Krebs cycle take place?
mitochondrial matrix
in prokaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place in the _____
cytoplasm
The Krebs cycle has _____ intermediates and a total of _____ steps.
7; 8
the acetyl-CoA from the pyruvate manipulations merges with _____ to form citrate.
oxaloacetate
the acetyl-CoA from the pyruvate manipulations merges with oxaloacetate to form _____
citrate
_____ molecules are _____ by the Krebs cycle for every 1 glucose
2 acetyl-CoA; oxidized
_____ cycles of the Krebs cycle occur per glucose
2
what is the net production of 1 Krebs cycle
2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (ATP)
what is the net production of 2 Krebs cycles (from 1 glucose molecule)?
4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP (ATP)
what is the waste product of the Krebs cycle?
CO₂
_____ encompasses two linked components - the ETC and chemiosmosis
oxidative phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation encompasses 2 linked components - the _____ and _____
ETC; chemiosmosis
_____ is the mechanism of ATP generation that occurs when energy is stored in the form of a H+ concentration gradient across a membrane
chemiosmosis
the ETC is in the _____ of eukaryotes
mitochondrial inner membrane/cristae
the ETC is in the _____ of prokaryotes
cell membrane
e- release energy through the ETC, which goes toward _____
H+ pumping
the ETC couples the _____ flow of e- with the _____ pumping of H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane (eukaryotes)
exergonic, endergonic
which ETC proteins act as H+ pumps?
complex-I, III, and IV
H+ pumping forms an _____ across the inner membrane (eukaryotes)
electrochemical gradient
the _____ of the mitochondrion is acidic due to the electrochemical gradient from H+ pumping
intermembrane space
describe the physical properties of coenzyme Q (CoQ)/ubiquinone
a hydrophobic carrier that is dissolved in the mitochondrial inner-membrane
_____ passes e- from complex-I and II to complex III in the ETC
coenzyme Q (CoQ)/ubiquinone
describe the physical properties of cytochrome c
a hydrophilic protein carrier in the mitochondrial intermembrane space
_____ functions to transport e- from complex-III to complex-IV of the ETC
cytochrome c
NADH pumps _____ across the inner-membrane, and produces _____ than FADH2
more H+; more energy (ATP)
when NADH reduces complex-I, we can expect the pumping of _____ H+ into the intermembrane space via complex-I, III, and IV
12
FADH2 reduces complex-II, so only about _____ H+ pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space via complex-III and IV
8
NADH produces _____ ATP and FADH2 produces _____ ATP
3, 2
NADH enters the ETC at _____, while FADH2 enters the ETC at _____
complex-I; complex II
NADH becomes oxidized as it reduces _____
complex-I
_____ becomes oxidized as it reduces complex-II
FADH2
e- travel from _____ to oxygen, producing _____ in the matrix
complex-IV; water
the final e- acceptor of the ETC is _____
oxygen
in oxidative phosphorylation, the energy for ATP synthesis comes from the _____ in the ETC establishing a H+ gradient that supplies energy to _____
e-; ATP synthase
H+ travel "down" their electrochemical gradient through _____
ATP synthase
ATP synthase relies upon the _____ of chemiosmosis
H+ motive force
the _____ causes ATP synthase to spin to make ATP
H+ motive force
ATP synthase spins to phosphorylate ADP in the _____ of eukaryotes; _____ of prokaryotes
mitochondrial matrix; cytosol
_____ uses an electrical and pH gradient to make ATP, as H+ shuttles back into the matrix
ATP synthase
ATP synthase is in the _____ of eukaryotes; _____ for prokaryotes
inner mitochondrial membrane; cell membrane
_____ H+ must travel through ATP synthase for 1 ATP molecule to be synthesized
4
aerobic respiration is hugely _____
exergonic
anaerobic respiration is similar to aerobic respiration, but it uses different _____
e- acceptors

(still has glycolysis --> pyruvate manipulations --> Krebs (or variant) --> oxidative phosphorylation)
anaerobic respiration usually occurs in the _____ because it occurs mostly in _____
cytosol; prokaryotes
without O₂ there would be no replenishing of _____ for glycolysis, therefore, _____ occurs
NAD⁺; fermentation
alcohol fermentation can occur in _____, _____, and _____
plants, fungi, bacteria
in the first step of alcohol fermentation, pyruvate produces _____ and _____
acetaldehyde, CO₂
in the second step of alcohol fermentation, acetaldehyde produces _____ and _____
ethanol, NAD⁺
in alcohol fermentation, _____ is the final e- acceptor
acetaldehyde
_____ occurs in human muscle cells when oxygen is not available
lactic acid fermentation
during lactic acid fermentation, pyruvate produces _____ and _____
lactate, NAD⁺
once an excess amount of ATP is available, lactate is transported back to the liver to be converted back to glucose via the _____
Cori cycle
what is the main purpose of fermentation?
to regenerate NAD+ so 2 ATP can continue to be made through glycolysis
_____ and _____ are anaerobic processes
glycolysis, fermentation
_____ need oxygen and only respire aerobically
obligate aerobes
_____ only use anaerobic respiration because oxygen is poisonous
obligate anaerobes
_____ can respire aerobically, anaerobically, or ferment
facultative anaerobes
_____ are similar to obligate aerobes, but too much oxygen will kill them
microaerophiles
_____ organisms are similar to obligate anaerobes but can live with oxygen
aerotolerant
fuel sources from highest to lowest priority: _____ > _____ > _____
carbohydrates, fats, proteins
disaccharides are hydrolyzed into _____, most of which can be converted to glucose or glycolytic intermediates
monosaccharides
glucose is not only broken down, but also can be produced via _____
gluconeogenesis
gluconeogenesis occurs in the _____ and _____
liver, kidneys
the _____ is responsible for maintaining the glucose concentration in the blood.
liver
glucose is stored in the body as a polymer called _____ in primarily the liver (2/3)
and muscles (1/3)
glycogen
glucose is stored in the body as a polymer called glycogen in primarily the _____ (2/3)
and _____ (1/3).
liver, muscles
all cells are capable of producing and storing glycogen but only _____ cells and _____ cells have large amounts
liver, muscle
after large meals, _____ stores glucose as glycogen
insulin
_____ turns on glycogen degradation
glucagon
insulin activates the _____ enzyme, while glucagon inhibits it.
PFK
glycogen is broken down by _____ to enter glycolysis
glycogenolysis
_____ store more energy than carbohydrates per carbon as their carbons are in a more reduced state.
fats
_____ in the lumen of the small intestine (the tube itself) are broken down via lipases into monoglycerides and fatty acids
triglycerides
fats are _____ cals/g, whereas carbohydrates and protein are _____ cals/g
9, 4
_____ are digestive enzymes that break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol or other alcohols
lipases
digesting a triglyceride with a lipase is called _____
lipolysis
fats are absorbed at the _____ of the small intestine
enterocyte
fats travel from enterocytes to adipocytes via _____ and _____
chylomicrons; lacteals
large lipoproteins that move lipids from the small intestine to adipose tissues after absorption
chylomicrons
low density lipoproteins (LDLs) have a low density of _____ and a high _____ density; unhealthy
proteins, fat
high density lipoproteins (HDLs) have a high _____ density and a low _____ density; healthy
proteins, fat
lipases in _____ tissue are hormone sensitive (e.g. to glucagon)
adipose
between meals, most lipids of plasma are in the form of _____
lipoproteins
_____ enters glycolysis or gluconeogenesis at the liver
glycerol
glycerol is converted into _____, and then enters glycolysis
PGAL
_____ is an alternative name for glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
PGAL
fatty acids combine with _____ in the blood which carries them
albumin
fatty acids are broken down for energy via _____
beta-oxidation
_____ undergo beta-oxidation in the mitochondrial matrix
free fatty acids
free fatty acids undergo _____ in the mitochondrial matrix
beta-oxidation
free fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation in the _____
mitochondrial matrix
before the fatty acid enters beta-oxidation, it must be activated: _____ ATP molecules are spent activating the entire chain
2
an activated fatty acid undergoing beta-oxidation is converted into _____, which enters the Krebs cycle
acetyl-CoA
plants and bacteria use a modified version of the Krebs cycle called the _____ cycle that produces sugar from acetyl-CoA
glyoxylate
the _____ is the only instance where acetyl-CoA can contribute to gluconeogenesis
glyoxylate cycle
every _____ carbons from a fatty acid chain make _____ acetyl-CoA
2, 1
saturated fatty acids produce _____ NADH and _____ FADH2 for every cut into 2 pieces
1, 1
unsaturated fatty acids produce _____ less FADH2 for each double bond.
1
_____ are the least desirable source of energy
proteins

(used only when carbohydrates and fats are unavailable)
_____ removes ammonia molecules directly from amino acids
oxidative deamination
most amino acids are deaminated in the _____
liver
deaminated amino acids are converted to _____ or _____ or other _____ intermediates
pyruvate; acetyl-CoA; Krebs cycle
insects/birds/reptiles convert ammonia to _____ and then excrete it
uric acid
mammals/sharks/most amphibians convert ammonia to _____ for excretion
urea
proteins give _____ kcal/gram and can contribute to gluconeogenesis at the _____
4; liver
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