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2018 2019 JB SPV
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Terms in this set (85)
MEM ITEM: Loss of Braking
1) BRAKE PEDALS..PRESS 2)If NO braking: a)REVERSE..As Required b)Brake Pedals..Release c) A/SKID N/W STRG...OFF d)Brake Pedals..Press e) MAX Brake Pressure...1000 PSI 3)If Still No Braking: a)MAX REV...Consider b)PARKING BRAKE...Short Applications
MEM ITEM: Smoke/Fumes/AVIONICS SMOKE
1) Oxygen Mask...ON / 100% /EMER 2) Crew Communications...Establish
MEM ITEM: Emergency Descent
1) Oxygen Mask...ON 2) Crew Communications...Establish
MEM ITEM: Unstoppable Pitch Down Above VLS (Abnormal V Alpha Prot)
One ADR...KEEP ON, TWO ADR P/B's...OFF
LIMITATION: Max Landing Weight A320
142,200
LIMITATION: Max Landing Weight A321
171,500
LIMITATION: Max Tailwind (TAKEOFF)
15 kts
LIMITATION: Max Tailwind (Landing)
10 kts
LIMITATION: Max Crosswind Takeoff and Landing
38 kts
LIMITATION: Aircraft Ceiling
39,100'
LIMITATION: Max Windshield Wiper speed
230 kts
LIMITATION: Engine Start Cycles
2 min on, 15 sec off 2 min on, 15 sec off; 1 min on, 30 min off
LIMITATION: Engine Start Cycle Cooling (after 3 starts or 4 min)
4 min on, 30 min off
LIMITATION: Simultaneous use of AC PACKS and _________ is prohibited
LP Ground air
LIMITATION: Simultaneous use of APU pneumatic and _____ is prohibited
High Pressure ground cart
With the LAND switches selected OFF, what is the status of the landing lights?
Landing Light(s) are extended but OFF
Which lights illuminate with the EMER EXIT LT selected ON?
1. Overhead emergency lights 2. EXIT signs 3. Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system are illuminated. Note, Internal batteries (EPSUs) are not charged in this position and may only last 10 minutes when in use.
What will occur if the TERR PB is selected OFF?
Inibits the database terrain detection function and keeps the basic GPWS modes 1-5 operative
What will occur if you select the FLAP MODE push button OFF?
Flap mode 4 "TOO LOW FLAPS" is inhibited to avoid nuisance warnings when landing with a reduced flap setting.
Do we receive an ECAM notification when the "SMOKE" light illuminates and aural alert annunciate? (AFT AVIONICS COMPARTMENT)
NO, system is afternamrket and has no suppression or ECAM alert
Which cockpit lighting is available on battery power only?
The RH (FO) dome light is available with battery power.
What happens when you push the MECH pb? (CALLS PANEL)
Illuminates in blue on the external power panel and a horn sounds in the Nose L/G bay. (Horn will sound as long as button is held)
What does a flashing amber CALL light on the ACP above the SAT 1 indicate?
An incomming call detected by the SATCOM system
What does a flashing blue ATC MSG light indicate?
ATC messages received by CPDLC
When is the position of the Pack Flow Control valves when the APU BLEED is ON?
High flow is provided if the APU is supplying bleed air (and in single pack operation regardless of selected position).
What is indicated by a "FAULT" light in the HOT AIR pushbutton?
Illuminates amber with ECAM when a duct overheat is detected. The valve and trim air valves close automatically.
What happens to the ventilation system when either the BLOWER or EXTRACT p/b are selected to OVRD?
Air is added to the ventilation air from the Air Conditioning system.
On takeoff, what speed does SRS command with both engines operating?
SRS gives pitch guidance to maintain airspeed at V2 + 10
With V/S active, what would happen if you select a higher speed? (V/S -1000 indicated)
Thrust will increase (up to CLB, if needed) until the selected speed is attained. THen the thrust will reduce to maintain the selected speed.
In a Managed Descent, what FMA change(s) will occur if you pull HDG? (FMA shows THR IDLE DES NAV)
NAV mode will change to HDG; DES mode will change to V/S, THR mode will change to SPEED.
During an autoland, with the FMA "FLARE" indication displayed, what actions are occurring within the autopilot and autothrust?
Autopilot aligns yaw axis with the runway centerline and flares in pitch. Autothrust reduces thrust to idle if engaged.
During an autoland, what does "ROLL OUT" indicate?
The autopilot is guiding the aircraft along the runway centerline and the yaw bar is displayed on the PFD.
How would you get out of "THR LK"?
Move the thrust levers
When the "A. FLOOR" mode triggers, what does A/THR command?
A. FLOOR is triggered primarily by high AOA. A. FLOOR means A/THR will command TOGA thrust regardless of T/L position
What does "TOGA LK" indicate?
TOGA LK means TOGA Thrust is still being commanded (Alpha floor triggering conditions are no longer met).
If AC BUS 1 fails, which bus supplies the ACC ESS BUS?
AC BUS 2
What does the AC ESS FEED FAULT light represent?
AC ESS BUS is not powered.
What does a BAT OFF light represent?
1. Battery charger limiter is not operating 2. OFF light illuminates if the DC BATT BUS is powered. 3. HOT BUSSES remain powered
What does the battery charger limiter automatically control? (When the BAT 1&2 are turned on)
Connection and disconnectioin of the corresponding battery to the DC BAT BUS (by closing and opening of the battery line contactor)
What does a FAULT light in IDG 2 pb represent?
High oil temperature / Low oil pressure
What occurs when the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected OFF?
1. GEN 1 LINE contactor opens. 2. AC BUS 1 supplied from GEN 2 through the BUS TIE Contactors 3. Separate circuit is energized from GEN 1 to supply power to one fuel pump in each main tank.
With the RAT MAN ON switch in AUTO, what will cause the RAT to deploy?
AC BUS 1 & 2 Not supplied, AC Speed greater than 100 KTS
Will the RAT deploy on the gournd while parked if you press the RED guarded MAN ON pushbutton?
YES - Manual RAT Extension - EVEN ON THE GROUND
What does illumination of the FAULT light in the APU Master switch indicate?
APU Auto shutdown has occurred
What does the cyan ON light indicate after the APU START p/b has been pressed?
The APU starter is energized.
For a successful Engine Fire system test, what indications are we looking for in the cockpit?
1. CRC(bell) 2. MASTER WARN lights(2) Flash, 3. ENG FIRE pushbutton illuminates red, 4. SQUIB lights illuminate white, 5. DISCH lights illumninate amber, 6. ENG FIRE 1(2) warning appears on ECAM, 7. FIRE light on ENG panel illuminates red
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE pb closes which valves?
1. Low pressure Fuel Valve 2. HYD Fire shut off valve 3. Engine Bleed valve 4. Pack Flow control valve
Illumination of a SQUIB light indicatess?
SQUIB: (white) illuminates white to indicate that the respective fire extinguishing system is armed DISCH: Illuminates amber when the respective bottle has lost pressure
When will the "DISCH AGENT 2" light illuminate?
DISCH agent 2 takes up to 60 minutes after discharge of AGENT 1
In Alternate Law, what are you commanding when you move the side stick left and right?
Direct sidestick to roll control surface position relationship
With a side stick locked out, is an autopilot available?
YES (the one on the good side)
Both pilots should not make control inputs at the same time. If a pilot needs to takeover the controls what should be done to prevent dual input?
PRESS and HOLD the AP Disc/Takeover button (red)
The FACs control which functions?
FAC = Flight Augmentation Computer: Electrical Rudder Control, Flight Envelope functions, Low level energy warning & Windshear detection
What do these green marks indicate? (PFD, Green = signs at 10 & 2 O'clock)
Bank angle limit in normal law
Is Load Factor protection available in Alternate Law?
YES
Is Autotriming available in Alternate Law?
YES
Speed Brakes are inhibited (and will auto-retract if extended) in relation to what Flap position....(A320 & A321)
A320 : Flaps FULL, A321 : Flaps 3 and Flaps FULL
What does Alpha Max represent (SOLID RED BAR ON AIRSPEED)?
The speed corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can obtain in Normal Law
If the Sidestick is held full aft, will Alpha Max be exceeded? (yellow bar, yellow tiger tail, red bar on airspeed)
No, Alpha Max cannot be exceeded even if the side stick is pulled and held fully back
During the approach, in Normal Law, you hear the aural warning, "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED". What does this represent?
Low Energy Warning. Thrust must be increased. Decreasing ptich alone is not enough to recover a positive flight path angle
The aircraft is in Alternate law. (Yelow bar and RED TIGER TAIL on airspeed) What would occur if the Sidestick is pulled further aft?
The airplane can be stalled in Alternate Law. An audio stall warning consisting of "crickets" and a "stall" aural message is also activated.
What is indicated by the green "equal" sign at the TOP of the speed tape?
The speed at which Normal Law overspeed protection becomes active. (A pitch up demand is introduced, and the autopilot disconnects. When the protection is active, pilot sidestick authority is reduced, and cannot overpower the automatic pitch up)
Referencing this speed tape, with A/THR engaged, what speed would the aircraft fly if you selected 130 kts? (Normal Law, Indicated speed is 155 kts, "F" speed cue is at 145 kts)
The Target "bug" can be set to 130, but the aircraft will only slow to Vls
Why would you press the guarded NAV p/b on an RMP?
DUAL MCDU/FMGC FAILURE. (NAV pb guarded) Allows selection of navaids based on VOR/LS pushbutton and channel tuning with selector knob.
What doe the blue symbols at HOGGS indicate? (On the ND) Ligntning bold on left side of HOGGS and Blue down hockey stick on right side.
Intercept the vertical profile and continue the managed descent
Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides Attitude and Heading information?
IR
What is indicated by a flashing "ALIGN" light? (on the ADIRS/IR buttons)
1. IR alignment fault 2. No present position enter after 10 minutes or 3. Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude, 4. Aircraft Movement during align (Note: New ADIRS panels A/C 796 and up, lights are not present. If any of the ADIRS error, the prompt "REALIGN IRS" apperas on the INIT page instead of "ALIGN IRS". Also "IRS IN ALIGN x MN" memo is replaced by "IR NOT ALIGNED" ECAM caution.
SOP requires that the ATC Selector be operated in position 1. Why?
Only system 1 is available in emergency electrical config
With fuel in the center tank(320), when do the Center Tank Pumps run with the MODE SEL in AUTO?
Center tank pmps run at engine start for 2 mins. Before/after engine start, the pumps run with slats retraced and fuel in the center tank. Center tank pumps stop 5 mins after tank empty (low level reached)
What is indicated by the green "OPEN" X FEED light in the Fuel panel?
VALVE IS FULLY OPEN
What is represented by a "FAULT" light in the Center Tank MODE SEL(321) pushbutton?
With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, Center Tank Fuel is not being transferred to the wing tanks when it should be. (The center tank hs more than 550 lbs of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs)
If the RAT is extended by the hydraulic RAT MAN ON pb, will the electric EMER GEN couple to the aircraft electrical system?
NO
In flght, when will the PTU operate with the pb in AUTO?
The PTU operates automatically when the differential pressure between the green and yellow system is more than 500 psi
Normal procedures reaquire the hydraulic YELLOW ELECT PUMP to be turned ON during One Engine taxi. Why?
Prevents PTU operation while taxiing (noisy); due to no pressure differential, Hydraulic pressure source for YELLOW system braking
When are the PROBES and WINDOWS heated automatically?
In flight, or on the gorund with one engine running (except the TAT probes)
With loss of electrical power, in which position do the wing anti-ice valves fail?
Wings: CLOSED (ENG: Open)
By selecting the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch OFF (per LOSS of Braking Memory items), what effect does this have on the braking system?
Green HYD pressure is shut off to the Normal Brake System. Yellow HYD system supplies pressure to the brakes without anti-skid protection
If the DECEL light fails to illuminate after landing, what does this indicate?
The predetermined deceleration rate has NOT been achieved. (less than 80%) This could be due to brakes system failure, contaminated runway conditions, failure of the ground spoilers to extend, etc.
With the ENG MODE SEL switch in NORM (with the engine running), when is continuous ignition automatically selected?
1. Takeoff power is set (TOGA or FLX) 2. Eng Anti-Ice is on 3. Engine surge or stall in flight 4. Flap handle out of zero in flight
What does the flashing LVR MCT indication mean?
Power is not set to MCT, after engine failure, above green dot, clean config. (Not that the TL's MAY BE in the FLX/MCT detent)
What does the dashed green energy arc indicate? (On the ND)
The dashed green arc symbol indicates the required distance to land from present position (ie descend to airport elevation and decelerate to VAPP)
On approach, when is the Flight Warning Computer LDG INHIBIT feature active?
LDG MEMO: During landing (800 ft down to 80 kts) phase, the right side of E/WD displays a specific LDG INHIBIT (magenta) memo, which indicates that only failures that need immediate attention are displayed by the Flight Warning Computer (FWC)
What occurs when you press the T/O Config push button prior to departure?
Simuates the application of T/O power.
What triggers the signal to be sent for deployment of passenger oxygen masks, when the MASK MAN ON pushbutton is guarded in auto?
Cabin Altitude of 14,000'
What is indicated when the Crew Supply pushbutton "OFF" light is displayed?
When illuminated - Valve is closed accompanied by an amber OXY indication on the ECAM door page
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ENGINEERING
A specimen of copper having a rectangular cross section $15.2 \mathrm{mm} \times 19.1 \mathrm{mm}(0.60 \mathrm{in.} \times 0.75 \mathrm{in.})$ is pulled in tension with 44,500 N $(10,000 \mathrm{lb}_{\mathrm{f}})$ force, producing only elastic deformation. Calculate the resulting strain.
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The assembly consists of two blocks A and B which have a mass of 20 kg and 30 kg, respectively. Determine the distance B must descend in order for A to achieve a speed of 3 m /s starting from rest.
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A gas mixture consists of 3 kmol oxygen, 2 kmol nitrogen, and 0.5 kmol water vapor. The total pressure of the gas mixture is 100 kPa. The partial pressure of water vapor in this gas mixture is (a) 5 kPa (b) 9.1 kPa (c) 10 kPa (d) 22.7 kPa (e) 100 kPa
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A family that won a $100,000 prize on America’s Funniest Home Videos decided to put one-half of the money in a college fund for their child who was responsible for the prize. If the fund earned interest at 6% per year, how much was in the account 14 years after it was started?
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