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Lewis Ch. 14
Terms in this set (26)
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who has an immune deficiency involving the T lymphocytes. Which screening should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
a. Screening for allergies
b. Screening for malignancy
c. Antibody deficiency screening
d. Screening for autoimmune disorders
Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for the recognition and destruction of cancer cells. Allergic reactions, autoimmune disorders, and antibody deficiencies are mediated primarily by B lymphocytes and humoral immunity
A new mother expresses concern about her baby developing allergies and asks what the health care provider meant by "passive immunity." Which example should the nurse use to explain this type of immunity?
a. Early immunization
b. Bone marrow donation
c. Breastfeeding her infant
d. Exposure to communicable diseases
Colostrum provides passive immunity through antibodies from the mother. These antibodies protect the infant for a few months. However, memory cells are not retained, so the protection is not permanent. Active immunity is acquired by being immunized with vaccinations or having an infection. It requires that the infant has an immune response after exposure to an antigen. Cell-mediated immunity is acquired through T lymphocytes and is a form of active immunity
A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse expects elevation of which laboratory value?
Serum IgE is elevated in an allergic response (type 1 hypersensitivity disorders). The eosinophil level will be elevated rather than neutrophil or basophil counts. IgA is located in body secretions and would not be tested when evaluating a patient who has symptoms of atopic dermatitis
An older adult patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, "I feel fine, and I don't want to pay for all these unnecessary cancer screening tests!" Which information should the nurse plan to teach this patient?
a. Consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity
b. Decrease in antibody production associated with aging
c. Impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people
d. Incidence of cancer-stimulating infections in older individuals
The primary impact of aging on immune function is on T cells, which are important for immune surveillance and tumor immunity. Antibody function is not affected as much by aging. Poor nutrition can also contribute to decreased immunity, but there is no evidence that it is a contributing factor for this patient. Although some types of cancer are associated with specific infections, this patient does not have an active infection
A patient who collects honey to earn supplemental income has developed a hypersensitivity to bee stings. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate a need for additional teaching?
a. "I need to find another way to earn extra money."
b. "I will get a prescription for epinephrine and learn to self-inject it."
c. "I will plan to take oral antihistamines daily before going to work."
d. "I should wear a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating my allergy to bee stings."
Because the patient is at risk for bee stings and the severity of allergic reactions tends to increase with added exposure to allergen, taking oral antihistamines will not adequately control the patient's hypersensitivity reaction. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of management of the problem
Which teaching should the nurse provide about intradermal skin testing to a patient with possible allergies?
a. "Do not eat anything for about 6 hours before the testing."
b. "Take an oral antihistamine about an hour before the testing."
c. "Plan to wait in the clinic for 20 to 30 minutes after the testing."
d. "Reaction to the testing will take about 48 to 72 hours to occur."
Allergic reactions usually occur within minutes after injection of an allergen, and the patient will be monitored for at least 20 minutes for anaphylactic reactions after the testing. Medications that might modify the response, such as antihistamines, should be avoided before allergy testing. There is no reason to be NPO for skin testing. Results with intradermal testing occur within minutes
The nurse, who is reviewing a clinic patient's medical record, notes that the patient missed the previous appointment for weekly immunotherapy. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Schedule an additional dose that week.
b. Administer the usual dosage of the allergen.
c. Consult with the health care provider about giving a lower allergen dose.
d. Re-evaluate the patient's sensitivity to the allergen with a repeat skin test.
Because there is an increased risk for adverse reactions after a patient misses a scheduled dose of allergen, the nurse should check with the health care provider before administration of the injection. A skin test is used to identify the allergen and would not be used at this time. An additional dose for the week may increase the risk for a reaction.
While obtaining a health history from a patient, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of allergic rhinitis and multiple food allergies. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops.
b. Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves.
c. Document the patient's allergy history and be alert for any clinical manifestations of a type I latex allergy.
d. Recommend that the patient use vinyl gloves instead of latex gloves in preventing blood-borne pathogen contact.
The patient's allergy history and occupation indicate a risk of developing a latex allergy. The nurse should be prepared to manage any symptoms that may occur. Epinephrine is not an appropriate treatment for contact dermatitis that is caused by a type IV allergic reaction to latex. Oil-based creams will increase the exposure to latex from latex gloves. Vinyl gloves are appropriate to use when exposure to body fluids is unlikely
The nurse teaches a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about plasmapheresis. What instructions about plasmapheresis should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
a. Plasmapheresis will eliminate eosinophils and basophils from blood.
b. Plasmapheresis will remove antibody-antigen complexes from circulation.
c. Plasmapheresis will prevent foreign antibodies from damaging various body tissues.
d. Plasmapheresis will decrease the damage to organs caused by attacking T lymphocytes.
Plasmapheresis is used in SLE to remove antibodies, antibody-antigen complexes, and complement from blood. T lymphocytes, foreign antibodies, eosinophils, and basophils do not directly contribute to the tissue damage in SLE
The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing plasmapheresis. The nurse should assess the patient for which clinical manifestation?
a. Shortness of breath
b. High blood pressure
c. Transfusion reaction
d. Numbness and tingling
Numbness and tingling may occur as the result of the hypocalcemia caused by the citrate used to prevent coagulation. The other clinical manifestations are not associated with plasmapheresis
Which statement by a patient would alert the nurse to a possible immunodeficiency disorder?
a. "I take one baby aspirin every day to prevent stroke."
b. "I usually eat eggs or meat for at least 2 meals a day."
c. "I had my spleen removed many years ago after a car accident."
d. "I had a chest x-ray 6 months ago when I had walking pneumonia."
Splenectomy increases the risk for septicemia from bacterial infections. The patient's protein intake is good and should improve immune function. Daily aspirin use does not affect immune function. A chest x-ray does not have enough radiation to suppress immune function
Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a. Patient with urticaria after receiving an IV antibiotic
b. Patient who has graft-versus-host disease and severe diarrhea
c. Patient who is sneezing after having subcutaneous immunotherapy
d. Patient with multiple chemical sensitivities who has muscle stiffness
Sneezing after subcutaneous immunotherapy may indicate impending anaphylaxis and assessment and emergency measures should be initiated. The other patients also have findings that need assessment and intervention by the nurse, but do not have evidence of life-threatening complications
Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient develops a skin rash. What would the nurse suspect is the cause of this patient's skin rash?
a. The donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells.
b. The patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow.
c. The patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
d. The patient will need treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection.
The patient's history and symptoms indicate that the patient is experiencing graft-versus-host disease, in which the donated T cells attack the patient's tissues. The history and symptoms are not consistent with rejection or delayed hypersensitivity
An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?
b. Gamma globulin
c. Hepatitis B vaccine
d. Fresh frozen plasma
The patient should first receive antibodies for hepatitis B from injection of gamma globulin. The hepatitis B vaccination series should be started to provide active immunity. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids will not be effective in preventing hepatitis B in the patient
The nurse teaches a patient about drug therapy after a kidney transplant. Which statement by the patient would indicate a need for further instructions?
a. "After a couple of years, it is likely that I will be able to stop taking the cyclosporine."
b. "If I develop an acute rejection episode, I will need to have other types of drugs given IV."
c. "I need to be monitored closely because I have a greater chance of developing malignant tumors."
d. "The drugs are given in combination because they inhibit different ways the kidney can be rejected."
Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor, will need to be continued for life. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no further teaching is necessary about those topics
An older adult patient has a prescription for cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which information in the patient's health history has the most implications for planning patient teaching about the medication at this time?
a. The patient restricts salt to treat prehypertension.
b. The patient drinks 3 to 4 quarts of fluids every day.
c. The patient has many concerns about the effects of cyclosporine.
d. The patient has a glass of grapefruit juice every day for breakfast.
Grapefruit juice can increase the toxicity of cyclosporine. The patient should be taught to avoid grapefruit juice. High fluid intake will not affect cyclosporine levels or renal function. Cyclosporine may cause hypertension, and the patient's many concerns should be addressed, but these are not potentially life-threatening problems
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. Which intervention will the nurse prepare for this patient?
a. Administration of immunosuppressant medications
b. Insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis
c. Placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list
d. A blood draw for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) matching
Acute rejection is treated with the administration of additional immunosuppressant drugs such as corticosteroids. Because acute rejection is potentially reversible, there is no indication that the patient will require another transplant or hemodialysis. There is no indication for repeat HLA testing
The charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which patient would be the most appropriate roommate for a patient who has acute rejection of an organ transplant?
a. A patient who has viral pneumonia
b. A patient with second-degree burns
c. A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting
d. A patient with graft-versus-host disease after a recent bone marrow transplant
Treatment for a patient with acute rejection includes administration of additional immunosuppressants, and the patient should not be exposed to increased risk for infection as would occur from patients with viral pneumonia, graft-versus-host disease, and burns. There is no increased exposure to infection from a patient who had an anaphylactic reaction
A patient who has received allergen testing using the cutaneous scratch method has developed itching and swelling at the skin site. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Administer epinephrine.
b. Apply topical hydrocortisone.
c. Monitor the patient for lower extremity edema.
d. Ask the patient about exposure to any new lotions or soaps.
The initial symptoms of anaphylaxis are itching and edema at the site of the exposure. Hypotension, tachycardia, dilated pupils, and wheezes occur later. Rapid administration of epinephrine when excessive itching or swelling at the skin site is observed can prevent the progression to anaphylaxis. Topical hydrocortisone would not deter an anaphylactic reaction. Exposure to lotions and soaps does not address the immediate concern of a possible anaphylactic reaction. The nurse should not wait and observe for edema. The nurse should act immediately in order to prevent progression to anaphylaxis
A patient who is anxious and has difficulty breathing seeks treatment after being stung by a wasp. What is the nurse's priority action?
a. Have the patient lie down.
b. Assess the patient's airway.
c. Administer high-flow oxygen.
d. Remove the stinger from the site.
The initial action with any patient with difficulty breathing is to assess and maintain the airway. The other actions also are part of the emergency management protocol for anaphylaxis, but the priority is airway maintenance
Immediately after the nurse administers an intracutaneous injection of an allergen on the forearm, a patient complains of itching at the site and of weakness and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?
a. Remind the patient to remain calm.
b. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
c. Apply a tourniquet above the injection site.
d. Rub a local antiinflammatory cream on the site.
Application of a tourniquet will decrease systemic circulation of the allergen and should be the first reaction. A local antiinflammatory cream may be applied to the site of a cutaneous test if the itching persists. Epinephrine will be needed if the allergic reaction progresses to anaphylaxis. The nurse should assist the patient to remain calm, but this is not an adequate initial nursing action
A clinic patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. Which action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
a. Perform a focused physical assessment.
b. Obtain the health history from the patient.
c. Teach the patient about the various diagnostic studies.
d. Administer skin testing by the cutaneous scratch method.
LPN/LVNs are educated and licensed to administer medications under the supervision of an RN. RN-level education and the scope of practice include assessment of health history, focused physical assessment, and patient teaching
The health care provider asks the nurse whether a patient's angioedema has responded to prescribed therapies. Which assessment should the nurse perform?
a. Ask the patient about any clear nasal discharge.
b. Obtain the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.
c. Check for swelling of the patient's lips and tongue.
d. Assess the patient's extremities for wheal and flare lesions.
Angioedema is characterized by swelling of the eyelids, lips, and tongue. Wheal and flare lesions, clear nasal drainage, and hypotension and tachycardia are characteristic of other allergic reactions.
A nurse has obtained donor tissue typing information about a patient who is waiting for a kidney transplant. Which results should be reported to the transplant surgeon?
a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative
b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing
c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive
d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low
Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation, since a hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable
A patient who is receiving immunotherapy has just received an allergen injection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
a. The patient's IgG level is increased.
b. The injection site is red and swollen.
c. The patient's allergy symptoms have not improved.
d. There is a 2-cm wheal at the site of the allergen injection.
A local reaction larger than quarter size may indicate that a decrease in the allergen dose is needed. An increase in IgG indicates that the therapy is effective. Redness and swelling at the site are not unusual. Because immunotherapy usually takes 1 to 2 years to achieve an effect, an improvement in the patient's symptoms is not expected after a few months
A patient who is receiving an IV antibiotic develops wheezes and dyspnea. In which order should the nurse implement these prescribed actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]).
a. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion.
b. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV.
c. Inject epinephrine (Adrenalin) IM or IV.
d. Prepare an infusion of dopamine (Intropin).
e. Start 100% oxygen using a nonrebreather mask
A, E, C, B, D
The nurse should initially discontinue the antibiotic because it is the likely cause of the allergic reaction. Next, oxygen delivery should be maximized, followed by treatment of bronchoconstriction with epinephrine administered IM or IV. Diphenhydramine will work more slowly than epinephrine, but will help prevent progression of the reaction. Because the patient currently does not have evidence of hypotension, the dopamine infusion can be prepared last
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