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Bio 242 Final Exam

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The response target cell to a hormone depends on which of the following?

a. concentration of the hormone

b. concentration of receptors

c. affinity of the receptor for the hormone

d. a & c

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
a, b & c
Given the following observations:

1. A hormone will affect only a specific tissue (i.e., a hormone will not affect all tissues.)

2. A tissue can respond to more than one hormone.

3. Some tissues can respond rapidly to a hormone while others take many hours to respond.

Which observation can be explained by hormone receptors?
Answer:
2 & 3
Endocrine organs can be regulated by all of the following, except______.

a. hormones from other endocrine glands.

b. changes in the genetic makeup of certain hypothalamic cells

c. direct neural stimulation

d. changes in the composition of the blood

e. regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus
Answer:
changes in the genetic makeup of certain hypothalamic cells
Hormones (1) generally utilize negative feedback mechanisms to regulate their secretion; (2) will only affect target cells far removed from the hormone-producing secretory cells; (3) must bind to transport proteins in order to circulate in the blood; (4) may be released in low concentrations but can produce large effects in the target cells; (5) can affect the responsiveness of the target tissue by controlling the number of receptor sites for the hormone.
Answer:
1, 4, & 5
The class adrenal gland hormones that provides resistance to stress, produces anti-inflammatory effects, and promotes normal metabolism to ensure adequate quantities of ATP is _______.
Answer:
glucocorticoids
Cyclic-AMP (cAMP) functions to _______.
Answer:
c. open ion channels and activate key enzymes in the cytoplasm
The cell bodies of neurosecretory cells capable of releasing ADH are located in the _______.
Answer:
hypothalamus
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
Answer:
humoral stimulation
Which statement(s) is/are true of classic hormones?

a. Hormones act on target cells and tissues.

b. Very small quantities of hormones are highly effective.

c. Tissues that are not solely endocrine glands can produce hormones.

d. Hormones are transported via the blood.

e. All of the above are true.
Answer:
e. All of the above are true.
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because_______.
Answer:
G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
The rate of hormonal secretion of epinephrine is primarily controlled by ________.
Answer:
the nervous system
Increased levels of phosphodiesterase in target cells would decrease the activity of _________.
Answer:
FSH
What is likely to cause an increase in intercellular cAMP levels?
Answer:
stimulation of adenylate cyclase activity
In general, steroid hormones function as________.
Answer:
hormones
Which form of thyroid hormone has greater activity at target cells?
Answer:
T₃
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of what from the anterior pituitary?

a. sex hormones

b. FSH

c. both a & b

d. a, b, & c
Answer:
c. both a & b
In primary hyposecretion of thyroid hormones_______.
Answer:
levels of thyroid hormones in the blood decrease
Which of the following is not a category of water-soluble hormones?

a. peptides

b. amines

c. eicosanoids

d. steroids

e. proteins
Answer:
d. steroids
The most complex and diverse endocrine responses involve the ______.
Answer:
hypothalamus
What is an example of permissiveness?
Answer:
Estrogen stimulates synthesis if progesterone receptors in the endometrium.
Exocrine glands secrete hormones.
Answer:
False
Neural input to the hypothalamus is involved in regulating the secretion of hormones by both lobes of the pituitary gland.
Answer:
True
Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
False
Thyroid hormones are classified as amines.
Answer:
True
Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland.
Answer:
True
If the effect of two or more hormones acting together is greater than the sum of each acting alone, then the two hormones are said to have a permissive effect.
Answer:
False
IN the direct gene activation mechanism of hormone action, the hormone enters the target cell and binds to an intercellular receptor. The activated receptor-hormone complex then alters a second messenger system to produce the protein that causes the physiological responses that are characteristics of the hormone.
Answer:
False
An atherosclerotic deposit that blocked blood flow in the hypophyseal portal system would cause the testes and ovaries to malfunction.
Answer:
True
The hypophyseal portal system_________.
Answer:
carries hormones form the hypothalamus to the adenohypophysis
Which of the following steps occurs thirdly?

a. adenylate phosphate cyclase is activated

b. receptor sites are stimulated on the target

c. increases on cAMP concentrations

d. ATP breakdown
Answer:
d. ATP breakdown
Which of one of the following is incorrect with regard to oxytocin?

a. It is synthesized by the posterior pituitary.

b. It stimulates contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus.

c. It aids in ejection of milk during lactation.

d. It may play a role in bonding and social interactions.

e. All of the above are correct.
Answer:
a. It is synthesized by the posterior pituitary.
Tropic hormones______.
Answer:
include ACTH and TSH
Which of the following statements concerning hormones is true?

a. A hormone that combines with a membrane-bound receptor is acting as the first messenger.

b. Hormones that stimulate the synthesis of 2ⁿᵈ messenger molecules often produce a delayed response.

c. Hormones that are lipid soluble bind to receptors on the cell membranes's surface.
Answer:
a. A hormone that combines with a membrane-bound receptor is action as the first messenger.
The neurohypophysis is not a true endocrine gland because________.

a. it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release

b. embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional

c. it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location

d. it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

e. Two of the above are not true.
Answer:
e. Two of the above are not true.
If both ACTH and cortisol levels increase, which of the following would occur?

a. ACTH production is increased even more by positive feedback.

b. High cortisol levels will begin to cause ACTH levels to decline.

c. High ACTH levels will begin to cause cortisol levels to decline.
Answer:
b. High cortisol levels will begin to cause ACTH levels to decline.
Concerning the half-life of hormones,______.

a. lipid-soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life

b. hormones with shorter half-lives regulate body action more precisely than hormones with longer half-lives

c. hormones with a longer half-life are maintained at more constant levels in the blood

d. all of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above
Given the following list of molecule types:
1. amino acids derivatives

2. fatty acid (lipid) derivatives

3. polypeptides

4. proteins

5. steroids

Of the molecule types listed, which include hormones (both classic and local)?
Answer:
1, 2, 3, 4, & 5
The deflection waves in an ECG tracing include______.
Answer:
the T-wave, which indicates ventricular repolarization
The fibrous pericardium_______.
Answer:
forms the outer layer of the percardium
Which of these structures return the blood to the right atrium?

a. coronary sinus

b. inferior vena cava

c. superior vena cava

d. both b & c

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
The first heart sound is heard when the _______.
Answer:
AV valves close
If the aorta was not an elastic artery, there would be________.
Answer:
large decreases in the diastolic pressure in the system circulation
Blood flows neither into nor out of the ventricles during_______.

a. the period of isovolumetric contraction

b. the period of isovolumetric relaxation

c. ventricular systole

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
d. a & b
According to the Frank-Starling's law of the heart, the cardiac output is directly related to the ________.
Answer:
venous return
When the semilunar valves are open, the pressure in the left ventricle is_________.
Answer:
greater than the pressure in the aorta
Pressure in the aorta is at its lowest______.
Answer:
just before the semilunar valves
Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

a. A slow hear rate can increase end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

b. Decreased venous return return will result in increased end diastolic volume.

c. If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the ESV in the affected ventricle would be decreased.

d. Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.

e. Two of the statements above are correct about cardiac output.
Answer:
a. A slow heart rate can increase end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
In capillary exchange, which of the following statements is true?

a. Nine-tenths (9/10) of the fluid that leave the capillary reenters the capillary.

b. Interstitial fluid normally has a high osmotic pressure that plasma (fluid portion of the blood).

c. Constriction of the precapillary sphincter will increase blood pressure in the capillary.

d. Protein concentration in the interstitial spaces is normally higher than protein concentration in the plasma.

e. Two of the above are correct statements.
Answer:
a. Nine-tenths (9/10) of the fluid that leave the capillary reenters the capillary.
Blood flow through the capillary beds can be controlled by_____.

a. the metabolic needs of tissues

b. the precapillary sphincter

c. an increase in vasodilator substances

d. any two of the preceding

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Which of the following properties of capillaries enhances the exchange that occurs between the capillaries and the interstitial spaces?

a. the thinness if the capillary wall

b. the extensive branching if the capillaries

c. the blood velocity through the capillaries

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Which coat of an artery contains endothelium?
Answer:
tunica intima
As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries, the_________.
Answer:
resistance increases
The blood osmotic pressure is most affected by changes in________.
Answer:
the concentration of plasma proteins
Baroreceptors that function in the regulation of blood pressure are located in the________.
Answers:
carotid sinus
In response to hemorrhage (severe blood loss), there is_________.
Answer:
mobilization of the venous reserve
The tricuspid valve is closed_______.
Answer:
when the ventricles are systole
Which one of the following listed is pierced thirdly by the point of a pin entering the body from the outside?

a. pericardial fluid

b. visceral pericardium

c. parietal pericardium

d. myocardium
Answer:
b. visceral pericardium
Which of the following structures does not open into or out of the left side of the heart?

a. aorta

b. pulmonary veins

c. pulmonary trunk

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
c. pulmonary trunk
The pectinate muscles are ________.
Answer:
prominent muscular ridges in the walls of the right atrium and auricle
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart________.

a. increases the heart rate

b. increases the contractility of the heart

c. activates the Frank-Starling effect

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Ventricular pressure is greatest when______.
Answer:
all valves are open
Which of the following is greater?

a. the number of action potential per minute spontaneously generated by the SA node

b. the number of action potentials per minute spontaneously generated by the AV node

c. Neither is greater under resting conditions.
Answer:
a. the number of action potential per minute spontaneously generated by the SA node
Manganese ion blocks the calcium channels in the cardiac muscle membrane. How would the presence of the manganese in the extracellular fluid affect the contraction of the heart muscle?
Answer:
The heart would beat less forcefully.
At an intercalated disc _________.
Answer:
two cardiac cells are connected by a gap junction
In the cardiac cycle, ___________.
Answer:
the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract
Cardiac muscle does not exhibit tetanus because it has_________.
Answer:
a long absolute refractory period
The atria contract during_________.
Answer:
after the P-wave
A person with a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 95 mmHg would have a mean arterial pressure of about _________.
Answer:
110 mmHg
Plasma solutes enter the tissue fluid most easily from __________.
Answer:
fenestrated capillaries
A blood vessel adapted to withstand a high pulse pressure would be expected to have_______.
Answer:
an elastic tunica media
Contraction of the papillary muscles_________.
Answer:
prevent the AV valves from projecting into the atria
The blood vessels that play the most important role in the regulation of blood flow to a tissue and blood pressure are the _______.
Answer:
arterioles
In a case where interstitial hydrostatic pressure is essentially zero, the only force causing capillaries to reabsorb fluid is_______.
Answer:
colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
Which one of the following does not have the same effect as other listed on heart rate and the force of contraction?

a. epinephrine

b. norepinephrine

c. sympathetic stimulation

d. acetylcholine
Answer:
d. acetylcholine
With the progressive change from arteries to capillaries, which of the following listed is not true?

a. there is a decrease in the diameter of the vessels

b. there is a decrease in the thickness of the wall of the vessels

c. there is an increase in the velocity at which the blood travels through the vessels

d. there is a decrease in the pressure within the vessels
Answer:
c. there is an increase in the velocity at which the blood travels through the vessels
The goal of cardiovascular regulation includes all of the following except to ensure that___________.

a. blood flow changes occur at the appropriate time

b. blood flow changes occur in the appropriate area

c. changes occur without drastically altering blood pressure

d. sufficient concentrations of blood cells are present to meet emergency situations

e. changes occur without drastically altering blood flow to a vital organ
Answer:
d. sufficient concentrations of blood cells are present to meet emergency situations
Which of the following statements regarding intrinsic regulation of the heart is false?

a. Stretching the SA node will increase generation of action potentials in the node.

b. Elevated venous return increases cardiac output.

c. The heart's pumping effectiveness is greatly influenced by small changes in afterload.

d. If cardiac muscle fibers are stretched, they have a stronger contraction force.
Answer:
c. The heart's pumping effectiveness is greatly influenced by small changes in afterload.
I.P. Daily suffers from a regurgitating ["backwash"] mitral valve. This condition could cause______.
Answer:
fluid congestion in the lungs
Approximately what percentage of ventricular filling is a accomplished passively?
Answer:
75%
A heart rate of 45 BPM (beats per minute) and an absence of P waves would suggest________.
Answer:
heart block
There are no valves at the point where venous blood into the atria.
Answer:
True
The process of cyclic changes in vessel diameter that occurs at he origin of a capillary is called vasomotion.
Answer:
True
The "lub" sounds of the heat are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's semilunar valves.
Answer:
False
Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane.
Answer:
False
The capillaries contain only about 5% of the total blood volume at any point in time.
Answer:
True
The atria and ventricles each act as a functional syncytium.
Answer:
True
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

1. draining the interstitial fluid

2. transporting large quantities of proteins

3. transporting dietary fats

4. protecting against invasion of microbes

5. carries out the immune response
Answer:
2 only
Which of the following are considered nonspecific defense responses of the body?

a. mechanical barriers

b. fever

c. phagocytosis

d. inflammation

e. a, b, c, & d
Answer:
e. a, b, c, & d
During erythrocyte destruction, the iron from hemoglobin ultimately end up in which one of the following?

a. bilirubin

b. globin

c. erythropoietin

d. heme

e. transferrin
Answer:
e. transferrin
This cell releases cytokines to activate B-lymphocytes, increase the activity of macrophages, and in general regulates the overall immune system.
Answer:
helper T-cells
Which of these conditions does not does not occur during inflammatory response?

a. histamine and other chemical mediators are released

b. clotting proteins enter tissue form the blood

c. increase permeability of blood vessels

d. chemotaxis of phagocytes

e. vasoconstriction of blood vessels
Answer:
e. vasoconstriction of blood vessels
A surface chemical or secretion that destroys bacteria is_______.
Answer:
lysozome
Non-motile, histamine-releasing cells that are derived form bone marrow and found in connective tissue near potential sites of microbial entry are_______.
Answer:
mast cells
MHC molecules_______.

a. are glycoproteins

b. have a variable region that can bind to foreign and self-antigen

c. may form an MHC/antigen complex that activates T-cells

d. attach to plasma membrane

e. all of the preceding
Answer:
e. all of the preceding
Which of the following is not a function of plasma proteins?

a. facilitating retention if fluid in the blood vessels

b. playing a role in blooding clotting

c. transporting H₂O-insoluble substances in the blood

d. serving as antibodies

e. transporting O₂ in the blood
Answer:
e. transporting O₂ in the blood
The MHC Class I/antigen complex displays a foreign AG. This prompts the immune system to _________.
Answer:
destroy the displaying cell
Which of these participates in co-stimulation?

a. cytokines

b. complement

c. antibodies

d. APC surface receptors

e. NK cells
Answer:
d. APC surface receptors
An elevated neutrophil count is usually indicative of _________.
Answers:
a bacteria infection
Which one of the following is not true?

a. the protein of a hemoglobin is called globin

b. oxygen is carried by the heme portion of hemoglobin

c. carbon dioxide can reversibly bind with the heme portion of hemoglobin

d. most of the oxygen transported per liter of blood is carried by the hemoglobin molecules

e. two of the preceding are not true
Answer:
c. carbon dioxide can reversibly bind with the heme portion of hemoglobin
___________ can become immunogenic by binding to larger host molecules.
Answer:
Haptens
The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in _________.

a. neutralization of the antigen

b. agglutination or precipitation

c. complement activation and opsonization

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answers:
e. a, b, & c
Both interstitial fluid and lymph are similar in composition t plasma except that interstitial fluid and lymph have less protein than plasma.
Answer:
Both statements are correct.
A virus is injected into a rabbit and the rabbit is allowed to make antibodies to the viral antigen. These antibodies are then removed from the rabbit plasma and injected into a human to help deal with the same viral disease. This injection would be an example of __________ acquired immunity.
Answer:
passive, artificially
Which sequence is correct for the following events?

1. fibrinogen → fibrin

2. clot retraction

3. formation of prothrombin activator

4. prothrombin → thrombin
Answer:
3, 4, 1, & 2
The function of CD4 and CD8 proteins is to assist T-cells in _________.
Answer:
the coupling during Ag recognition
Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ______ to attract white blood cells to the injury scene.
Answer:
cytokines
If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which if the following cell could not be produced?

a. B-cells

b. T-cells

c. erythrocytes

d. neutrophils

e. all of the preceding
Answer:
e. all of the preceding
The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response:
1. Several cycles of mitosis occur

2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage

3. Cytotoxic T-cells migrate to area of infection

4. Undifferentiated T-cell with specific receptors recognize the antigen

5. T-cells differentiate into cytotoxic T-cells and T-memory cells

6. Cytotoxic T-cells release perforins

The correct sequence for these steps is________.
Answer:
2, 4, 1, 5, 3, & 6
Fred Fibula's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
Answer:
There are no antibodies to A antigen, to B antigen or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _________.
Answer:
monocytes
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

a. moving to a higher altitude

b. an increased number of RBCs (red blood cells)

c. decreased renal blood flow

d. decreased tissue demand for oxygen

e. two of the preceding
Answer:
e. two of the preceding
Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

a. tonsils

b. spleen

c. pancreas

d. BALT

e. MALT
Answer:
c. pancreas
Peyer's patch are found in the________.
Answer:
small intestine
Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

a. Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.

b. Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into blood.

c. Lymphoid tissues is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

d. Helper-T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.

e. two of the above are correct statements are correct about lymphoid tissue.
Answer:
c. Lymphoid tissues is predominantly reticular connective tissue.
Functions of the spleen include_______.

a. storage of platelets

b. removal of old RBCs (red blood cells)

c. WBC (white blood cell) proliferation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Platelets_______.

a. are derived from megakaryocytes

b. are cell fragments

c. have surface molecules that attach to collagen

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
B-cells are most effectively activated by the activities of ________.
Answer:
Tʜ2 cells
Endogenous antigens are usually associated with__________.
Answer:
MHC-Class I proteins
Perforins are proteins associated with activity of _________.

a. Cytotoxic T-cells

b. Natural killer cells

c. B-cells

d. Grunge rock bands.

e. Two of the above are correct.
Answer:
e. Two of the above are correct.
Which of the following is not true of antibodies?

a. there are produced by cells found in lymphoid organs

b. they are produced in response to specific antigens

c. they may function by enhancing phagocytosis of the specific invading substance

d. they may function by directly combining with the specific substance

e. all of the above are true of antibodies
Answer:
e. all of the above are true of antibodies
Cytotoxic T-cells
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
Requires duel binding of a lymphocyte with both foreign antigen and self antigens present on the surface of a host cell
Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
Involved in rejection if the transplanted tissue
Answer:
primarily cell-mediated immunity
Directly destroys targeted cells
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
Involves formation of memory cells in response to initial exposure to antigen
Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
Triggered by the binding of specific antigens to complementary lymphocyte receptors
Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
Involves a family of proteins that defend against viral infection
Answer:
primarily involved in innate immunity
A response to tissue injury in which neutrophils and macrophages play a major role
Answer:
primarily involved in innate immunity
A group of plasma proteins that, when activated, bring about the destruction foreign cells by attacking their plasma membranes
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
CD8s
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
Cytokines
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
Class I MHC proteins
Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity
Clonal selectoin
Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
causes platelets to aggregate in positive-feedback fashion
Answer:
ADP
fibrinolytic enzyme
Answer:
plasmin
inhibits platelet aggregation
Answer:
prostacyclin
In reference to genetic makeup of the blood, how many genotypes are normally possible?
Answer:
six
Frank Fibroblast has type A blood, meaning that he________.
Answer:
will have transfusion reaction if given type B blood
A helper-T cell can only bind to another cell that has __________.
Answer:
MHC-II proteins
Select the correct statement about antigens.

a. "self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.

b. The largest type of antigen is called a Hapten.

c. Only small antigens exhibit reactively.

d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

e. Two of the above are correct statements about antigens.
Answer:
d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
The only immunoglobin to exist as a pentamer is___________.
Answer:
IgM
______________ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist.
Answer:
Our genes
Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on
'self".

a. The development of tolerance is specific to B-cells only.

b. Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigen are chemically inactivated.

c. Tolerance to self is due the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to one's own tissues.

d. Tolerance is developed during fetal life.
Answer:
d. Tolerance is developed during fetal life.
Blood can absorb metabolic heat while undergoing only small changes in temperature.
Answer:
True
Hemoglobin can carry only oxygen.
Answer:
False
Erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets all originate form the same undifferentiated stem cells.
Answer:
True
The compliment system can be activated only by antibodies.
Answer:
False
Specific adaptive immune responses are accomplished by neutrophils.
Answer:
False
Lymphocytes are the most abundant WBCs (white blood cells) in the blood.
Answer:
False
Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
Answer:
False
An increase in the albumin concentration of the blood would tend to increase blood pressure.
Answer:
True
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is________.
Answer:
to secrete surfactant
The pleurae are vital to the integrity of the lungs because ___________.
Answer:
they produce a lubricating serous secretion, allowing the lungs to guide over the thorax wall during breathing
Intrapulmonary pressure is the _________.
Answer:
pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
Relationship between the pressure and volume of gases.
Answer:
Boyle's Law
Total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in a mixture.
Answer:
Dalton's Law
Amount of CO₂ in a Diet Cherry Coke.
Answer:
Henry's Law
Old age is not for sissies.
Answer:
Ellinger's Law
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because_________.
Answer:
a ↓ (decrease) in pH weakens the Hb-O₂ bond
All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are____________.

a. surrounded by a renal capsule

b. located within the peritoneum

c. held in place by renal fascia

d. surrounded by a layer of adipose

e. two of the preceding are exceptions
Answer:
b. located within the peritoneum
The respiratory membrane is combination of___________.
Answer:
alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
About ___% of the blood plasma that enters the kidneys is filtrated from the glomerulus.
Answer:
20
Which of the following statements is correct?

a. H⁺ acts directly on central chemoreceptors to decrease the rate and depth of breathing.

b. Low arterial pH is most powerful stimulator of respiration.

c. Arterial pH does not affect central chemoreceptors directly.

d. H⁺ has little effect on the blood pH.
Answer:
c. Arterial pH does not affect central chemoreceptors directly.
In normal quiet breathing expiration is brought about by __________.

a. inhibition of the inspiration

b. stimulation of sympathetic neurons

c. stimulation of expiratory muscles

d. stimulation of parasympathetic neurons

e. none of the preceding are correct
Answer:
e. none of the preceding are correct
What statement about CO₂ is incorrect?

a. Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.

b. Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH.

c. More CO₂ dissolves in the blood plasma then is carried in the RBCs (red blood cells).

d. CO₂ concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.
Answer:
c. More CO₂ dissolves in the blood plasma then is carried in the RBCs (red blood cells).
Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability regulate breathing in response to___________.
Answer:
changes in Po₂
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?

a. maintenance of pH of interstitial fluid

b. maintenance of water balance

c. endocrine stimulation of red blood cell production

d. Regulation of blood pressure

e. All of the preceding are functions.
Answer:
e. All of the preceding are functions.
Renal corpuscles are located in the________.
Answer:
cortex
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is made up of _____________.
Answer:
the granular cells plus mascula densa
Humans can produce urine that is correctly described as being which of the following?

1. hyper-osmotic to body fluids

2. iso-osmotic to body fluids

3. hypo-osmotic to body fluids
Answer:
1, 2, & 3
The loops of Henle in the kidneys of a desert kangaroo rat are much longer than those in a white lab rat because_________.
Answer:
The kangaroo rat lives in an environment where water is scarce.
Glucose is usually completely reabsorbed form the filtrate by the time the filtrate has reached the__________.
Answer:
end of the PCT
Which is greater, less or equal?

GFR when the efferent arteriole is constricted
or
GFR when the efferent arteriole is dilated
Answer:
GFR when the efferent arteriole is constricted (Greater)
or
GFR when the efferent arteriole is dilated (Less)
Which is greater, less or equal?

permeability of ↑ (ascending) loop of Henle to H₂O
or
permeability of ↓ (descending) loop of Henle to H₂O
Answer:
permeability of ↑ (ascending) loop of Henle to H₂O (Less)
or
permeability of ↓ (descending) loop of Henle to H₂O (Greater)
Which is greater, less or equal?

permeability of DCT to H₂O when ADH is present
or
permeability of DCT to H₂O when ADH is absent
Answer:
permeability of DCT to H₂O when ADH is present (Greater)
or
permeability of DCT to H₂O when ADH is absent (Less)
Which is greater, less or equal?

amount of H₂O reabsorbed in PCT
or
amount of H₂O reabsorbed form loop of Henle
Answer:
amount of H₂O reabsorbed in PCT
or
amount of H₂O reabsorbed form loop of Henle
Which is greater, less or equal?

rate of filtrate formation in response to ↑ sympathetic stimulation
or
rate of filtrate formation in response to ↓ sympathetic stimulation
Answer:
rate of filtrate formation in response to ↑ sympathetic stimulation (Greater)
or
rate of filtrate formation in response to ↓ sympathetic stimulation (Less)
Given the following conditions: glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure = 75mmHg, capsular hydrostatic pressure = 15mmHg, and an effective filtration pressure of 35mmHg, what is the blood osmotic pressure?
Answer:
25
Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood.

a. During normal activity, a molecule of Hb returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O₂.

b. During conditions of acidosis, Hb is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.

c. Increased BPG levels in the RBCs enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.

d. A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
Answer:
d. A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
Autoregulation in the kidneys involves changes in the degree of __________.
Answer:
constriction of afferent and efferent arterioles
The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the__________.
Answer:
loop of Henle
When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, _________.
Answer:
the volume of the thorax increases
The filtration membrane includes all except________.
a. glomerular endothelium

b. podocytes

c. renal fascia

d. basement membrane
Answer:
c. renal fascia
Intracellular fluid makes up about____% of the total body weight.
Answer:
40
Damage to the renal medulla would interfere first with the functioning of the______.
a. Bowman's capsule

b. DCT

c. CD

d. PCT

e. glomerulus
Answer:
c. CD
Untreated diabetes mellitus can result in________.
Answer:
metabolic acidosis
The kidney contributes to the maintenance of acid-based balance by _________.

a. conserving [reabsorbing] HCO₃⁻

b. regenerating new HCO₃⁻

c. excreting HCO₃⁻

d. excretion of buffered H⁺

e. all of the preceding
Answer:
e. all of the preceding
A patient who has severe diarrhea suffers a loss of water, bicarbonate ions, and sodium ions. Physiological compensation for these would include_______.
Answer:
decreased output of urine
Substances secreted by the DCT/CD include________.

a. hydrogen and potassium ions

b. penicillin and crack

c. creatine

d. a & c

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Which one of the following is correct?

a. Regulation of sodium content of the body is closely linked with control of the extracellular fluid volume.

b. The factors involved in regulation of sodium content of the body are influenced by blood pressure.

c. Sodium has a direct influence on extracellular volume.

d. Loss od sodium tends to cause a decrease in plasma volume.

e. All of the above are correct.
Answer:
e. All of the above are correct.
Mount Everest climber I.P. Daily may lose consciousness as the result of_______.
Answer:
respiratory alkalosis
A person who suffers from chronic diabetes will exhibit signs of _________.
Answer:
metabolic acidosis
A person who suffers from emphysema will exhibit signs of __________.
Answer:
respiratory acidosis
When the pH of body fluid begins to fall, proteins will __________.
Answer:
bind a hydrogen at the NH₂ group
Martin Mesangial, a young man of 20, was in a car accident and is hemorrhaging (severe bleeding). When he arrives by ambulance at Overlake Hospital, he is stabilized. However, they notice iver the next day he does not urinate. Which of the variable(s) for determining net filtration has (have) changed and can account for the lack of urine formation?
Answer:
glomerular blood pressure has decreased
Which of the following is greater?

a. facultative reabsorption when the body is hydrated

b. facultative reabsorption when the body is dehydrated

c. neither is greater
Answer:
b. facultative reabsorption when the body is dehydrated
The chloride shift occurs when ________.
Answer:
bicarbonate ions leave the red blood cells
Maria Mesenchyme is 8 months pregnant. when she goes to her doctor for her checkup, the nurse (a graduate of BC's Nursing Program) takes her blood pressure. It is unusually high: 200/100mmHg. The nurse also collects urine sample and detects elevated levels of proteins in her urine. What can account for the protein in her urine?
Answer:
Excessive mounts of plasma proteins are filtrated at the renal corpuscle.
In reference to the previous question, what would you predict has happened to Maria's plasma protein concentration?
Answer:
Plasma protein levels will have decreased.
In reference to the question about Maria, what do you think has happened to her urine production?
Answer:
Urine production increases.
The only avenue by which materials can be exchanged between the cells and the external environment is the ECF.
Answer:
True
Water is driven into the cells when the ECF volume is expanded by an isotonic fluid gain.
Answer:
True
An unintentional increase in CO₂ is a cause of respiratory acidosis, but a deliberate increase in CO₂ compensates for metabolic alkalosis.
Answer:
False
Part of the kidney's energy supply is used to accomplish glomerular filtration.
Answer:
False
Sodium reabsorption is under hormonal control throughout the length of the tubule.
Answer:
False
Water excretion can occur without comparable solute excretion.
Answer:
True
Hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than for any other substance.
Answer:
False
Normally the alveoli empty during maximal expiratory efforts.
Answer:
False
As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from Hb (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO₂ to combine with Hb and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).
Answer:
False
The mechanism for maintaining solute concentration gradient in the renal medulla require____________.
Answer:
active transport of sodium and chloride ions from the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
When water is lost but electrolytes are retained________.
Answer:
osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF
THe most important factor affecting the pH of body tissues is the concentration of __________.
Answer:
CO₂
Which of the following tends to promote an increase of sodium excretion?

a. an increase in the glomerular filtration rate

b. an increase in plasma renin concentration

c. an increase in the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide

d. a & c

e. a, b & c
Answer:
d. a & c
Because fluids are in constant motion from one compartment to another, the volume of fluid in each compartment must continually vary.
Answer:
Both phrases are correct.
In the presence of ADH, the greatest fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the _______.
Answer:
PCT
Mechanical digestion involves________.

a. mastication (chewing) by teeth

b. churning of food by the stomach and small intestine

c. breakdown of food by HCI

d. both a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
The final enzymatic steps in the digestive process are accomplished by ________.
Answer:
enzymes secreted by the pancreas
the most striking aspect of small intestine histology is the ___________.
Answer:
adaptations for increasing absorptive area
Major function(s) of the simple epithelium of the GI tract is (are) _________.

a. secretion

b. absorption

c. protection

d. a & b

e. a & c
Answer:
d. a & b
All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that ________.

a. functions to control the rate of gastric emptying

b. involves both neural and endocrine reflexes

c. helps to ensure that the function of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Functions of the large intestine intestine include_________.
Answer:
absorption of water and compaction of feces
Blockage of the flow if bile into the duodenum interferes with digestion of __________.
Answer:
lipids only
Which of the following statements is an accurate statement regarding the various phases of gastrointestinal control?

a. The ANS is involved in the cephalic phase only.

b. The ANS is involved in the gastric phase only.

c. The ANS is involved in the intestinal phase only.

d. The ANS is involved in the gastric and intestinal phase only.

e. The ANS is involved in the all three phases.
Answer:
e. The ANS is involved in the all three phases.
Which of the following tends to inhibit acid secretion by the stomach?

a. an increase in the osmolarity of duodenal contents

b. entry of stomach acid into the duodenum

c. the arrival of food in the stomach

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
d. a & b
Most products of fat digestion are absorbed by _________.
Answer:
lymphatic vessels
The gallbladder________.
Answer:
stores and concentrates bile
When the surgeon Dr. I.M.A. Cutter makes an incision in the small intestine, in what order would she encounter these structures?

1. Epithelium

2. Submucosa

3. Serosa

4. Muscularis

5. Lamina propria

6. Muscularis mucosae
Answer:
3, 4, 2, 6, 5, & 1
Which of the are true?

1. Segmentation in the small intestine propels chyme through the intestinal tract.

2. The migrating motility complex is a type of motility in the small intestine.

3. The large surface area for absorption in the small intestine is due to several adaptations.

4. The mucus producing cells of the small intestine are Paneth cells.

5. Fat absorption in the small intestine requires the presence of bile salts.
Answer:
2, 3, & 5
The function of the hepatic portal circulation system is to __________.
Answer:
collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage
Chief cells of the stomach produce ________.
Answer:
pepsinogen
Emulsification ___________.
Answer:
reduces the attraction between fat molecules
Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastric secretion and motility are true?

1. The sign, smell, taste or thought of food can initiate the cephalic phase of gastric activity.

2. The gastric phase begins when food enters the small intestine.

3. Once activated, stretch receptors and chemoreceptors in the stomach trigger the flow of gastric juice and peristalsis.

4. Intestinal phase reflexes can inhibit gastric activity.

5. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying.
Answer:
1, 3 & 4
The stomach __________.
Answer:
has four large folds in the submucosa and mucosa
The aqueous component of pancreatic secretions ___________.
Answer:
contains HCO₃⁻
A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in ________.
Answer:
a higher pH during gastric digestion
Which of the following is greater?

a. the pH of the blood in gastric veins during digestion of a large meal

b. the pH of the blood in gastric veins following a 24-hour fast

c. neither is greater
Answer:
a. the pH of the blood in gastric veins during digestion of a large meal
Haustra are ___________.
Answer:
pocket-like pouches
Which of these is not considered part of the splanchnic circulation?

a. hepatic portal vein

b. inferior vena cava

c. superior mesenteric artery

d. celiac artery

e. two of the above
Answer:
b. inferior vena cava
Digestive organs that are retroperitoneal include ____________.

a. most of the pancreas

b. parts of the large intestine

c. most of the duodenum

d. a & b

e. a, b,& c
Answer:
e. a, b,& c
The esophagus __________.

a. is composed of both skeletal and smooth muscle

b. is collapsed when not involved in food propulsion

c. has all four of the basic alimentary canal layers

d. two of the preceding

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Mesenteries _________.

a. hold organs in place

b. store fat

c. provide routes for blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves to reach digestive viscera

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Which one of the following listed is passed thirdly by food going through the digestive tract?

a. sigmoid colon

b. cecum

c. duodenum

d. jejunum

e. colon
Answer:
b. cecum
Which one of the following listed is passed thirdly by food?

a. sigmoid colon

b. ascending colon

c. descending colon

d. transverse colon
Answer:
c. descending colon
The plicae circulares and intestinal villi are found in which of the four layers of the alimentary canal?

a. mucosa

b. submucosa

c. muscularis externa

d. serosa
Answer:
a. mucosa
Chemical digestion in the small intestine usually involves ________.
Answer:
pancreatic enzymes that are active in the lumen
Chylomicrons transport mostly __________.
Answer:
triglycerides
Micelles are _________.
Answer:
fatty elements surrounded by bile salts
What structure produces enzymes that digest carbohydrates?
Answer:
pancreas
Which of the following might occur if a person suffers from a severe case of hepatitis that impairs liver function?

a. Fat digestion is difficult

b. Toxins in the blood increases.

c. Plasma proteins decrease in concentration

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
The activities of the digestive system are regulated by ___________.

a. hormones

b. ANS

c. the contents of the digestive tract

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c
Answer:
e. a, b, & c
Which one of the following is not correct?

a. The pH of the HCI secreted into the stomach is about 1.5-3.5.

b. The HCI of the stomach is produced by parietal cells.

c. The HCI secreted into the stomach kills many bacteria that enter the digestive tract.

d. Bacteria are the cause of many stomach ulcers.

e. Actually, all of the above are correct.
Answer:
e. Actually, all of the above are correct.
Vitamin B₁₂ ________.
Answer:
is associated with intrinsic factor
The major process involved in the formation of bolus is ________.
Answer:
mastication
Insulin passes through the _______.
Answer:
bloodstream
Large blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves are found in the ____________.
Answer:
submucosa
Sympathetic neurons generally _________ digestive tract activity while parasympathetic neurons usually _________ it.
Answer:
inhibit, stimulate
What accounts for the fact that many invasions of microbes into the stomach are unsuccessful?

a. the strongly basic fluids in the stomach

b. the presence of immune cells in mucosa

c. the strongly acidic environment in the stomach

d. a & b

e. b & c
Answer:
e. b & c
A brush border is located in _______.
Answer:
the small intestine
The extent of nutrient uptake from the digestive tract depends on the body's needs.
Answer:
False
Foodstuffs not absorbed by the small intestine are absorbed by the large intestine.
Answer:
False
G-cells secrete the hormone gastrin directly into the stomach.
Answer:
False